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OPM > OPM 400 > Flashcards

OPM 400 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Biohazard waste is disposed at the station for the following reasons
A

a. ALS engine calls
b. Non transport calls
c. Incidents occurring at the Station

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2
Q
  1. Where is infectious waste disposed of after calls
A

a. The receiving emergency department

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3
Q
  1. What should you do if the receiving hospital refuses to allow the disposal of the bio hazardous waste
A

a. The contaminated items will be secured in a red bio hazardous marked bag
b. The bags must be thrown away into properly designated bio waste containers

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4
Q
  1. Who schedules the collection of biohazard waste
A

a. EMS Division

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5
Q
  1. Biohazard waste fines can be as high as
A

a. $10,000.00 per violation

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6
Q
  1. Biohazard “sharp” containers must be designed to be
A

a. Closable
b. Puncture resistant
c. Leak proof on sides and bottom
d. Labeled or color-coded container for this purpose

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7
Q
  1. When will firefighters wearing SCBA conduct a seal check
A

a. Prior to each use

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8
Q
  1. When will firefighters wear and use SCBA
A

a. During all phases of firefighting activities
b. During emergency situations that may have toxic or oxygen deficient atmospheres
c. Working in atmospheres where hazards might be present

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9
Q
  1. The airline located on HazMat 92, TRT 92, or aerial apparatus shall only be used for
A

a. Exterior firefighting operations
b. Confined space rescue
c. Trench rescue
d. Certain hazmat incidents

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10
Q
  1. What will be worn when using an airline respirator
A

a. Escape type SCBA

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11
Q
  1. Structural firefighting clothing meets what NFPA
A

a. 1971

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12
Q
  1. What additional role can one of the RIT members perform
A

a. Incident commander
b. Safety Officer
c. Operator of fire apparatus

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13
Q
  1. Firefighters entering an IDLH to perform interior firefighting must remain in what type of communication at all times?
A

a. Visual or voice

b. The use of radios shall not be substituted for direct visual/voice contact

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14
Q
  1. New Recruit SCBA training NFPA
A

a. NFPA 1404

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15
Q
  1. When is SCBA training performed
A

a. Initial and annual basis

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16
Q
  1. When will firefighters need to pass a face piece fit test
A

a. Initial and annual training
b. Significant weight gain
c. Facial trauma
d. Reconstructive surgery
e. Major dental work

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17
Q
  1. Where does fill station training take place
A

a. Station 59 and TRT 92

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18
Q
  1. SCBA and spare cylinders should be inspected
A

a. After each use and during the daily checkout

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19
Q
  1. SCBA units determined to be unfit for use shall be tagged and forwarded to
A

a. Station 59

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20
Q
  1. When are SCBAs cleaned
A

a. After each use

b. Only use cleaning/sanitizing solutions

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21
Q
  1. Scott Carbon Fiber Cylinders must be hydrostatically tested every ____ years
A

a. 5 years

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22
Q
  1. Fiberglass Escape cylinders are hydrostatically tested every ____ years
A

3 years

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23
Q
  1. What is the maximum life for both types of SCBA cylinders
A

15 years

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24
Q
  1. The minimum air quality should be that of
A

Grade D

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25
Q
  1. The purity of the air compressors shall be checked by ____ at least _____.
A

a. A competent laboratory

b. Annually

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26
Q
  1. Can compressed oxygen be used in open-circuit SCBA
A

No

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27
Q
  1. A medical evaluation to determine the firefighter’s ability to wear an SCBA will be provided
A

a. At the time of initial hiring

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28
Q
  1. When is the fit test evaluation done
A

Annually

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29
Q
  1. How long is the mask worn prior to the start of the fit test
A

At least 5 min

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30
Q
  1. Members are required to exit the IDLH prior to the activation of
A

a. The low air alarm

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31
Q
  1. What is an indicator that the individual is using reserve air supply
A

a. The low air alarm

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32
Q
  1. In the event of low air alarm activation, the member is required to notify who
A

a. Their officer, then command

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33
Q
  1. Individuals shall check their SCBA (daily check):
A

a. Upon arrival for duty

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34
Q
  1. Air pressure prior to entry shall be at _______ or above
A

a. 90% or 4050 psi

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35
Q
  1. Continually monitor air consumption by: (6)
A

a. Regular time intervals (every 5 minutes)
b. 10 min CAD notification from dispatch
c. Change of work area
d. Passing of major landmarks within the structure
e. Completion of assignment or prior to accepting another assignment
f. As situation dictates

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36
Q
  1. What air pressure and who is notified
A

a. 50% (amber light flashing slowly)

b. ICS function (command, division, etc.)

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37
Q
  1. If a low air alarm activates in the IDLH, it calls for an immediate radio transmission to Command specifying
A

a. WHO you are
b. WHERE you are
c. WHAT your status is

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38
Q
  1. RIT will notify command if the low air alarm crew has not exited the structure within
A

a. 1 minute of low air notification

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39
Q
  1. Which day is known as “Air Fill Day”?
A

a. Wednesday

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40
Q
  1. Station 39 fills their air bottles at
A

a. Station 59

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41
Q
  1. Station 72 fills their air bottles at
A

a. Station 59

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42
Q
  1. Station 83 fills their air bottles at
A

a. Station 92

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43
Q
  1. Is it ever applicable to have the TRT truck drive to stations to fill SCBA
A

a. If personnel levels permit, yes

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44
Q
  1. Unit # for TRT?
A

a. 376

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45
Q
  1. To prevent “hot filling” all SCBA bottles should be filled at a rate
A

a. Of 300 to 500 psi per minute, not to exceed 600 psi minute

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46
Q
  1. Can SCBA bottles be stored in compartments or shelving? (for air chisel)
A

a. No bottles should be stored loose on shelving or within compartments. Should be located in their various designated and secured locations on the apparatus

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47
Q
  1. Who determines the level of PPE during overhaul?
A

a. Incident Commander

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48
Q
  1. Instead of safety vests, an individual may wear:
A

a. Full bunker gear or raingear

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49
Q
  1. Where is bunker gear placed when riding on a rescue unit?
A

a. Rescue (no extra cab) placed in left side double and rear

b. No gear is allowed in patient compartment

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50
Q
  1. How is gear ventilated during non-use
A

a. Hanging the gear on the racks

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51
Q
  1. Safety vests are placed on which units? How many
A

a. All rescue units

b. 3 on each unit

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52
Q
  1. How many free sessions of EAP are afforded to each employee? 400.05
A

a. 6

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53
Q
  1. Who is the current provider for EAP? 400.05
A

a. Clinical Provider Organization (CPO)

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54
Q
  1. Monthly inspections of all personnel are performed by who? 400.06
A

a. Station Commanders

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55
Q
  1. What items are checked during the monthly inspection? 400.06
A

a. Grooming and uniform
b. PPE
c. Driver License
d. EMT/Medic
e. CPR/ACLS

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56
Q
  1. Captains will be inspected by who? 400.06
A

a. Battalion Chief

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57
Q
  1. Quarterly inspections are performed by who? 400.06
A

a. Fire Chief

b. Or Staff designee

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58
Q
  1. What is the emphasis of the quarterly inspections? 400.06
A

a. Environmental and safety conditions/cleanliness

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59
Q
  1. The quarterly inspection is for who? 400.06
A

a. On coming crews in Class B uniforms

b. Appearance, license, EMT/Medic, CPR, fuel card, City ID, PPE

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60
Q
  1. When is station facilities inspected during the quarterly inspection? 400.06
A

a. During vehicle check-outs

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61
Q
  1. Quarterly inspections will included: 400.06
A

a. Station facilities needing repair, Vehicle stored or in services vehicle need to be in operational readiness and appearance
b. Administrative Bulletins will be inspected for completeness
c. A review for vehicle or station work order that are pending
d. A review of all medical supplies
e. Review to insure all bulletin boards are neat and up to date
f. Review made to insure that books, videos, pictures, or other items of a sexual or nature are not posted or available in the fire station

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62
Q
  1. When is “right to know” training provided? 400.07
A

a. Annually for those personnel who use or come into contact with chemicals

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63
Q
  1. Phase one of the traffic pre-emption program included: 400.08
A

a. Vehicle mounted low power radio transmitters
i. Communicate with the signal boxes at intersections
b. GPS locators
c. Satellites will “see”

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64
Q
  1. Phase two of the traffic pre-emption program included: 400.08
A

a. Station re-radiators

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65
Q
  1. How is the pre-emption system disabled? 400.08
A

a. The vehicle driver opens the driver’s door

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66
Q
  1. How do you “reactivate” the traffic pre-emption system? 400.08
A

a. Pressing the on/off button twice

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67
Q
  1. When will units stage at a scene? 400.09
A

a. Incident where violence has occurred or is likely to occur

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68
Q
  1. What type of call will receive automatic PD dispatch? 400.09
A

a. Gang violence

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69
Q
  1. How far will units stage when waiting for PD? 400.09
A

a. Out of sight of the incident

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70
Q
  1. What is the primary responsibility of police at the scene of a FD incident? 400.09
A

a. Secure traffic and crowds

71
Q
  1. What are the two types of weapons? 400.09
A

a. Common (guns, knives)

b. Makeshift (anything that wasn’t designed to be a weapon)

72
Q
  1. How far out should the sirens be shut off when responding to a possible violent scene? 400.09
A

a. Several blocks away

73
Q
  1. How far away should the apparatus be spotted when parking in front of a residence? 400.09
A

a. 100ft past or 100ft before

74
Q
  1. What side of the door should EMS stand? 400.09
A

a. Door knob side

75
Q
  1. The Fire Rescue Department recognizes the need for an Incident Safety Officer position on: 400.10
A

a. Multi-unit incidents

b. Special operations incidents

76
Q
  1. NFPA for Safety Officer 400.10
A

a. 1521

77
Q
  1. Can an entire Engine Company be assigned as a Safety Company? 400.10
A

a. Yes

78
Q
  1. Define Limited Access Roadway: 400.11
A

a. Interstate highway
b. US Highway
c. State Route
d. County Road with limited access

79
Q
  1. What agencies may be notified on a limited access roadway? 400.11
A

a. FDOT
b. FDEP – FL Dept of Environmental Protection
c. DERM – Dept of Environmental Resources Management
d. Private contractors
e. Towing companies

80
Q
  1. When incidents involve injured persons and/or hazardous materials, where does the incident commander come from? 400.11
A

a. Fire Department

81
Q
  1. If there are no victims or hazardous materials, or no longer a threat, command is subsequently turned over to whom? 400.11
A

a. Law Enforcement

82
Q
  1. What is the responsibility of law enforcement on a limited access highway? 400.11
A

a. Traffic flow
b. Scene control/security
c. Investigation

83
Q
  1. What is the responsibility of the fire department on a limited access highway? 400.11
A

a. Scene safety
b. Medical treatment
c. Hazardous materials

84
Q
  1. Who should a request be directed towards to provide an escort or traffic assistance? 400.11
A

a. Shift commander

85
Q
  1. Response Zone for County Roads: 400.11
A

a. The appropriate agency will be contacted to respond

86
Q
  1. Response Zone for State Roads and Turnpike: 400.11
A

a. FHP will contact their dispatcher and request FDOT

87
Q
  1. As soon as law enforcement starts to control traffic flow, fire department and rescue vehicles should: 400.11
A

a. Reposition or remove themselves from travel lanes to assist law enforcement

88
Q
  1. Multiple units are dispatched from different stations to respond to highway incidents to provide? 400.11
A

a. Scene safety

b. Additional manpower

89
Q
  1. What does the first arriving engine company on scene establish? 400.11
A

a. Command

90
Q
  1. The second due Engine Company to a traffic accident should be used to? 400.11
A

a. Shield the accident incident with their apparatus from oncoming traffic
b. Traffic control

91
Q
  1. Should the second due Engine Company be assigned tasks?
A

a. No they should be uncommitted to the scene and aware of oncoming traffic

92
Q
  1. The first arriving engine company can cancel the second incoming engine only if? 400.11
A

a. They are not committed to patient extrication or patient care
b. And can position the vehicle to be used as a traffic shield

93
Q
  1. ISSOG? 400.11
A

a. Incident Scene Safety Operating Guidelines

94
Q
  1. Freeway management Team? 400.11
A

a. Meetings on all large scale scenes or incident that presented unusual challenges

95
Q
  1. Does the ISSOG supersede the OSHA 29 CPR 1910.120?
A

a. No, that’s a mandated document for haz mat response

96
Q
  1. Which units have a Carbon monoxide (CO) monitor? 400.12
A

a. In-service pumpers
b. The platform
c. Battalion chief
d. EMS captain

97
Q
  1. The CO monitor is used during: 400.12
A

a. All interior salvage and overhaul

b. Any environment where CO could be possibly produced

98
Q
  1. Where is the CO monitor worn? 400.12
A

a. On SCBA strap when SCBA is worn

b. Flap of top pocket

99
Q
  1. The CO monitor has three types of alarms:
A

a. Visual, vibrating, audible

100
Q
  1. The CO monitor alarm will sound when CO content reaches a low of ___and high of ___. 400.12
A

a. Low of 35ppm

b. High of 70ppm

101
Q
  1. When will personnel exit the hazardous area? 400.12
A

a. As soon as the low level alarm activates.

102
Q
  1. Personnel can enter a high CO environment with what in place? 400.12
A

a. Accountability and RIT

103
Q
  1. How often is the monitor turned on? 400.12
A

a. Daily and allowed to enter gas reading mode

104
Q
  1. Type of battery the CO monitor uses? 400.12
A

a. Single “AA” alkaline battery

105
Q
  1. The CO monitor’s battery is low when indicated by: 400.12
A

a. By the icon and a single beep every 30 seconds

106
Q
  1. CO Monitors that have been dropped or submerged will be forwarded to: 400.12
A

a. Logistics Division

107
Q
  1. Who shall oversee a period function test of the CO monitor? 400.12
A

a. Operations Division Chief

108
Q
  1. How often is the function test of the CO monitor? 400.12
A

a. Every 6 months, battery is changed during this time too.

109
Q
  1. What is the portable radio emergency alert feature used for? 400.13
A

a. Perilous situation that are not covered by the “Mayday” policy

110
Q
  1. How many digits does each portable ID number have? 400.13
A

a. 6

111
Q
  1. Who is responsible for ensure each radio is in the correct position? 400.13
A

a. Station Commander

112
Q
  1. How do you activate the EAB? 400.13
A

a. Depress the EAB and hold it for approximately 2 seconds

113
Q
  1. When the EAB is activated, an audible alert is transmitted to: 400.13
A

a. Dispatch Console

114
Q
  1. What is displayed in the LCD screen of the portable radio? 400.13
A

a. Emergency

115
Q
  1. How is the EAB reset? 400.13
A

a. Depress the EAB and hold for approximately 2 seconds

b. Turn the radio off and then back on

116
Q
  1. What is the dispatcher supposed to announce if an EAB is depressed? 400.13
A

a. Is everything 10-24

117
Q
  1. If there is an emergency what is the proper response from the crew? 400.13
A

a. 10-24

118
Q
  1. If there is no emergency what is the proper response from the crew? 400.13
A

a. Advise in plain English that no emergency exists

119
Q
  1. If a unit does advise 10-24, the following should occur: 400.13
A

a. Code 3 PD response to location
b. Shift commander is notified on separate channel
c. Code 3 FD full station assignment to location on separate channel
d. Shift commander shall monitor both channels
e. Staff All Call

120
Q
  1. Who decides if the FD full station assignment responds Code 3? 400.13
A

a. Shift Commander

121
Q
  1. Where are radios in need of service brought to? 400.13
A

a. On duty battalion chief

122
Q
  1. What is one of the keys to implementing a successful Exposure Control Plan? 401.01
A

a. Identify exposure situations employees may encounter

123
Q
  1. Florida State Statue 395.1025 requires what? 400.13
A

a. ER to notify EMS agency within 48 hours of airborne communicable disease

124
Q
  1. Are HIV test results confidential? 400.13
A

a. Yes, no person shall have access except as authorized by the Department of Health

125
Q
  1. Florida State Statue 381.004
A

a. HIV legal need to know

126
Q
  1. Viruses cannot act without ________. 400.13
A

a. Being attached to another cell

127
Q
  1. Infectious substances are transmitted via ______. 400.13
A

a. An infected persons body fluids

128
Q
  1. What 5 things must be in place for an illness to occur? 400.13
A

a. Must be blood or body fluid containing the virus
b. An opening into the body
c. Means of getting the virus inside the opening
d. Large enough amount of the virus
e. Defense system that does not have immunity

129
Q
  1. What is the most efficient route of transmission? 400.13
A

a. Directly from the infected person, not through an intermediary

130
Q
  1. Are hands and clothing an efficient means of transfer? 400.13
A

a. No

131
Q
  1. What is the primary deterrent from transmitting infectious diseases? 400.13
A

a. Hand washing

132
Q
  1. What are the two levels of exposure? 400.13
A

a. Non-significant

b. Significant

133
Q
  1. What may cause the severity of exposure to be upgraded? 400.13
A

a. Unable to wash or clean the affected area in a timely manner

134
Q
  1. Are tears considered body fluids that can transmit disease?
A

a. Yes

135
Q
  1. What is a significant blood-borne exposure? 400.13
A

a. A combination of one or more types of body fluids and one or more injuries

136
Q
  1. Three risk levels? 400.13
A

a. At-Risk
b. Low-Risk
c. Special Risk

137
Q
  1. Who is considered to be an At-Risk employee? 400.13
A

a. Emergency medical and public safety employees

138
Q
  1. Who is considered to be a low-risk employee? 400.13
A

a. Identified through job description that are low or no “at-risk”
b. Timely post-exposure prophylaxis may be considered

139
Q
  1. Who is considered to be a special risk employee? 400.13
A

a. Periodic evaluation of job description

140
Q
  1. What are the immunizations currently recommended by the US Public Health Service? 400.13
A

a. Measles, mumps, rubella
b. Tetanus
c. Diphtheria
d. Polio
e. Pertussis (whooping cough)
f. Varicella Zoster (chicken pox)

141
Q
  1. Employers shall make vaccines available to employees who initially decline and later decides to accept the vaccines within ______. 400.13
A

a. 10 days

142
Q
  1. All “at-risk” employees shall have Hepatitis Vaccinations available to them: 400.13
A

a. Within 10 days of employment

143
Q
  1. Flu shots are made available to employees from ___to___ annually. 400.13
A

a. October through February

144
Q
  1. Are booster doses recommended for immunizations? 400.13
A

a. No

145
Q
  1. The presumptive law requires what baseline screenings? 400.13
A

a. TB and HEP A,B,C

146
Q
  1. What is another disease covered by this law but does not require a baseline? 400.13
A

a. Meningitis

147
Q
  1. When is a TB test performed? 400.13
A

a. Annually for all at-risk employees

148
Q
  1. Employees who have previously tested negative and now test positive for TB shall have: 400.13
A

a. A baseline chest x-ray and one follow up a year later

149
Q
  1. All new positive TB test results shall have: 400.13
A

a. Prophylactic treatment offered

150
Q
  1. Who is notified when an employee experiences an occupational exposure? 400.13
A

a. EMS 39 and Battalion 39

151
Q
  1. Who determines if the employee should be relieved of duty? 400.13
A

a. Supervisor

152
Q
  1. All Non-Significant exposures need to be documented on: 400.13
A

a. “infectious disease exposure report form”

153
Q
  1. An increased risk of exposure if within ____ of shaving and scabs ____. 400.13
A

a. 2 hours of shaving

b. Scabs less than 24 hours old

154
Q
  1. A significantly exposed employee should be transported to hospital within: 400.13
A

a. 2 hours

155
Q
  1. What provides a court order for the source to comply and have testing completed? 400.13
A

a. Florida’s Omnibus AIDS act

156
Q
  1. What three tests are performed on the post-exposure testing? 400.13
A

a. Rapid HIV
b. Acute Hepatitis
c. RPR (Syphilis)

157
Q
  1. Do not perform the TB skin test on an employee that has: 400.13
A

a. Previously been tested within 12 weeks

b. History of positive skin tests

158
Q
  1. Follow up testing from exposures will be performed: 400.13
A

a. After initial
b. Week six
c. Week twelve
d. Week twenty six
e. After one year for high risk significant exposure

159
Q
  1. What form is completed first to receive treatment? 400.13
A

a. Infectious Disease Exposure Report Form

160
Q
  1. What is faxed to Risk Management? 401.02
A

a. First Report of Injury or Illness

b. Supervisors Report of Accident/Injury

161
Q
  1. What is left on Risk Management’s voicemail? 401.02
A

a. Details of injury
b. Name of injured
c. Where injured employee was treated
d. Phone number of employee
e. Supervisor’s name

162
Q
  1. If there is no injury or illness, what forms are filled out? 401.02
A

a. First report of injury or illness
b. Supervisor’s report of accident/injury
c. FD 30

163
Q
  1. If the employee is incapacitated, what is appropriate to write on the signature line? 401.02
A

a. Unavailable

164
Q
  1. Who can sign the supervisor’s report of accident/injury? 401.02
A

a. Captain

165
Q
  1. What is the FD 30 used for? 401.02
A

a. Staff follow up

166
Q
  1. Who must be notified in order to arrange medical treatment? 401.02
A

a. Battalion or greater

167
Q
  1. What color envelope is used for worker’s comp? 401.02
A

a. Red interoffice

168
Q
  1. A vehicle incident report must be completed and contain the following information: 401.03
A

a. Vehicle number
b. extent of damage
c. personnel involved
d. time found
e. a brief description of the incident and any additional actions taken

169
Q
  1. Who is notified if there is damage to a vehicle?
A

a. The station officer

b. On duty Battalion Chief

170
Q
  1. Who receives the original form of a Vehicle Accident Report?
A

a. Logistics Division

171
Q
  1. Who must be notified of the vehicle in the garage after an accident? 401.03
A

a. Logistics Division

172
Q
  1. If the garage is not open, who determines if the unit stays in-service? 401.03
A

a. Company officer

173
Q
  1. All vehicle incident paperwork is immediately turned into whom? 401.03
A

a. Administrative Officer

174
Q
  1. If a vehicle accident causes an injury who is notified? 401.03
A

a. Battalion chief shall notify the Duty Chief, Operations Chief, and risk management by phone

OPM (10 decks)

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