Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OPM > OPM 700 > Flashcards

OPM 700 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. How will Sunrise FR achieve higher staffing levels for company operations? 700.01
A

a. Assuring adequate personnel are dispatched

b. Assembling engine, ladder, and rescue crews together to form working companies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. What is the minimum crew staffing for an engine? 700.01
A

a. 3 personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What is the minimum crew staffing for a ladder? 700.01
A

a. 2 personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. What is the minimum crew staffing for a rescue? 700.01
A

a. 2 personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What are 5 basic engine company responsibilities? 700.02
A

a. Fire ground operations
b. Medical rescue
c. Hazard abatement
d. Non-emergency incident abatement
e. Equipment and station maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Where can you find the methodology for specific tasks performed by engines? 700.02
A

a. Competency Based Driver Operator Performance Objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What size hose stream should be used on a Defensive Plan? 700.02
A

a. 2 ½” or larger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Responses of an ALS engine, for medical purposes, will be dictated by: 700.02
A

a. OPM 705.00 “Response Assignment Strategy”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Who initiates ALS treatment on an ALS call? 700.02
A

a. ALS Engine Paramedic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Who will advise Dispatch as for the need of transport? 700.02
A

a. ALS Engine Paramedic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. When an Engine request a transport unit, the Rescue will respond: 700.02
A

a. “Emergency” unless otherwise requested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Who is the first choice in shutting down a unit to assist in transportation? 700.02
A

a. EMS Captain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Does the loss of the jump seat firefighter mandate that an engine is out of service? 700.02
A

a. No, the engine will advise Dispatch of their reduced staffing and remain in service on a limited call basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Can the engine follow the rescue to the hospital? 700.02
A

a. Requires permission from the shift commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Failure to willingly obey a supervisor represents: 700.02
A

a. Insubordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. What are two specific tasks assigned to aerial companies? 700.03
A

a. Elevated fire streams

b. Laddering a building beyond ground ladders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. What are some primary aerial company responsibilities? 700.03
A

a. Victim rescue
b. Ventilation
c. Laddering
d. Forcible entry
e. Elevated water streams
f. Salvage and overhaul
g. Secondary means of egress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. What are some secondary functions of an aerial device? 700.03
A

a. Utility control
b. RIT
c. Engine company ops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Initial concerns on the fire ground for an aerial company pertain to: 700.03
A

a. Positioning to perform aerial functions

b. Staging out of vehicle travel lanes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. What are basic rescue company responsibilities? 700.04
A

a. BLS and ALS
b. Communicate with hospitals
c. Transportation to hospitals
d. Vehicle extrication
e. Fire ground operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Can a rescue unit establish command? 700.04
A

a. It is not recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Engine companies will deal primarily with what on a Hazmat call? 701.01
A

a. Scene safety and product identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. When an Engine is responding to a Hazmat call, they should check with dispatch for additional information, particularly: 701.01
A

a. Material involved
b. Size of leak/spill
c. Immediate life endangerment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. An engine should perform immediate rescue at a hazmat scene when the rescuers are: 701.01
A

a. Fully aware of risks
b. Full PPE and SCBA
c. Utilize minimum number of personnel
d. If hazard is unknown, wait for hazmat team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. What are different ways to identify a hazardous material? 701.01
A

a. Consult witnesses or facility personnel
b. DOT ERG
c. Type and size of container
d. Lettering or markings
e. Shipping papers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. What is used to report all hazardous materials incidents to dispatch? 701.01
A

a. Uniform Classification System for Categorizing Haz Mat Incidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. The clean up and recovery of a spill is the responsibility of who? 701.01
A

a. Property/vehicle owner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. To be an assigned a diver, one must have: 701.02
A

a. Public safety diver
b. Dive rescue 1
c. Assigned by the Fire Chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. How many members must be on duty for the dive team to be “in service” 701.02
A

a. At least 2

b. Preferably stationed with the apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. What is the recommended number of personnel to have on scene of a dive incident? 701.02
A

a. Minimum of 2 divers

b. Minimum of 2 support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. What is the appropriate documentation for a dive recovery? 701.02
A

a. Vehicle and owner information

b. For billing department for recovery fees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Rapid Entry Dive Gear shall be made up of? 701.02 Part 2
A

a. Dive Tank (Minimum 63cu ft)
b. Buoyance Compensator (BC) with built in weight and knife
c. Divator® MKII™ dive Mask 1st stage regulator
d. 2nd stage regulator
e. Dive Light
f. Throw Bag (3PFD, Dive Rope, Center Punch, Secondary Cutting Device)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Where should the rapid entry dive gear be placed? 701.02 Part 2
A

a. Suppression unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. When is it not on the suppression unit? 701.02 Part 2
A

a. When the diver is assigned the rescue unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Rapid Entry Dive Gear Equipment Readiness? 701.02 Part 2
A

a. 1. Dive Tank Pressure; (not less than 2800psi)
b. Buoyance Compensator (BC); should be adjusted for the individual diver size and weight added if necessary dive knife should be attached.
c. Divator® MKII™ dive mask; shall be checked for damage and functionality
d. 1st and 2nd stage regulators; shall be checked and operating properly
e. Dive Light; shall be checked and assured it is working properly
f. Throw Bag (3PFD, Dive Rope, Center Punch, Secondary Cutting Device)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Who is notified if a piece of equipment during checkout is found to be defective or damaged? 701.02 Part 2
A

a. Station Captain
b. Shift BC
c. Logistics Division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Who do you notify if you have medical contradictions on diving that day? 701.02 Part 2
A

a. Supervisor

b. Supervisor notifies the shift BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. What do all personnel need to be wearing at a dive incident? 701.02 Part 2
A

a. Personal Flotation Devices (PFD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. What can non dive members do at a dive call? 701.02 Part 2
A

a. Prepare the site for entry

b. Place a roof ladder into the water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Who has the final decision on diving or not? 701.02 Part 2
A

a. The diver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. On arrival of the dive rescue unit what personnel need to be ready to assist the rapid entry diver? 701.02 Part 2
A

a. 100 % dressed and prepared to enter the water Safety Diver
b. 90% percent Diver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. A USAR/DMAT activation means: 701.03
A

a. Formal request by FEMA to mobilize

b. Arrive at point of departure within 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. A USAR/DMAT alert means: 701.03
A

a. Formal notification by FEMA that an event has occurred and activation is pending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. Who has the sole discretion of joining the South Florida USAR task force? 701.03
A

a. Sponsoring Jurisdiction, which is City of Miami FD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. What types of incidents are involved in Technical Rescue? 701.04
A

a. Confined Space
b. Trench Rescue
c. Structural Collapse
d. Rope Rescue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. What are the Engine and Rescue limited to at a Technical Rescue scene? 701.04
A

a. Recognition and support roles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. How many phases are there in Rope Rescue Incidents? 701.04
A

a. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. What is phase 1 in rope rescue incidents? 701.04
A

a. Scene Preparation and Reconnaissance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. What is phase 2 in rope rescue incidents? 701.04
A

a. Pre-rescue Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. What is phase 3 in rope rescue incidents? 701.04
A

a. Rescue Operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. What is phase 4 in rope rescue incidents? 701.04
A

a. Safety Considerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. What is phase 5 in rope rescue incidents? 701.04
A

a. Termination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. The recon team should have medical equipment to begin: 701.04
A

a. First aid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. What information will be helpful in determining the need for additional resources? 701.04
A

a. Number of victims
b. Location and condition of victims
c. Angle of terrain
d. Distance to victims
e. Estimated time of evacuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. Rescue operations should be conducted from ___ risk to ___ risk. 701.04
A

a. Low to high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. What are excavations greater than 60 degrees considered? 701.04
A

a. High angle operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. What is the safety factor when dealing with ropes? 701.04
A

a. 15:1 and a double rope technique shall be used when possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. Prior to using a helicopter for rope rescue, what should be considered? 701.04
A

a. Time of day
b. Conditions of victims
c. Difficult access to victims
d. Qualification of pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. When is CISM considered when dealing with rope rescue? 701.04
A

a. Phase 4 (Safety Considerations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. How many phases are there for Structural Collapse incidents? 701.04
A

a. 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. What is phase 1 of structural collapse? 701.04
A

a. Scene Preparation and Reconnaissance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. What is phase 2 of structural collapse? 701.04
A

a. Exploration and search

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. What is phase 3 of structural collapse? 701.04
A

a. Patient Removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. What is phase 4 of structural collapse? 701.04
A

a. General Debris removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. What is phase 5 of structural collapse? 701.04
A

a. Safety Considerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
  1. What is phase 6 of structural collapse? 701.04
A

a. Termination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
  1. How big is the safety zone at a structural collapse? 701.04
A

a. Two times the height of the building

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  1. If unable to obtain blueprints, what is appropriate? 701.04
A

a. Have on-site personnel draw a sketch of the site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  1. Are hose lines stretched at a collapse? 701.04
A

a. Yes, protect in case of fire or explosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  1. Who is task force 1? 701.04
A

a. Metro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  1. Who is task force 2? 701.04
A

a. Miami

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
  1. What type of ventilation is provided at a structural collapse? 701.04
A

a. Positive pressure

b. May be times when PPV will not work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  1. How do you assess the effectiveness of proper ventilation? 701.04
A

a. Atmospheric monitor

b. Assessment of type of space, void, and crevices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  1. How big is the square box when performing a search of a collapsed building? 701.04
A

a. 2’x2’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  1. What are the markings called in the structural collapse? 701.04
A

a. Structural/hazard evaluation marking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  1. What color spray paint is used for the marking system? 701.04
A

a. Orange only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  1. What does a blank box indicate? 701.04
A

a. Structure is accessible and safe for search

b. Damage is minor or completely pancaked with little danger of further collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  1. What does a box with a single slash indicate? 701.04
A

a. Significantly damaged

b. Areas are relatively safe but others need shoring or bracing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
  1. What does a box with crossing slash indicate? 701.04
A

a. Not safe for search and rescue operation

b. Search may proceed with significant risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  1. What does an arrow located next to a marking box indicate? 701.04
A

a. The safe entrance if the marking is away from the entrance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
  1. What is the size of the X that is drawn for a search? 701.04
A

a. 2’x2’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
  1. The X is constructed in two operations: 701.04
A

a. Single slash upon entry into structure, indicates search is underway
b. Crossing slash upon exit of structure, indicates search is complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q
  1. Inside the X, what is written in the left quadrant: 701.04
A

a. Team completing search

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q
  1. Inside the X, what is written in the top quadrant: 701.04
A

a. Time and date team left the structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q
  1. Inside the X, what is written in the right quadrant: 701.04
A

a. Personnel hazards (rats, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q
  1. Inside the X, what is written in the bottom quadrant: 701.04
A

a. Number of live and dead victims removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q
  1. What is done when a buried victim is found alive in a collapse after hours of work? 701.04
A

a. Do not remove unless secondary collapse, fire, electrocution, or drowning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q
  1. What percentage of people are found on top of debris or lightly buried? 701.04
A

a. 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q
  1. Air horn signal for All Quiet: 701.04
A

a. 1 long blast (3 sec)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q
  1. Air horn signal for evacuate: 701.04
A

a. 3 short blasts (1 sec each)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q
  1. Air horn signal for resume operations: 701.04
A

a. 1 long and 1 short

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q
  1. What is the weight of Concrete/masonry? 701.04
A

a. 125-150 lbs per cubic ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q
  1. What is the weight of normal concrete floor? 701.04
A

a. 100-150 lbs square ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q
  1. What should shoring systems act like? 701.04
A

a. Double funnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q
  1. What is the maximum length of a shore? 701.04
A

a. 50 times its width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q
  1. You can build your crib box ___times as high as the box is wide. 701.04
A

a. 3 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q
  1. 4x4 crib capacity (2 layer): 701.04
A

a. 24,000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q
  1. 4x4 crib capacity (3 layer): 701.04
A

a. 48,000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q
  1. 6x6 crib capacity (2 layer): 701.04
A

a. 60,000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q
  1. 6x6 crib capacity (3 layer): 701.04
A

a. 135,000lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q
  1. What is the safety factor for cribbing? 701.04
A

a. 2 to 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q
  1. What are the two types of wood used for cribbing? 701.04
A

a. Douglas fur and southern pine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q
  1. When is a CISM performed during a structural collapse? 701.04
A

a. Phase 5 ( Safety Considerations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q
  1. To become a team member of the specialty team, all personnel must: 701.04
A

a. Complete a recognized course
b. Request in writing admittance to team
c. Appointment by Chief
d. Remain in good standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q
  1. Define High rise: 701.05
A

a. Attack lines cannot reach the fire via normal pre-connected lines or hoisting
b. Where standpipes are used
c. All building with internal hallways over two stories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q
  1. What is secondary in urgency when dealing with high rise fires? 701.05
A

a. Establishing command outside the structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q
  1. What might be the most prudent command option when dealing with a high rise fire? 701.05
A

a. Passing of command by first arriving officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q
  1. How big is the hazard zone on a high rise fire? 701.05
A

a. 200 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q
  1. How many feet should personnel stay away from hose lines supplying the Siamese? 701.05
A

a. 50 feet

110
Q
  1. Who establishes lobby control? 701.05
A

a. Driver of first arriving engine

111
Q
  1. What does the lobby control bring with him? 701.05
A

a. Full PPE with SCBA
b. Portable radio
c. Knox Box key

112
Q
  1. Who do personnel check in with prior to reporting to any other division or group on a high rise fire? 701.05
A

a. Lobby control

113
Q
  1. The national elevator code calls for elevators to: 701.05
A

a. Automatically return to the building lobby

114
Q
  1. What floor should the elevator be stopped when using an elevator to access the upper floors of a high rise fire? 701.05
A

a. 2 floors below

115
Q
  1. Who performs the initial fire attack at a high rise fire? 701.05
A

a. At least two companies (engine and rescue)

116
Q
  1. Where do the initial companies set up for operations on a high rise fire? 701.05
A

a. Floor below the incident

117
Q
  1. Where are hose lines connected to standpipes when operating at a high rise? 701.05
A

a. Not on the same floor or above

b. Exception: where a true smoke tower, can connect on same floor

118
Q
  1. How many GPM should pump operators deliver to the attack line at a high rise? 701.05
A

a. 150 gpm

119
Q
  1. When fighting fire in a high rise, if the fire has already extended into the hallway: 701.05
A

a. The officer should seriously consider deploying a backup line

120
Q
  1. In a high rise, fire attack must wait for a verification that: 701.05
A

a. A sustained water supply is available

121
Q
  1. How many GPM is delivered to all 1 ¾” fog nozzles? 701.05
A

a. 150 gpm

122
Q
  1. D/O conducting pumping operations within ___ ft of a building must wear ______ at all times. 701.05
A

a. 100 ft

b. Bunker coat and helmet

123
Q
  1. What should the ladder company do at a high rise fire? 701.05
A

a. Ascend to the top of the stairwell looking for and opening roof hatches

124
Q
  1. What is the spacing of the stairwell support group? 701.05
A

a. Every other floor

125
Q
  1. A Base Staging area may be required on operations: 701.05
A

a. Above a third floor

126
Q
  1. Where is base staging established? 701.05
A

a. Two floors below fire

127
Q
  1. Where is the RIT staging at? 701.05
A

a. The stairwell of the floor immediately below the fire

128
Q
  1. Who normally assumes the role of RIT on a high rise fire? 701.05
A

a. Third arriving engine

129
Q
  1. If having difficulties inside a structure transmitting with the radio and command outside the structure what might occur? 701.05
A

a. A lobby command might be established to operate on a different channel assigned by the incident commander

130
Q
  1. What is the mission of the first arriving engine and rescue? 701.05
A

a. Assess conditions on fire floor and prepare for attack

131
Q
  1. Equipment for high rise fires, first arriving engine and rescue: 701.05
A

a. Off: hand light, elevator keys, utility line
b. D/O: lobby control
c. FF: High Rise Kit
d. FF(res): extend-a-bag, hand light
e. FF(res): rabbit tool and Irons

132
Q
  1. Equipment for high rise fires, first arriving ladder: 701.05
A

a. Off: hand light, elevator keys, irons
b. D/O: pike pole, utility line
c. FF: rabbit tool, 2 spare scba bottles

133
Q
  1. What is the mission of the second arriving engine and rescue? 701.05
A

a. Report to floor below fire and prepare to support attack crew

134
Q
  1. Equipment for high rise fires, second arriving engine and rescue: 701.05
A

a. Off: hand light, elevator keys, spare scba bottle
b. D/O: support standpipe
c. FF(eng): high rise kit
d. FF(res): extend-a-bag, hand light
e. FF(res): 2 spare scba bottles

135
Q
  1. What is the mission of the third arriving engine? 701.05
A

a. Report to command, obtain the thermal imager, prepare to serve as RIT, floor below fire

136
Q
  1. Equipment for high rise fires, third arriving engine: 701.05
A

a. Off: thermal imager, search rope, hand light, elevator keys
b. D/O: spare scba pack, spare scba bottle
c. FF: Irons and spare scba bottle

137
Q
  1. What size hose and length is our high rise kit? 701.05
A

a. 100ft of 1 ¾” with gated wye attached

b. 1 TFT breakaway nozzle

138
Q
  1. What size hose and length is our extend-a-bag? 701.05
A

a. 50ft of 2 ½”

139
Q
  1. On a heightened state of alert, what is done with doors and trucks? 701.06
A

a. Trucks not to be left outside
b. Doors to be closed at all times unless actively operating in bay
c. Perimeter doors shall be regularly checked

140
Q
  1. Rescue has ___ WMD kits, Engine has ___ WMD kits. 701.06
A

a. Rescue 2, Engine 3

141
Q
  1. Each WMD kit contains the following: 701.06
A

a. 1 Scott cartridge adapter
b. 1 NBC air purifying cartridge
c. 1 pair of silvershield gloves
d. 1 hooded Saranex splash coverall

142
Q
  1. What level of protection does the WMD suit provide? 701.06
A

a. Level C

143
Q
  1. What level of protection does the WMD suit and SCBA provide? 701.06
A

a. Level B

144
Q
  1. The WMD kits are designed to protect workers who operate in: 701.06
A

a. The Warm Zone

145
Q
  1. The WMD kits are designed to protect the rescuer against: 701.06
A

a. Residual contamination from decon, triage, or treating

146
Q
  1. The NBC cartridge has a particulate matter efficiency of: 701.06
A

a. 99.997%

147
Q
  1. The NBC cartridge can filter out particles greater than: 701.06
A

a. 0.3 microns

148
Q
  1. What is the micron range for Anthrax? 701.06
A

a. 3 to 10 microns

149
Q
  1. What is the duration of effectiveness for the NBC cartridge? 701.06
A

a. Several days

b. Expect a minimum of 6-8 hours

150
Q
  1. What type of gloves are used during decon? 701.06
A

a. Butyl

151
Q
  1. What bleach solution is used on skin? 701.06
A

a. 1 part bleach to 9 part water = 0.5%

152
Q
  1. What bleach solution is used for cloths and equipment? 701.06
A

a. Full strength household bleach

153
Q
  1. What is the “dry chlorine” granule mixtures: 701.06
A

a. 1 ounce of chlorine granules to 1 gallon of water = 0.5%

b. 10 ounce of chlorine granules to 1 gallon of water = 5%

154
Q
  1. What is the chemical name for “dry chlorine”? 701.06
A

a. Calcium hypochlorite

155
Q
  1. What is the water temperature for decon? 701.06
A

a. 60 – 70 F

156
Q
  1. What are the 5 types of decon? 701.06
A

a. Passive (remove cloths)
b. Dry
c. Wet
d. Cross Ventilation (fans)
e. Combination of the above

157
Q
  1. What is the rotation intervals for decon crews? 701.06
A

a. No more than 1 hour

158
Q
  1. During a heightened state of alert, all units will have which book on board? 701.06
A

a. Jane’s Bio/Chem Handbook

159
Q
  1. What is the aerial platform known as? 701.07
A

a. “platform”

b. Unit 387

160
Q
  1. Who is allowed to operate the platform? 701.07
A

a. Only those who have been trained in “advanced platform operations”

161
Q
  1. When are firefighters allowed to operate the bucket? 701.07
A

a. When supervised by trained operator at the pedestal

162
Q
  1. Who is allowed to operate the turntable controls? 701.07
A

a. Only trained driver’s and officers

163
Q
  1. Who is allowed to operate the basket controls? 701.07
A

a. Firefighters under the supervision of a trained driver/officer

164
Q
  1. When operating or climbing the aerial, what must be worn? 701.07
A

a. Minimum helmet and gloves

165
Q
  1. Anyone climbing or operating the bucket must wear? 701.07
A

a. Safety belt

166
Q
  1. Under normal conditions, how close can the aerial be operated to power lines? 701.07
A

a. No closer than 25 feet

167
Q
  1. In exigent circumstances, the aerial may operate within ___ feet but no closer than ___ feet to power lines. 701.07
A

a. 25 but no closer than 10

168
Q
  1. Whenever an aerial is operated within 25 feet of power lines: 701.07
A

a. A safety officer shall be near the apparatus

169
Q
  1. Where are the wheels chocked when the aerial is in-service? 701.07
A

a. Front wheels (front and back of wheel)

170
Q
  1. When is the “50 hour inspection” done? 701.07
A

a. First Sunday of each month

171
Q
  1. The basket may not be operated within ___ feet of a structure without an operator/spotter in the basket. 701.07
A

a. 4 feet

172
Q
  1. The ladder can extend, rotate, and elevate. How many of those functions can be performed at the same time? 701.07
A

a. Only one function should be performed at a time, except in emergency situations

173
Q
  1. When is the platform intercom system checked? 701.07
A

a. During daily checkout

174
Q
  1. If the intercom system fails: 701.07
A

a. The use of portable radios is acceptable

175
Q
  1. Why is forcible entry necessary? 701.08
A

a. Necessary to gain entry into a locked, blocked or otherwise non accessible location

176
Q
  1. What safety concerns should considered before entering a structure where forcible entry will be performed? 701.08
A

a. Crew should announce themselves at fire department

b. Knock on all windows and doors loudly before entering

177
Q
  1. For situations where the patient can’t be seen, reasonable suspicion doesn’t exist and neighbors aren’t available who makes the decision to force entry? 701.08
A

a. Company Officer

178
Q
  1. If forcible entry occurs during a medical alarm or emergency and no patient or dangerous situation is found who should be notified? 701.08
A

a. The police department for a assessment and report

179
Q
  1. If forcible entry occurs during a fire alarm or smoke alarm and no hazard presents itself who should be notified? 701.08
A

a. Dispatch center

180
Q
  1. Who responds to a confirmed false alarm? 702.01
A

a. The responding engine or ladder may be canceled should dispatch receive confirmation that the alarm is false and no assistance is needed

181
Q
  1. Who has the responsibility of maintenance for fire alarm/suppression systems? 702.01
A

a. The owner

182
Q
  1. Who has the responsibility of resetting the fire alarm/suppression systems? 702.01
A

a. The owner

183
Q
  1. Who is responsible for the proper function of the alarm/suppression system? 702.01
A

a. Building management

184
Q
  1. Who is permitted to make repairs to a fire alarm system? 702.01
A

a. Specialty electrical contractor
b. Electrical contractor
c. Fire sprinkler contractor
d. Individual properly certified

185
Q
  1. Failure to achieve a reset of a trouble mode: 702.01
A

a. Does not require immediate repair

b. Unless in a multi-family dwelling, then a fire watch is needed

186
Q
  1. Who has the responsibility to supplement the standpipe/sprinklers? 702.02
A

a. Second-arriving engine

187
Q
  1. Hydrant to engine connections should be made with what size hose? 702.02
A

a. Large diameter hose

188
Q
  1. Connections to the FDC should be made with what size hose? 702.02
A

a. Dual 2 ½”

189
Q
  1. Who assigns pre-fire plans? 702.03
A

a. The Fire Marshal’s Officer

190
Q
  1. What is consistent with almost every fire? 702.04
A

a. Benchmarks and tasks

191
Q
  1. All functions of basic fire attack are directed toward: 702.04
A

a. Saving lives and property conservation

192
Q
  1. If the initial arriving unit has determined that all occupants have safely exited the structure, the second arriving unit (eng, lad, or res) will: 702.04
A

a. Assume RIT

193
Q
  1. When is a secondary means of egress required? 702.04
A

a. Fires involving multi-story structures

194
Q
  1. What are considered secondary actions opposed to basic fire attack? 702.04195.
A

a. Utilities
b. Water supply
c. Ventilation
d. Secondary search
e. Salvage/overhaul

195
Q
  1. The framework for the controlled substance policy was developed by: 702.05
A

a. Ft. Lauderdale FR

196
Q
  1. Who maintains accurate records of controlled substances? 702.05
A

a. Administrative Deputy Chief

197
Q
  1. What are the controlled substances carried in SFRD? 702.05198.
A

a. Morphine Sulfate (MS)
b. Diazepam (Valium)
c. Midazolam (Versed)
d. Nitrous Oxide 50% (Nitronox)

198
Q
  1. What is a vial? 702.05
A

a. Glass bottle

199
Q
  1. What is a pre-filled syringe? 702.05
A

a. Glass/plastic container

200
Q
  1. What is a container? 702.05
A

a. Hard plastic tube with a plug cap

201
Q
  1. What is a seal? 702.05
A

a. Numbered plastic fastener

202
Q
  1. What is a controlled substance log? 702.05
A

a. Triplicate form

203
Q
  1. Who does the department obtain controlled substances through? 702.05
A

a. Medical Director

204
Q
  1. Controlled Substance records shall be maintained for: 702.05
A

a. At least 2 years

205
Q
  1. What are considered Schedule II? 702.05
A

a. Morphine

206
Q
  1. What are considered Schedule III and IV? 702.05
A

a. Valium, Versed, Nitrous

207
Q
  1. Which controlled substance records must be kept separate from the others? 702.05
A

a. Schedule II must be kept separate from Schedule III and IV

208
Q
  1. Where are controlled substances stored? 702.05
A

a. PSC
b. ALS Units
c. Medical supply kits

209
Q
  1. Controlled substances are stored with the appropriate: 702.05
A

a. Sanitation, temperature, and ventilation

210
Q
  1. In the event a controlled substance is administered to a patient or has expired, what is the procedure? 702.05
A

a. Administration log completed
b. Log, vial, seal, and container placed in a clear bio-hazard bag
c. Returned to EMS Shift Supervisor for replacement

211
Q
  1. If any confirmed problems are found with the controlled substance log, what is the procedure? 702.05
A

a. Immediately notify Battalion Chief via chain of command

b. BC notifies Administrative Deputy Chief

212
Q
  1. When is controlled substance inventory done each day? 702.05
A

a. At shift change
b. No later than 0805
c. Done face to face

213
Q
  1. The controlled substance logs shall be reviewed for: 702.05
A

a. Accuracy
b. Completion
c. Legibility

214
Q
  1. When is the month controlled substance log review? 702.05
A

a. Last day of each month

215
Q
  1. Who reviews the log during the monthly controlled substance log review? 702.05
A

a. Rescue Lieutenant then,
b. Station Captain, then
c. EMS Shift Supervisor

216
Q
  1. Who authorizes the changes in amounts of controlled substances? 702.05
A

a. EMS Medical Director

b. Fire Chief or his/her designee

217
Q
  1. Whenever a missing or tampered controlled substance is found, what is the procedure? 702.05
A

a. Station Captain or Rescue Lieutenant shall:
i. Do not touch anything in vehicle
ii. Notify BC and EMS Shift Supervisor
iii. Notify Dispatch the unit is Out of Service
iv. If tampering is suspected a Chief Officer will be notified and contact PD

218
Q
  1. A copy of the Investigation Chief Officer’s or EMS Shift Supervisors report shall be forwarded to : 702.05
A

a. Support Service Division Chief

b. Fire Chief

219
Q
  1. How much morphine and dose is carried on Rescues? 702.05
A

a. 2 prefilled, 10 mg

220
Q
  1. How much Valium and dose is carried on Rescues? 702.05
A

a. 2 prefilled, 10 mg

221
Q
  1. How much Versed and dose is carried on Rescues? 702.05
A

a. 1 vial, 10mg

222
Q
  1. How much morphine and dose is carried on Engines? 702.05
A

a. 0

223
Q
  1. How much valium and dose is carried on Engines? 702.05
A

a. 1 prefilled, 10 mg

224
Q
  1. How much versed and does is carried on Engines? 702.05
A

a. 1 vial, 10 mg

225
Q
  1. Any medication not administrated to the patient will?
A

a. Be disposed of in the presence of at least two personnel

b. One person must be the officer of the rescue

226
Q
  1. All vehicles will remain secured when? 702.05
A

a. Unattended

227
Q
  1. Who is Sunrise Fire Rescue personnel to make all attempts to release the patient’s personal belongings to? 702.07
A

a. Patient
b. Patient’s family
c. Patient’s designee

228
Q
  1. When can a Sunrise Fire Rescue member accept custody of personal property? 702.07
A

a. Acceptance of these items or medications is in the patient’s best interest.
b. Acceptance is not likely to disrupt/compromise normal operations concerning the patient or employee safety.
c. All reasonable efforts to secure the items were made
d. The patient is not capable of being responsible for the belongings and no family members or patient designees are available to take custody of the belongings.

229
Q
  1. All items should be inventoried and listed on the patient care report and should clearly state? 702.07
A

a. All property has been transferred to xxx (where xxx represents the hospitals name) and handed to zzz (where zzz represents the name of the person) at that facility” at the conclusion of the call. Careful attention should be placed on generic naming of these items such as “a gold in color bracelet” or “a silver in color watch”

230
Q
  1. What is the response to the mall for a Confirmed false alarm? 703.01
A

a. 1E – Single Engine Response

231
Q
  1. What is the response to the mall for a Fire alarm? 703.01
A

a. 1A – First alarm assignment

232
Q
  1. What is the response to the mall for a smell of smoke? 703.01
A

a. 1A – First alarm assignment

233
Q
  1. What is the response to the mall for smoke or fire showing? 703.01
A

a. 1A – First alarm assignment, plus notification of Duty Chief

234
Q
  1. What is the response to the mall for working fire? 703.01
A

a. 1A – First alarm assignment, plus 2A- Two alarm fire

235
Q
  1. What is the mission of the first arriving engine to the mall? 703.01
A

a. Determine the extent of emergency and initiate actions

b. Rescue joins first arriving engine

236
Q
  1. What is the function of the second arriving engine crew at the mall? 703.01
A

a. RIT

237
Q
  1. All tactics at the mall are based on: 703.01
A

a. Preventing loss of life

238
Q
  1. What radio channel may be needed when operating in the mall? 703.01
A

a. Non-repeated radio channel 4 which is not monitored by dispatch

239
Q
  1. What is the temperature that medications and IV solutions need to be stored at? 704.02
A

a. Between 55 and 85 degrees Fahrenheit

240
Q
  1. At what times will all crews check the temperature of the medications? 704.02
A

a. 0800

b. 1600

241
Q
  1. What occurs when any medication has been exposed to extreme temperatures or shows signs of contamination? 704.02
A

a. It should be removed from service and forwarded to the EMS division for disposal and replacement

242
Q
  1. What is 1E? 705.00
A

a. Single engine response

243
Q
  1. What is 1R? 705.00
A

a. Single Rescue Response

244
Q
  1. If the initial responding suppression unit is BLS, a rescue unit shall automatically be dispatched and respond: 705.00
A

a. Code 1

245
Q
  1. What is 1S? 705.00
A

a. Single Station Response

i. one engine and one rescue

246
Q
  1. What is 2S? 705.00
A

a. Two Station Response

i. Two engines and one rescue

247
Q
  1. What units are dispatched for a first alarm assignment? 705.00
A

a. 3 engines
b. 2 rescues
c. 1 ladder
d. 1 battalion
e. 1 ems capt

248
Q
  1. What units are dispatched for a second alarm assignment? 705.00
A

a. 3 engines
b. 1 ladder
c. 1 rescue

249
Q
  1. If confirmed working fire what will occur? 705.00
A

a. Addition engine will respond

250
Q
  1. A fire alarm at a health care facility will have the same response as a? 705.00
A

a. Commercial structure fire

251
Q
  1. GPSN1 is? 705.00
A

a. Global Page for Sunrise Fire Rescue Staff Members such as a Duty Chief

252
Q
  1. Who can request a GPSN1 at an incident? 705.00
A

a. Incident commander

253
Q
  1. The Battalion Chief will consider a response for incidents involving: 705.00
A

a. Multiple units

b. Implementation of a comprehensive command

254
Q
  1. The EMS Captain will consider a response for incidents involving: 705.00
A

a. Multiple units
b. Implementation of a comprehensive command
c. Medical supervision is needed
d. To expedite pre-hospital care

255
Q
  1. What emergency events require staff support? 705.00
A

a. Implementation of safety officer
b. Implementation of accountability officer
c. Other similar support roles

256
Q
  1. When is the Fire Chief notified of an incident? 705.00
A

a. Injury or death of a firefighter
b. Fatality due to emergency
c. Loss of life or property
d. Serious accident involving department equipment or vehicles
e. Incidents of elevated profile

257
Q
  1. What personnel are eligible for Special Details? 706.00
A

a. All personnel except
i. Exempt staff
ii. Probationary employees
iii. Restricted by Fire Chief
iv. On medical leave
v. Light duty
vi. On administrative suspension

258
Q
  1. What time does detail sign up start and end? 706.00
A

a. 0930 – 1130 at PSC

259
Q
  1. Details that occur after detail sign up will be filled through: 706.00
A

a. Station call

b. If greater than 72 hours, calls will be made station by station

260
Q
  1. If an employee signed up for a detail and now is sick, what is the procedure? 706.00
A

a. Notify Detail Officer, R/Lt, or BC

b. Via direct person to person a minimum of 4 hours prior to start time

261
Q
  1. What is the first offense for missing a detail? 706.00
A

a. 6 month

262
Q
  1. What is the second offense for missing a detail? 706.00
A

a. 1 year

263
Q
  1. Who is responsible for insuring that all personnel arrive on time to details? 706.00
A

a. Rescue Lieutenant or BC if R/Lt is unavailable

264
Q
  1. What is the staffing for an EMS standby? 706.01
A

a. Minimum of two personnel, discretion of the Fire Chief

265
Q
  1. If the shift commander believes the appropriate party will not resolve the violation or cause compliance to remain in effect: 706.02
A

a. The on-call inspector will be requested to respond.

266
Q
  1. Can the procedures for the occupancy in question be handwritten during a fire watch? 706.02
A

a. Yes and should be individualized

267
Q
  1. Should an incident occur during a fire watch, what is the procedure? 706.02
A

a. Activate building alarm
b. Simultaneously notify dispatch with a brief description
c. Offensive fire attack to aid occupants if necessary

268
Q
  1. How many fire inspectors are assigned to a fire watch? 706.02
A

a. Not more than one unless unusual circumstances

269
Q
  1. When will a supervisor be assigned to a fire watch? 706.02
A

a. Fire watch details requiring more than three personnel

270
Q
  1. What is the MERC? 706.03
A

a. Mobile Emergency Response Cart
b. Staffed with minimum of 2 personnel
c. Gator/EMS cart

271
Q
  1. What is the BERT? 706.04
A

a. Bicycle Emergency Response Team
b. Staffed with minimum of 2 personnel
c. Trained through the training division

OPM (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions