OPM 400 Flashcards
1
Q
- Biohazard waste is disposed at the station for the following reasons
A
a. ALS engine calls
b. Non transport calls
c. Incidents occurring at the Station
2
Q
- Where is infectious waste disposed of after calls
A
a. The receiving emergency department
3
Q
- What should you do if the receiving hospital refuses to allow the disposal of the bio hazardous waste
A
a. The contaminated items will be secured in a red bio hazardous marked bag
b. The bags must be thrown away into properly designated bio waste containers
4
Q
- Who schedules the collection of biohazard waste
A
a. EMS Division
5
Q
- Biohazard waste fines can be as high as
A
a. $10,000.00 per violation
6
Q
- Biohazard “sharp” containers must be designed to be
A
a. Closable
b. Puncture resistant
c. Leak proof on sides and bottom
d. Labeled or color-coded container for this purpose
7
Q
- When will firefighters wearing SCBA conduct a seal check
A
a. Prior to each use
8
Q
- When will firefighters wear and use SCBA
A
a. During all phases of firefighting activities
b. During emergency situations that may have toxic or oxygen deficient atmospheres
c. Working in atmospheres where hazards might be present
9
Q
- The airline located on HazMat 92, TRT 92, or aerial apparatus shall only be used for
A
a. Exterior firefighting operations
b. Confined space rescue
c. Trench rescue
d. Certain hazmat incidents
10
Q
- What will be worn when using an airline respirator
A
a. Escape type SCBA
11
Q
- Structural firefighting clothing meets what NFPA
A
a. 1971
12
Q
- What additional role can one of the RIT members perform
A
a. Incident commander
b. Safety Officer
c. Operator of fire apparatus
13
Q
- Firefighters entering an IDLH to perform interior firefighting must remain in what type of communication at all times?
A
a. Visual or voice
b. The use of radios shall not be substituted for direct visual/voice contact
14
Q
- New Recruit SCBA training NFPA
A
a. NFPA 1404
15
Q
- When is SCBA training performed
A
a. Initial and annual basis
16
Q
- When will firefighters need to pass a face piece fit test
A
a. Initial and annual training
b. Significant weight gain
c. Facial trauma
d. Reconstructive surgery
e. Major dental work
17
Q
- Where does fill station training take place
A
a. Station 59 and TRT 92
18
Q
- SCBA and spare cylinders should be inspected
A
a. After each use and during the daily checkout
19
Q
- SCBA units determined to be unfit for use shall be tagged and forwarded to
A
a. Station 59
20
Q
- When are SCBAs cleaned
A
a. After each use
b. Only use cleaning/sanitizing solutions
21
Q
- Scott Carbon Fiber Cylinders must be hydrostatically tested every ____ years
A
a. 5 years
22
Q
- Fiberglass Escape cylinders are hydrostatically tested every ____ years
A
3 years
23
Q
- What is the maximum life for both types of SCBA cylinders
A
15 years
24
Q
- The minimum air quality should be that of
A
Grade D
25
25. The purity of the air compressors shall be checked by ____ at least _____.
a. A competent laboratory
| b. Annually
26
26. Can compressed oxygen be used in open-circuit SCBA
No
27
27. A medical evaluation to determine the firefighter’s ability to wear an SCBA will be provided
a. At the time of initial hiring
28
28. When is the fit test evaluation done
Annually
29
29. How long is the mask worn prior to the start of the fit test
At least 5 min
30
30. Members are required to exit the IDLH prior to the activation of
a. The low air alarm
31
31. What is an indicator that the individual is using reserve air supply
a. The low air alarm
32
32. In the event of low air alarm activation, the member is required to notify who
a. Their officer, then command
33
33. Individuals shall check their SCBA (daily check):
a. Upon arrival for duty
34
34. Air pressure prior to entry shall be at _______ or above
a. 90% or 4050 psi
35
35. Continually monitor air consumption by: (6)
a. Regular time intervals (every 5 minutes)
b. 10 min CAD notification from dispatch
c. Change of work area
d. Passing of major landmarks within the structure
e. Completion of assignment or prior to accepting another assignment
f. As situation dictates
36
36. What air pressure and who is notified
a. 50% (amber light flashing slowly)
| b. ICS function (command, division, etc.)
37
37. If a low air alarm activates in the IDLH, it calls for an immediate radio transmission to Command specifying
a. WHO you are
b. WHERE you are
c. WHAT your status is
38
38. RIT will notify command if the low air alarm crew has not exited the structure within
a. 1 minute of low air notification
39
39. Which day is known as “Air Fill Day”?
a. Wednesday
40
40. Station 39 fills their air bottles at
a. Station 59
41
41. Station 72 fills their air bottles at
a. Station 59
42
41. Station 83 fills their air bottles at
a. Station 92
43
43. Is it ever applicable to have the TRT truck drive to stations to fill SCBA
a. If personnel levels permit, yes
44
44. Unit # for TRT?
a. 376
45
45. To prevent “hot filling” all SCBA bottles should be filled at a rate
a. Of 300 to 500 psi per minute, not to exceed 600 psi minute
46
46. Can SCBA bottles be stored in compartments or shelving? (for air chisel)
a. No bottles should be stored loose on shelving or within compartments. Should be located in their various designated and secured locations on the apparatus
47
47. Who determines the level of PPE during overhaul?
a. Incident Commander
48
48. Instead of safety vests, an individual may wear:
a. Full bunker gear or raingear
49
49. Where is bunker gear placed when riding on a rescue unit?
a. Rescue (no extra cab) placed in left side double and rear
| b. No gear is allowed in patient compartment
50
50. How is gear ventilated during non-use
a. Hanging the gear on the racks
51
51. Safety vests are placed on which units? How many
a. All rescue units
| b. 3 on each unit
52
52. How many free sessions of EAP are afforded to each employee? 400.05
a. 6
53
53. Who is the current provider for EAP? 400.05
a. Clinical Provider Organization (CPO)
54
54. Monthly inspections of all personnel are performed by who? 400.06
a. Station Commanders
55
55. What items are checked during the monthly inspection? 400.06
a. Grooming and uniform
b. PPE
c. Driver License
d. EMT/Medic
e. CPR/ACLS
56
56. Captains will be inspected by who? 400.06
a. Battalion Chief
57
57. Quarterly inspections are performed by who? 400.06
a. Fire Chief
| b. Or Staff designee
58
58. What is the emphasis of the quarterly inspections? 400.06
a. Environmental and safety conditions/cleanliness
59
59. The quarterly inspection is for who? 400.06
a. On coming crews in Class B uniforms
| b. Appearance, license, EMT/Medic, CPR, fuel card, City ID, PPE
60
60. When is station facilities inspected during the quarterly inspection? 400.06
a. During vehicle check-outs
61
61. Quarterly inspections will included: 400.06
a. Station facilities needing repair, Vehicle stored or in services vehicle need to be in operational readiness and appearance
b. Administrative Bulletins will be inspected for completeness
c. A review for vehicle or station work order that are pending
d. A review of all medical supplies
e. Review to insure all bulletin boards are neat and up to date
f. Review made to insure that books, videos, pictures, or other items of a sexual or nature are not posted or available in the fire station
62
62. When is “right to know” training provided? 400.07
a. Annually for those personnel who use or come into contact with chemicals
63
63. Phase one of the traffic pre-emption program included: 400.08
a. Vehicle mounted low power radio transmitters
i. Communicate with the signal boxes at intersections
b. GPS locators
c. Satellites will “see”
64
64. Phase two of the traffic pre-emption program included: 400.08
a. Station re-radiators
65
65. How is the pre-emption system disabled? 400.08
a. The vehicle driver opens the driver’s door
66
66. How do you “reactivate” the traffic pre-emption system? 400.08
a. Pressing the on/off button twice
67
67. When will units stage at a scene? 400.09
a. Incident where violence has occurred or is likely to occur
68
68. What type of call will receive automatic PD dispatch? 400.09
a. Gang violence
69
69. How far will units stage when waiting for PD? 400.09
a. Out of sight of the incident
70
70. What is the primary responsibility of police at the scene of a FD incident? 400.09
a. Secure traffic and crowds
71
71. What are the two types of weapons? 400.09
a. Common (guns, knives)
| b. Makeshift (anything that wasn’t designed to be a weapon)
72
72. How far out should the sirens be shut off when responding to a possible violent scene? 400.09
a. Several blocks away
73
73. How far away should the apparatus be spotted when parking in front of a residence? 400.09
a. 100ft past or 100ft before
74
74. What side of the door should EMS stand? 400.09
a. Door knob side
75
75. The Fire Rescue Department recognizes the need for an Incident Safety Officer position on: 400.10
a. Multi-unit incidents
| b. Special operations incidents
76
76. NFPA for Safety Officer 400.10
a. 1521
77
77. Can an entire Engine Company be assigned as a Safety Company? 400.10
a. Yes
78
78. Define Limited Access Roadway: 400.11
a. Interstate highway
b. US Highway
c. State Route
d. County Road with limited access
79
79. What agencies may be notified on a limited access roadway? 400.11
a. FDOT
b. FDEP – FL Dept of Environmental Protection
c. DERM – Dept of Environmental Resources Management
d. Private contractors
e. Towing companies
80
80. When incidents involve injured persons and/or hazardous materials, where does the incident commander come from? 400.11
a. Fire Department
81
81. If there are no victims or hazardous materials, or no longer a threat, command is subsequently turned over to whom? 400.11
a. Law Enforcement
82
82. What is the responsibility of law enforcement on a limited access highway? 400.11
a. Traffic flow
b. Scene control/security
c. Investigation
83
83. What is the responsibility of the fire department on a limited access highway? 400.11
a. Scene safety
b. Medical treatment
c. Hazardous materials
84
84. Who should a request be directed towards to provide an escort or traffic assistance? 400.11
a. Shift commander
85
85. Response Zone for County Roads: 400.11
a. The appropriate agency will be contacted to respond
86
86. Response Zone for State Roads and Turnpike: 400.11
a. FHP will contact their dispatcher and request FDOT
87
87. As soon as law enforcement starts to control traffic flow, fire department and rescue vehicles should: 400.11
a. Reposition or remove themselves from travel lanes to assist law enforcement
88
88. Multiple units are dispatched from different stations to respond to highway incidents to provide? 400.11
a. Scene safety
| b. Additional manpower
89
89. What does the first arriving engine company on scene establish? 400.11
a. Command
90
90. The second due Engine Company to a traffic accident should be used to? 400.11
a. Shield the accident incident with their apparatus from oncoming traffic
b. Traffic control
91
91. Should the second due Engine Company be assigned tasks?
a. No they should be uncommitted to the scene and aware of oncoming traffic
92
92. The first arriving engine company can cancel the second incoming engine only if? 400.11
a. They are not committed to patient extrication or patient care
b. And can position the vehicle to be used as a traffic shield
93
93. ISSOG? 400.11
a. Incident Scene Safety Operating Guidelines
94
94. Freeway management Team? 400.11
a. Meetings on all large scale scenes or incident that presented unusual challenges
95
95. Does the ISSOG supersede the OSHA 29 CPR 1910.120?
a. No, that’s a mandated document for haz mat response
96
96. Which units have a Carbon monoxide (CO) monitor? 400.12
a. In-service pumpers
b. The platform
c. Battalion chief
d. EMS captain
97
97. The CO monitor is used during: 400.12
a. All interior salvage and overhaul
| b. Any environment where CO could be possibly produced
98
98. Where is the CO monitor worn? 400.12
a. On SCBA strap when SCBA is worn
| b. Flap of top pocket
99
99. The CO monitor has three types of alarms:
a. Visual, vibrating, audible
100
100. The CO monitor alarm will sound when CO content reaches a low of ___and high of ___. 400.12
a. Low of 35ppm
| b. High of 70ppm
101
101. When will personnel exit the hazardous area? 400.12
a. As soon as the low level alarm activates.
102
102. Personnel can enter a high CO environment with what in place? 400.12
a. Accountability and RIT
103
103. How often is the monitor turned on? 400.12
a. Daily and allowed to enter gas reading mode
104
104. Type of battery the CO monitor uses? 400.12
a. Single “AA” alkaline battery
105
105. The CO monitor’s battery is low when indicated by: 400.12
a. By the icon and a single beep every 30 seconds
106
106. CO Monitors that have been dropped or submerged will be forwarded to: 400.12
a. Logistics Division
107
107. Who shall oversee a period function test of the CO monitor? 400.12
a. Operations Division Chief
108
108. How often is the function test of the CO monitor? 400.12
a. Every 6 months, battery is changed during this time too.
109
109. What is the portable radio emergency alert feature used for? 400.13
a. Perilous situation that are not covered by the “Mayday” policy
110
110. How many digits does each portable ID number have? 400.13
a. 6
111
111. Who is responsible for ensure each radio is in the correct position? 400.13
a. Station Commander
112
112. How do you activate the EAB? 400.13
a. Depress the EAB and hold it for approximately 2 seconds
113
113. When the EAB is activated, an audible alert is transmitted to: 400.13
a. Dispatch Console
114
114. What is displayed in the LCD screen of the portable radio? 400.13
a. Emergency
115
115. How is the EAB reset? 400.13
a. Depress the EAB and hold for approximately 2 seconds
| b. Turn the radio off and then back on
116
116. What is the dispatcher supposed to announce if an EAB is depressed? 400.13
a. Is everything 10-24
117
117. If there is an emergency what is the proper response from the crew? 400.13
a. 10-24
118
118. If there is no emergency what is the proper response from the crew? 400.13
a. Advise in plain English that no emergency exists
119
119. If a unit does advise 10-24, the following should occur: 400.13
a. Code 3 PD response to location
b. Shift commander is notified on separate channel
c. Code 3 FD full station assignment to location on separate channel
d. Shift commander shall monitor both channels
e. Staff All Call
120
120. Who decides if the FD full station assignment responds Code 3? 400.13
a. Shift Commander
121
121. Where are radios in need of service brought to? 400.13
a. On duty battalion chief
122
122. What is one of the keys to implementing a successful Exposure Control Plan? 401.01
a. Identify exposure situations employees may encounter
123
123. Florida State Statue 395.1025 requires what? 400.13
a. ER to notify EMS agency within 48 hours of airborne communicable disease
124
124. Are HIV test results confidential? 400.13
a. Yes, no person shall have access except as authorized by the Department of Health
125
125. Florida State Statue 381.004
a. HIV legal need to know
126
126. Viruses cannot act without ________. 400.13
a. Being attached to another cell
127
127. Infectious substances are transmitted via ______. 400.13
a. An infected persons body fluids
128
128. What 5 things must be in place for an illness to occur? 400.13
a. Must be blood or body fluid containing the virus
b. An opening into the body
c. Means of getting the virus inside the opening
d. Large enough amount of the virus
e. Defense system that does not have immunity
129
129. What is the most efficient route of transmission? 400.13
a. Directly from the infected person, not through an intermediary
130
130. Are hands and clothing an efficient means of transfer? 400.13
a. No
131
131. What is the primary deterrent from transmitting infectious diseases? 400.13
a. Hand washing
132
132. What are the two levels of exposure? 400.13
a. Non-significant
| b. Significant
133
133. What may cause the severity of exposure to be upgraded? 400.13
a. Unable to wash or clean the affected area in a timely manner
134
134. Are tears considered body fluids that can transmit disease?
a. Yes
135
135. What is a significant blood-borne exposure? 400.13
a. A combination of one or more types of body fluids and one or more injuries
136
136. Three risk levels? 400.13
a. At-Risk
b. Low-Risk
c. Special Risk
137
137. Who is considered to be an At-Risk employee? 400.13
a. Emergency medical and public safety employees
138
138. Who is considered to be a low-risk employee? 400.13
a. Identified through job description that are low or no “at-risk”
b. Timely post-exposure prophylaxis may be considered
139
139. Who is considered to be a special risk employee? 400.13
a. Periodic evaluation of job description
140
140. What are the immunizations currently recommended by the US Public Health Service? 400.13
a. Measles, mumps, rubella
b. Tetanus
c. Diphtheria
d. Polio
e. Pertussis (whooping cough)
f. Varicella Zoster (chicken pox)
141
141. Employers shall make vaccines available to employees who initially decline and later decides to accept the vaccines within ______. 400.13
a. 10 days
142
142. All “at-risk” employees shall have Hepatitis Vaccinations available to them: 400.13
a. Within 10 days of employment
143
143. Flu shots are made available to employees from ___to___ annually. 400.13
a. October through February
144
144. Are booster doses recommended for immunizations? 400.13
a. No
145
145. The presumptive law requires what baseline screenings? 400.13
a. TB and HEP A,B,C
146
146. What is another disease covered by this law but does not require a baseline? 400.13
a. Meningitis
147
147. When is a TB test performed? 400.13
a. Annually for all at-risk employees
148
148. Employees who have previously tested negative and now test positive for TB shall have: 400.13
a. A baseline chest x-ray and one follow up a year later
149
149. All new positive TB test results shall have: 400.13
a. Prophylactic treatment offered
150
150. Who is notified when an employee experiences an occupational exposure? 400.13
a. EMS 39 and Battalion 39
151
151. Who determines if the employee should be relieved of duty? 400.13
a. Supervisor
152
152. All Non-Significant exposures need to be documented on: 400.13
a. “infectious disease exposure report form”
153
153. An increased risk of exposure if within ____ of shaving and scabs ____. 400.13
a. 2 hours of shaving
| b. Scabs less than 24 hours old
154
154. A significantly exposed employee should be transported to hospital within: 400.13
a. 2 hours
155
155. What provides a court order for the source to comply and have testing completed? 400.13
a. Florida’s Omnibus AIDS act
156
156. What three tests are performed on the post-exposure testing? 400.13
a. Rapid HIV
b. Acute Hepatitis
c. RPR (Syphilis)
157
157. Do not perform the TB skin test on an employee that has: 400.13
a. Previously been tested within 12 weeks
| b. History of positive skin tests
158
158. Follow up testing from exposures will be performed: 400.13
a. After initial
b. Week six
c. Week twelve
d. Week twenty six
e. After one year for high risk significant exposure
159
159. What form is completed first to receive treatment? 400.13
a. Infectious Disease Exposure Report Form
160
160. What is faxed to Risk Management? 401.02
a. First Report of Injury or Illness
| b. Supervisors Report of Accident/Injury
161
161. What is left on Risk Management’s voicemail? 401.02
a. Details of injury
b. Name of injured
c. Where injured employee was treated
d. Phone number of employee
e. Supervisor’s name
162
162. If there is no injury or illness, what forms are filled out? 401.02
a. First report of injury or illness
b. Supervisor’s report of accident/injury
c. FD 30
163
163. If the employee is incapacitated, what is appropriate to write on the signature line? 401.02
a. Unavailable
164
164. Who can sign the supervisor’s report of accident/injury? 401.02
a. Captain
165
165. What is the FD 30 used for? 401.02
a. Staff follow up
166
166. Who must be notified in order to arrange medical treatment? 401.02
a. Battalion or greater
167
167. What color envelope is used for worker’s comp? 401.02
a. Red interoffice
168
168. A vehicle incident report must be completed and contain the following information: 401.03
a. Vehicle number
b. extent of damage
c. personnel involved
d. time found
e. a brief description of the incident and any additional actions taken
169
169. Who is notified if there is damage to a vehicle?
a. The station officer
| b. On duty Battalion Chief
170
170. Who receives the original form of a Vehicle Accident Report?
a. Logistics Division
171
171. Who must be notified of the vehicle in the garage after an accident? 401.03
a. Logistics Division
172
172. If the garage is not open, who determines if the unit stays in-service? 401.03
a. Company officer
173
173. All vehicle incident paperwork is immediately turned into whom? 401.03
a. Administrative Officer
174
174. If a vehicle accident causes an injury who is notified? 401.03
a. Battalion chief shall notify the Duty Chief, Operations Chief, and risk management by phone
