Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Things I suck at (BOARDS) > COMLEX random > Flashcards

COMLEX random Flashcards

1
Q

Ligament that connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic side wall; also contains the ovaries, fallopian tubes, and round ligament of uterus

A

Broad ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ligament that connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall and contains the ovarian vessels

A

Suspensory ligament of the ovaries (aka infundibulopelvic ligament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ligament that connects the cervix to the side wall of the pelvis and contains the uterine vessels

A

Cardinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

LH stimulates the theca cells to do what?

A

Produce androgens, androstenedione, and testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

FSH stimulates the granulosa cells to do what?

A

Convert androstenedione to estriadol via aromatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the funtion of the corpus luteum after implantation

A

Produce progesterone to maintain the pregnancy until the syncytiotrophoblast takes over around 8-10 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Menorrhagia, dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, ENLARGED UTERUS

A

adenomysiosis (endomotrium within the myometrium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ovarian tumor composed of thyroid-like follicles

A

Struma ovarii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Can partial moles have a heartbeat?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Drug that can treat both breast cancer and osteoporosis

A

Raloxifene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bilateral adnexal cysts in someone with multiple gestations, trophoblastic disease, ovarian hyperstimulation, or pregnancy complicated by fetal hydrops is most likely what

A

Theca-lutein cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What causes the formation of theca-lutein cysts?

A

Leutinization and hypertrophy of the theca-interna cells due to excessive B-hCG stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ovarian tumor associated with ascites and pleural effusions

A

Fibromas; this is known as Meig’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Are BRCA1 and 2 tumor suppressors or oncogenes?

A

Tumor suppressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Serum levels of what are used to confirm menopause?

A

Increased FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is FSH increased in menopause?

A

Loss of negative feedback from decreased levels of estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If someone has galactorrhea from antipsychotic medications, what is your first step in tx?

A

Adjust the doses of antipsychotics, don’t want to give DA agonists as that may worsen schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a threatened abortion?

A

Uterine bleeding within the first 20 weeks of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is an inevitable abortion?

A

Uterine bleeding, lack of fetal heart tones, and a dilated cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In the 3 main congenital adrenal hyperplasias (17a-hydroxylase, 21-hydroxylase, and 11B-hydroxylase deficiencies), what hormone is decreased in all 3 cases?

A

Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Female neonate with masculinization and HTN

A

11B-hydroxylase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lab values in 11B-hydroxylase deficiency

A

Decreased alsoterone, increased 11-deoxycorticosterone (what causes the HTN in this case), decreased cortisol, increased sex hormones (what causes the virilization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common area to find boob cancer

A

Upper outer quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Freely moveable, well marginated mass beneath the areola that produces a serous effusion from the nipple

A

Intraductal papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is an intraductal papilloma different from a fibroadenoma?

A

Fibroadenomas don’t produce discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pregnancy category D

A

Risk to the fetus, but the risks of stopping drug therapy are greater than the risk to the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pregnancy category A

A

Have been studied in pregnant women and shown to have little affect on the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Category B medications

A

Have not been shown to affect the fetus, but there are inadequate human studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Category C medications

A

Have been shown to have adverse affects in animals but have not been studied in humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Key difference between placenta abruption and placenta previa

A

Presence of pain (in abruption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Endometriosis puts the patient at risk for what?

A

Infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most common cause of 2ndary ammenorhea

A

Eggo is preggo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When is a fetus most susceptible to teratogens?

A

Weeks 3-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Beta-waves are seen in which stage of sleep

A

Awake, eyes open AND REM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Alpha-waves are seen in which stage of sleep

A

Awake with eyes closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Theta waves are associated with which sleep stage?

A

N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Sleep spindles and K complexes are in what sleep stage

A

N2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Sleep-walking, night terrors and bedwetting occur in this stage of sleep

A

N3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Delta waves are seen in which stage of sleep.

A

N3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What neurotransmitter is key to initiating sleep

A

Serotonin in the raphe nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What will you see on a CT scan if someone has constrictive pericarditis

A

Calcifications around the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Common cause of constrictive pericarditis in immigrants

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What will you see in RA pressure tracing in constrictive pericarditis

A

Steep X and Y descents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MOA for Salmonella causing watery then bloody diarrhea

A

Direct activation of the immune response leading to increased cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How many organisms does shigella need to cause illness

A

~10 (very virulent)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Injury to this nerve will cause weakness of the flexor carpi ulnaris, medial half of flexor digitorum profundus, medial 2 lumbricals, all interrossei, the lumbricals, and the ADductor pollicis

A

Ulnar nerve at the medial epidondial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What other conditions are vitiligo patients likely to experience?

A

Autoimmune conditions (remember, having one autoimmune dx, vitiligo, predisposes to having other autoimmune dxs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In private practice, are doctors legally obligated to take new patients?

A

Nope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Difference between guttate and plaque psoriasis

A

Guttate is small salmon colored lesions, while plaque psoriasis is larger, well, plaques of pink lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When is a non-complete heart block at risk of progression to a complete (3rd degree) heart block

A

When it involves the His-purkinje conduction system, like Mobitz II block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Once you rule out reversible causes for a 3rd degree block, what do?

A

Put in an implantable pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Is medicare or medicaid for poor people?

A

Medicaid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Name a drug you can use for a prolactinoma besides bromocriptine

A

Cabergoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Drugs that bind tubulin and block polymerization of microtubules

A

Vinblastine and vincristine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Drugs that STABILIZE microtubles, resulting in a failure of mitosis

A

Taxanes: paclitaxel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

First generation sulfonylureas

A

Tolbutamide, chorpropamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

2nd gen sulfonylureas

A

Glyburide, glimepiride, glipizide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

AE specific to 1st gen sulfonylureas

A

Disulfiram-like effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

AE of sulfonylureas in general

A

Hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Diabetes drug class that causes edema (can lead to HF), weight gain and hepatoxocity

A

Glitazones/thiazolidinediones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Graves dx is what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type II, non-toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Who carries pertussis and how is it spread

A

Pertussis is only carried by humans and is spread via respiratory droplets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is better to screen for thyroid problems with? TSH or T4

A

TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Why is TSH better for screening for thyroid problems than T3 or T4

A

More sensitive; TSH levels show greater change before T3 and T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What WBC is the key player in asthma

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Recurrent oral/genital ulcers, uveitis, erythema nodosum

A

Behcet syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Proposed pathophysiology of Behcets

A

Immune complexes that attack large and small blood vessels in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Insidious onset of a limp and pain in the anterior hip or knee in boys 4-10 y/o

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease (avascular necrosis of the femoral head)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

In Legg-Calve-Perthes disease, what will x-ray show?

A

Femoral head is wide and flat due to collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Findings in familial dysbetalipoproteinemia

A

Increased total cholesterol, chylomicron remnants and VLDL, xanthomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Defect in what in familial dysbetalipoproteinemia

A

ApoE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Normal function of ApoE

A

Allows, along with ApoB48, for the LDL receptors on the liver to recognize chylomicrons and to be taken up into the liver and made into VLDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What classification of hyperlipidemias is familial dysbetalipoproteinemia

A

Type III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Type IV hyperlipidemia is aka as

A

Hypertriglyceridemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Hypertriglyceridemia is due to what?

A

Overproduction of VLDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What 4 bones make up the pterion

A

Frontal, parietal, temporal, sphenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Woman on an anti-seizure med has a baby with cleft lip/palate, nail hypoplasia, growth retardation, mental deficiency and cardiac defects. What drug was she on and what is the syndrome

A

Phenytoin causing fetal hydantoin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the drug of choice to reduce inflammation in ulcerative colitis

A

Sulfasalazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Where is the genetic defect in patients who are susceptible to malignant hyperthermia

A

Ryanodine receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Main symptom in diverticulosis

A

Painless rectal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Test of choice to diagnose diverticulosis

A

Barium enema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Bilateral tender breast lumps that change in size with menstrual period, usually decreasing in tenderness and size after menses

A

Fibrocystic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is Leser-Trelat sign and what is it a sign of?

A

Numerous seborrheic keratosis (brown spots errwhere) and it is a sign of many different kinds of internal cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Treatment for Kawasaki’s disease

A

IVIG and ASA (yep, even in kids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

In severe diarrhea, what metabolic change are you likely to see

A

Hypovolemic hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What does Medicare part A cover

A

In-patient hospital care, skilled nursing, hospice care, and home health care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What does medicare part B cover

A

Out-patient care, physical therapy, occupational therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What does medicare part C cover

A

Medicare advantage plan, covers parts of A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What does medicare part D cover

A

Prescription drugs (D=drugs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Absence of what in paroxysmal nocturnal hemobloginuria

A

CD55 and 59

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Lactose negative, H2S positive organisms

A

Proteus and salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Lactose negative, H2S negative organism

A

Shigella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Hereditary fructose intolerance is due to a deficiency in what?

A

Aldolase B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is necessary for the diagnosis of pre-eclampsia

A

2 serial BP readings of >140/90 6 hours apart and proteinuria >300 mg/24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What do you do for the initial management of meniscal tears?

A

RICE and NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Tanner stage 1

A

Childhood; no sexual development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Tanner stage 2

A

Pubic hair appears (pubarche) and breast bud forms (thelarche)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Tanner stage 3

A

Pubic hair darkens and gets curly; penis size/length increases; breast enlargens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Tanner stage 4

A

Penis width increases, darker scrotal skin, development of glands; raised areolae (i.e. 2ndary mound develops)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Tanner V

A

Adult; areolae are no longer raised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Tumor marker associated with pancreatic cancer

A

CA19-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Sudden sexual dysfunction or fecal/urinary incontinence in someone with lower lumbar back pain raises suspicion of what?

A

Cauda equina syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the cause of cauda equina syndrome?

A

Massive posterior disc herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Is cauda equina syndrome a medical emergency?

A

Yes!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Identity disturbance, impulsivity and suicidal behavior are signs of what personality disturbance?

A

Borderline personality disorder (Cluster B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Attention seeking, inappropriate sexual conduct, and rapidly shifting emotions are a sign of what personality disorder

A

Histrionic (Cluster B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the treatment of choice for someone with severe symptomatic aortic stenosis

A

Valve replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Presentation of squamous cell bladder cancer

A

Painless gross hematuria, suprapubic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are some risk factors for squamous cell bladder cancer?

A

Smoking, shistosome infections, aniline dyes, petroleum byproducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

DOC for shistosomiasis

A

Praziquantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Key to diagnosing thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Unusually large monomers of vWF (due to lack of ADAMTS-13)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

If someone needs a shock, do you do CPR before or after?

A

After (if you have already confirmed that the rhythm is shockable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Tx for Guillain-Barre

A

Respiratory support, plasmaphoresis, IVIG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Will N. meningitidis ferment maltose?

A

Yes (gonorrhea is the one that doesn’t ferment maltose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Attachments of the ulnar collateral ligament

A

Inferior medial epicondyle to the medial coronoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Ulnar collateral ligament resists what type of stress?

A

Valgus (medial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Ways to measure cardiac output

A

CO=SVHR=(EDV-ESV)HR=MAP/TPR=O2 consumption/AV difference

118
Q

Peripheral edema, holosystolic murmur at left sternal border

A

Tricuspid valve regurgitation

119
Q

What do you treat a benzo OD with?

A

Flumazenil

120
Q

What do you treat an opioid OD with

A

Naloxone/naltrexone

121
Q

Electrolyte changes in renal failure

A

Hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, uremia

122
Q

What else is located at the same level as the 4th cervical vertebrae

A

The carotid bifurcation

123
Q

Sternal angle/angle of Luis is located at the same level as what mediastinal component

A

Carina (bifurcation of the trachea)

124
Q

Most common ECG abnormality in PE

A

Non-specific ST-segment and T-wave changes

125
Q

Diffuse ST-segment elevations describe what?

A

Pericarditis

126
Q

ASA poisoning causes what acid-base changes

A

Initial metabolic acidosis (via uncoupling of the ETC) which then progresses to a mixed metabolic acidosis/respiratory alkalosis due to excessive hyperventilation by the patient

127
Q

hCG can mimic what other hormones

A

TSH, FSH and LH

128
Q

Excessive hCG can cause what other unexpected problems

A

Hyperthyroid like symptoms (due to TSH mimicry) and gynecomastia (via LH mimicry)

129
Q

Hydrogen ion secretion in renal tubules is linked with what ion

A

Potassium (so if K+ increases, H+ increases and vice-versa)

130
Q

Metabolic changes caused by excessive aldosterone

A

Hypernatremia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis

131
Q

How does renal artery stenosis lead to metabolic alkalosis

A

Decreased perfusion>increased renin release>increased ATII>increased aldosterone>sodium retention, K+ and H+ secretion (remember, these two are coupled in the kidney)

132
Q

Rhabdomyolysis leads to what acid-base disturbance

A

Metabolic acidosis

133
Q

Complete absence of UDP-glucoronyltransferase

A

Crigler-Najar

134
Q

How do you treat Crigler-Najar

A

Plasmaphoresis and phototherapy

135
Q

Jaundice during stress

A

Gilbert syndrome

136
Q

Cause of Gilbert syndrome

A

Decreased amounts of UDP-glucoronysyltransferace

137
Q

How can you confirm diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome

A

Genetic testing

138
Q

Red-man syndrome is associated with what drug

A

Vancomycin

139
Q

What do you measure to ensure safe delivery vaginally of a child

A

Obstetric conjugate

140
Q

MI in leads V1-4 most likely caused by occlusion of what artery

A

LAD

141
Q

Developmental delay, gargoylism, airway obstruction, corneal clouding, hepatosplenomegaly

A

Hurler syndrome

142
Q

Hurler syndrome caused by what?

A

alpha-L-iduronidase deficiency

143
Q

What builds up in Hurler syndrome

A

Heparan sulfate, dermatan sulfate

144
Q

Will changes in respiratory rate change the rate of uptake in inhaled anaesthetics

A

Yes

145
Q

Most commonly affected nerve in pseudotumor cerebri and why

A

Abducens nerve because of it long intracranial course

146
Q

What foramen does the middle meningeal artery pass through?

A

Foramen spinosum

147
Q

Possible skin manifestation of primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

Pyoderma gangrenosum

148
Q

Will you seen anti-mitochondrial antibodies in primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

No, you will see them in primary BILIARY CIRRHOSIS

149
Q

What is defective in hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer

A

DNA mismatch repair

150
Q

Why shouldn’t you drink the juice while on treatment for giardia

A

Metronidazole causes a disulfiram-like reaction

151
Q

1st line treatment for acute sinusitis

A

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

152
Q

Describe granuloma annulare

A

Smooth, shiny dermal papules located in a circle or ring

153
Q

When might you see granuloma annulare

A

DM type 1, thyroid dx, lupus, other autoimmune dx

154
Q

Use and MOA for danazol

A

Often used to treat endometriosis and blocks the production of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary

155
Q

Inheritance of leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A

AR

156
Q

Describe condyloma acuminata

A

Pearly, fungating, cauliflower like verrucous papule lesions on the external vagina

157
Q

What causes condyloma acuminata

A

HPV 6 and 11

158
Q

Blood thing changes in warfarin OD

A

PT increase, PTT increase, normal bleeding time

159
Q

What is it called when a doctor overrides a patients autonomy if the patients decision is unreasonable or dangerous.

A

Paternalism

160
Q

Res ipsa loquitur

A

“The thing speaks for itself”, obvious negligence by the doctor like leaving a scalpel inside a patient during surgery

161
Q

Serum levels of what are increased in Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

Creatine phosphokinase

162
Q

Most common cause of pyelonephritis

A

E. coli

163
Q

If you have an older women with longstanding untreated hypothyroidism, what is she at risk for?

A

Myxedema coma

164
Q

S&S of myxedema coma

A

Depressed state of consciousness, profound hypothermia, and respiratory depression

165
Q

S&S of growth hormone deficiency

A

Decreased muscle mass, hypoglycemia, decreased gluconeogenesis

166
Q

Most common etiology of hyperthyroidism

A

Graves dx

167
Q

Lab values in primary hyperthyroidism

A

Decreased TSH, increased free and total T4, increased T3

168
Q

Drug used for gastroparesis

A

Metoclopramide

169
Q

Is there a painful thyroid gland in Graves dx?

A

No

170
Q

Major difference between case-control study and cohort study

A

Case-control is retrospective (in the past) and cohort is prospective (follow subjects into future)

171
Q

Delta-cells in the pancreas secrete what?

A

Somatostatin

172
Q

S&S of somatostatinoma

A

Diabetes mellitus(somatostatin inhibits insulin release), hypochlorhydia (decreased gastrin secretion), cholelithiasis (decreased CCK release), steatorrhea

173
Q

First line drug for DM II

A

Metformin

174
Q

Why is metformin first line for DM II

A

Does not cause hypoglycemia

175
Q

How do thyroid related proteins change during pregnancy

A

Thyroid binding globulin increases, total T4 increases, free T3 and T4 are normal and TSH is normal

176
Q

DM drugs that inhibit dipeptidyl peptidase 4 (DPP-4) from breaking down incretins

A

The -gliptin’s; Linagliptin, saxagliptin, sitagliptin

177
Q

How does insulin lower serum potassium

A

Drives K+ into cells by increasing the activity of Na/K ATPase

178
Q

What are most thyroid nodules?

A

Benign adenomas (NOT papillary adenomas)

179
Q

Mild diabetes, venous thrombosis, anemia, severe infections, NECROTIZING MIGRATORY ERYTHEMA

A

Glucagonoma

180
Q

What is the drug of choice for gestational diabetes

A

Insulin!

181
Q

What type of casts do you see in chronic renal failure

A

Waxy

182
Q

DOC for legionella

A

Levofloxacin

183
Q

Contralateral loss of pain and temp in the body, ipsilateral loss of pain and temp in the face, ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, hoarseness, dysphagia, decreased gag reflex, vertigo, nystagmus, diplopia, vertigo, ipsilateral ataxia

A

Lateral medullary or “Wallenburg” syndrome caused by an infarct of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

184
Q

Dementia like Alzheimer’s plus movement disorder like Parkinsons=…

A

Lewy Body dementia

185
Q

Specific finding for Lewy body dementia that you won’t see in Alzheimer’s or Parkinsons

A

Visual hallucinations

186
Q

Orientation of the superior facets in the thoracic spine

A

Backwards, upwards and lateral

187
Q

Orientation of the superior facets in the cervical spine

A

Backwards, upwards, and medial

188
Q

Orientation of the superior facets in the lumbar spine

A

Backwards and medial

189
Q

AEs of long-term heparin use

A

Alopecia and osteoporosis

190
Q

What is the best sample (besides culture) to diagnose Legionella

A

Urine sample (contains Legionella antigens)

191
Q

What will be increased in a patient population with increased prevalence of disease

A

Positive predictive value

192
Q

Does prevalence affect sensitivity or specificity?

A

No

193
Q

Mild-moderate conjugated hyperbilirubinemia that occurs after fasting states

A

Rotor’s syndrome

194
Q

Pt travels to Africa and develops eye pain, iriditis, anterior uveitis and eventually blindness

A

Onchocerca volvulus

195
Q

How is onchocerca volvulus transmitted?

A

Black fly

196
Q

Treatment for onchocerca volvulus

A

Ivermectin

197
Q

Trypanosome bruceii gambiense and rhodesiense cause what and are transmitted by what

A

African sleeping sickness and are transmitted by the tsetse fly

198
Q

Kala-azar (visceral leishmeniasis) symptoms and transmission (and where is it found)

A

Fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, transmitted by the sandfly, and is often found in India

199
Q

How do you treat visceral leishmaniasis

A

Sodium stibogluconate

200
Q

If you see an adenoma with a stalk in the GI tract, what is it’s histology

A

Tubular adenoma (villous adenomas do not have a stalk)

201
Q

What lab value changes will you see in a patient with carnitine palmitoyltransferase deficiency

A

Elevated creatine kinase and myoglobin (due to rhabdomyolysis)

202
Q

The only cells of the CNS derived from mesoderm

A

Microglia

203
Q

What might you find on auscultation if someone has an esophageal rupture

A

Crackles with each heart beat (pneumomediastinum, this is known as Hamman crunch)

204
Q

Explain the odds ratio again

A

Odds that the group with the disease was exposed to the risk factor compared to those without the disease (if you visualize the square you draw for these problems, you divide down the columns not across the rows (across rows if for relative risk factor)

205
Q

Antibody in scleroderma (NOT the CREST variant)

A

anti-topoisomerase

206
Q

What’s the difference between arthritis in Reiter’s syndrome (reactive arthritis) and septic arthritis

A

Septic arthritis typically only occurs in one joint, whereas reactive arthritis occurs in many joints

207
Q

Triad of Reiter’s syndrome (Reactive arthritis)

A

Conjunctivitis, urethritis, arthritis (Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree)

208
Q

What is primary prevention

A

Interventions that decrease disease in healthy people (vaccination, healthy lifestyle, antibiotic prophylaxis, aspirin)

209
Q

What is secondary prevention

A

Do not prevent diseases themselves, but allow for intervention when needed (eg. screening tests)

210
Q

Strong fibrous ligament that connects the apices of the spinous processes from C7 down to sacrum

A

Supraspinous ligament

211
Q

Anatomical barrier

A

Point to where a physician can move a patients joint

212
Q

Physiologic barrier

A

Point to where the PATIENT can actively move their own joint

213
Q

Classic presentation of intussusception

A

Colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, and passage of blood through the rectum (currant jelly stools)

214
Q

Laryngotracheobronchitis is also known as…

A

croup (barking seal cough)

215
Q

What causes croup

A

Parainfluenza virus

216
Q

AP neck x-ray may show what in croup?

A

Steeple sign from sublottic narrowing

217
Q

Hyperphagia, nonspecific hypothalamic dysfunction, hypogonadism in an infant

A

Prader-Willi syndrome

218
Q

Defect in Prader-Willi syndrome

A

Loss of gene on the paternal copy (imprinting) of chromosome 15

219
Q

If someone has a bleeding defect with elevated prothrombin time but normal PTT and bleeding time, what is the likely defect

A

Factor VII deficiency (external pathway)

220
Q

Skin infections located in skin folds (intertriginous areas)

A

Intertrigo caused by candida

221
Q

Explain how leuprolide can function as both an agonist and an antagonist of GnRH

A

It is a GnRH analog that if given in a pulsatile manner (like GnRH) it will cause the release of FSH/LH. If given continuously, leuprolide will decrease both of these

222
Q

What drug can you use to shrink fibroid tumors

A

Leuprolide

223
Q

Bloody diarrhea, liver abscess, RUQ pain, flask-shaped ulcer

A

Entamoeba histolytica

224
Q

Tx for entamoeba hisolytica

A

Metronidazole

225
Q

Tx for t. brucei gambiense/rhodosiense

A

Suramin for blood born disease, melarsoprol

226
Q

Maltese cross

A

Babesia microti

227
Q

S&S of babesiosis

A

Fever, hemolytic anemia

228
Q

Basesia is transmitted by

A

Ixodes tick

229
Q

Babesia often coinfects with what and why?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi because that are both transmitted by the same vector, the ixodes tick

230
Q

Tx for babesia

A

Atovaquone + azithromycin

231
Q

T. cruzi causes what?

A

Chaga’s disease

232
Q

What is T. cruzi transmitted by?

A

Reduviid (kissing bug)

233
Q

Tx for enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

A

Mebendazole

234
Q

Intestinal infection, vomiting, diarrhea, anemia, rhabditiform larvae in the stool

A

Strongyloides stercoralis

235
Q

Tx for strongyloides

A

Ivermectin or albendazole

236
Q

Skin, inflammation, ulceration with a worm in the skin

A

Dracunculus medinensis

237
Q

How do you treat dracunculus medinensis?

A

Slow extraction of worm

238
Q

Swelling in skin, worm in the conjunctiva

A

Loa loa

239
Q

How is Loa Loa transmitted

A

Deer fly, horse fly, mango fly

240
Q

Diethylcarbamazine can be used to treat what infections

A

Loa Loa and wucheria bancrofti

241
Q

Taenia solium is transmitted how

A

Ingestion of larvae in undercooked pork

242
Q

Tx for taenia solium

A

Praziquantel

243
Q

Cysts in liver that can lyse and cause anaphylaxis if antigens are released

A

Echinococcus granulosus

244
Q

Histology of echinococcus granulosus

A

“Egg-shell” calcifications

245
Q

This tapeworm causes B12 deficiency

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

246
Q

Tx for diphyllobothrium latum

A

Praziquantel

247
Q

This fluke can cause biliary tract inflammatin leading to pigmented gallstones

A

Clonorchis sinensis

248
Q

How do you get clonorchis sinensis?

A

Eating undercooked fish

249
Q

What cancer is clonorchis sinensis associated with?

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

250
Q

Disease caused by paragonimus westermani

A

Lung inflam w/ 2ndary bacterial infection and hemoptysis

251
Q

How do you get paragonimus westermani?

A

Eating undercooked crab meat

252
Q

Animal bite leading to osteomyelitis

A

Pasteurella multocida (not just cat bites!)

253
Q

Why do you give cilistatin with imipenem

A

To decrease the renal excretion rate of imipenem

254
Q

MOA of cilistatin

A

Dehydropeptidase 1 inhibitor

255
Q

DOC for lyme disease

A

Doxycycline

256
Q

DOC for lyme disease IN KIDS

A

amoxicillin (doxycycline isn’t used in kids due to risk of bone and teeth malformations

257
Q

Most common hepatitis virus associated with IV drug use

A

HCV (HBV can infect via this route too, but HCV is more common)

258
Q

Out of the enterically transmitted hepatitis viruses (A and E) which one is not typically found in the USA

A

HEV

259
Q

Serious sequelae of measles infection

A

subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

260
Q

CSF findings in Guillain-Barre caused by C. jejuni infection

A

Normal cell count with increased protein

261
Q

Most common presentation of 2ndary syphillis

A

Macular and papular rash on the palms and soles

262
Q

Should you expect Kaposi sarcoma if the patient doesn’t have a low CD4 count?

A

No way Jose!

263
Q

Hiker presents with fever for 3 days and a relapse for 2 days, then it occurs again

A

Colorado tick fever

264
Q

Colorado tick fever is caused by what virus?

A

A coltivirus from the reoviridae family (DS DNA virus)

265
Q

Colorado tick fever is transmitted by what vector

A

Dermacentor andersoni

266
Q

Ehrlichiosis infections target what type of cells

A

WBC

267
Q

Most common infection causing ehrlichiosis

A

Ehrlichiosis chafeensis (obligate intracellular gram negative bacteria from the rickettsia family)

268
Q

Ehrlichiosis chafeensis is transmitted by what vector

A

Ixodes tick

269
Q

Presentation of someone with ehrlichiosis

A

Fever, headaches, malaise, myalgias, rigors

270
Q

What should you do first in a bacterial endocarditis patient

A

Blood cultures so you know which organism to treat

271
Q

Can a patient refuse HIV testing, even if pregnant?

A

Yes

272
Q

High fever (>40) that breaks and the a rash appears on a patients trunk and spreads to the face and the extremities

A

Roseola

273
Q

What is roseola caused by?

A

HHV6 and 7

274
Q

Viral rash that worsens in the sun

A

Erythema infectiosum caused by parvovirus B19

275
Q

Rubella is aka

A

German measles

276
Q

Rubeola is aka

A

Actual measles

277
Q

Adenovirus structural characteristics

A

Double stranded, linear, non-enveloped DNA virus

278
Q

Classification of enterobius vermicularis

A

Nematodes and diecious (distinct male and female organisms)

279
Q

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopthy is caused by what virus

A

JK polyomavirus

280
Q

Is JK polyomavirus widespread in the US population?

A

Yes, it just doesn’t cause symptoms most of the times because it needs to host to be immunocompromised

281
Q

What is the study of choice to determine disease prevalence in a population

A

Cross-sectional study

282
Q

What type of birefringence will fluid aspiration of a joint show in gout?

A

Negative birefringence

283
Q

What are the chalky-white lesions often seen under the skin in gout?

A

Tophi (uric acid crystals under the skin that produce an inflammatory response)

284
Q

What is the initial drug of choice for ACUTE gout attacks, and why is it not colchicine?

A

Indomethacin. Colchicine is not used because of it’s GI AEs

285
Q

How do OCP decrease chances of being pregnant

A

Main MOA is by blocking the release of the ovum via suppression of gonadotropins during the time of the LH surge.

286
Q

Main difference between a manic and a hypomanic state

A

Hypomanic isn’t severe enough to affect the patients daily life.

287
Q

If a patient has strep throat and is allergic to penicillin, what is the 2nd line drug you use?

A

Macrolides (erythromycin and azithromycin)

288
Q

Most severe AE of macrolides

A

QT prolongation (especially azithromycin)

289
Q

Bone cancer associated with retinoblastoma

A

Osteosarcoma

290
Q

What lab test would allow you to visualize a chromosomal defect (eg in deletions like in Prader-Willi)

A

Flourescent in situ hybridization

291
Q

Why is a stool culture not useful when diagnosing C. dif infections

A

C. dif can be part of the normal flora

292
Q

What antibiotics are mostly associated with causing C. dif

A

Ampicillin and clindamycin

Things I suck at (BOARDS) (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions