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OPM > OPM 600 > Flashcards

OPM 600 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Who adopted the Incident Management System? When? 600.00
A

a. Broward County Fire Chiefs Association

b. Spring 1996

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2
Q
  1. The incident management system was designed to meet the requirements of what NFPA? 600.01
A

a. 1561

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3
Q
  1. The ultimate control and direction of all resources falls under: 600.01
A

a. Incident Commander, except for a unified command

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4
Q
  1. The ICS Organizational structure develops in a: 600.01
A

a. Modular fashion based on kind and size of incident

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5
Q
  1. Define span of control: 600.01
A

a. The number of subordinates one supervisor can manage effectively

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6
Q
  1. What is the acceptable limit in emergency situations? 600.01
A

5

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7
Q
  1. What are the four sections under command? 600.01
A

a. Operations
b. Planning
c. Logistics
d. Finance/Administration

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8
Q
  1. Define Operations: 600.01
A

a. All activities directed toward hazard reduction and control

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9
Q
  1. Define Planning: 600.01
A

a. Collection, evaluation, and dissemination of information

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10
Q
  1. Define Logistics: 600.01
A

a. Provides support needs to the incident

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11
Q
  1. Define Finance/Administration 600.01
A

a. Responsible for all cost incurred at the incident

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12
Q
  1. Who is included in the Command Staff? 600.01
A

a. Safety Officer
b. Liaison Officer
c. PIO
d. IC Aide

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13
Q
  1. Define Command Sequence: 600.01
A

a. Standardized sequential thought process

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14
Q
  1. What are the four parts of the Command Sequence? 600.01
A

a. Incident Priorities
b. Size Up
c. Goals and Objectives
d. Tactical Operations

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15
Q
  1. What are the incident priorities? 600.01
A

a. Life Safety
b. Incident Stabilization
c. Property Conservation

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16
Q
  1. Define Life Safety:
A

a. Actions which reduce the threat of life or injury

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17
Q
  1. Define Incident Stabilization:
A

a. Activities designed to stop the escalation of the incident

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18
Q
  1. Define Property Conservation:
A

a. Efforts to reduce the long-term economic and social impact

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19
Q
  1. What are the goals in relation to incident priorities:
A

a. Rescue
b. Exposure
c. Confinement
d. Extinguishment
e. Overhaul

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20
Q
  1. What is considered to be the solutions to the problems
A

a. Tactical operations

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21
Q
  1. What is the designation of the Command Post?
A

a. CP

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22
Q
  1. What is also located in the Command Post?
A

a. Planning function

b. Field communications center

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23
Q
  1. What can be co-located with the command post?
A

a. The incident base

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24
Q
  1. What is the Incident Base?
A

a. Location where primary support personnel activities are performed
b. Houses all equipment and personnel support operations

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25
Q
  1. What may also be located at the Incident Base?
A

a. Logistics section

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26
Q
  1. Can the incident base be re-located?
A

a. Normally not

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27
Q
  1. The staging area is established by who?
A

a. Operations Section Officer

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28
Q
  1. Who assigns a Staging Area Manager?
A

a. Operations Section Officer

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29
Q
  1. What is the staging area manager responsible for?
A

a. Checking in coming resources
b. Dispatching of resources
c. Requests for services from Logistics Section

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30
Q
  1. The implementation of the action plan will be done under the direction of:
A

a. Operation Section Officer

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31
Q
  1. The Operations Section Officer is normally drawn from:
A

a. Agency having greatest jurisdictional involvement

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32
Q
  1. What is a landing zone?
A

a. Temporary locations where helicopters can land and take off

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33
Q
  1. What is a Heli-base?
A

a. Location where helicopters are staged for possible action

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34
Q
  1. What is a task force?
A

a. Combination of resources with common communication and a leader

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35
Q
  1. What is a strike team?
A

a. Set number of resources of the same kind and type and a leader

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36
Q
  1. Position: Incident Commander – Title:
A

a. Incident Commander

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37
Q
  1. Position: Command Staff – Title:
A

a. Officer

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38
Q
  1. Position: Section – Title:
A

a. Section Officer

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39
Q
  1. Position: Branch – Title:
A

a. Director

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40
Q
  1. Position: Division – Title:
A

a. Supervisor

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41
Q
  1. Position: Group – Title:
A

a. Supervisor

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42
Q
  1. Position: Task Force – Title:
A

a. Leader

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43
Q
  1. Position: Strike Team – Title:
A

a. Leader

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44
Q
  1. Position: Single Resource – Title:
A

a. Company Officer

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45
Q
  1. Who recommends to the IC the need for additional Divisions/Groups?
A

a. Section Officers

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46
Q
  1. What is the primary reason for using Divisions and Groups?
A

a. Safety of personnel

b. Maintaining span of control

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47
Q
  1. Divisions are assigned to specific:
A

a. Geographical locations

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48
Q
  1. Structural Divisions will be designated by letter for:
A

a. For the side of the building

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49
Q
  1. Structural Divisions will be designed by the number for:
A

a. Floors

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50
Q
  1. Groups will be identified by:
A

a. The function they perform (salvage group)

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51
Q
  1. When are Branches implemented?
A

a. Span of control begins to become complex

b. The incident has two or more distinctly different operations (fire, hazmat)

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52
Q
  1. Branches report to whom?
A

a. Section Officers

b. Should communicate on different channel

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53
Q
  1. Define RIT:
A

a. Two fresh firefighters
b. Staged at CP
c. May stage near the various divisions

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54
Q
  1. The first unit to arrive at the scene of an incident must transmit:
A

a. An arrival and size up report along with establishment of command

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55
Q
  1. The initial Incident Commander shall remain in Command until:
A

a. Command is transferred or passed

b. Incident is stabilized and terminated

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56
Q
  1. The first arriving unit activates the Command process by giving:
A

a. An initial radio report

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57
Q
  1. Identification and location of Command shall be by:
A

a. Geographical location or well-known landmark

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58
Q
  1. Can unit numbered Command locations be used?
A

a. No

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59
Q
  1. Single company incident:
A

a. Can be single unit OR engine and rescue

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60
Q
  1. If two incidents on the same street, what is command designator?
A

a. “hundred block”

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61
Q
  1. The establishment of Command is a top priority for the following units:
A

a. Chief Officer

b. Member or unit without tactical capabilities

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62
Q
  1. Four modes of Command:
A

a. Nothing showing mode
b. Fast attack mode
c. Command mode
d. Defensive mode

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63
Q
  1. What is nothing showing mode?
A

a. Generally require investigation

b. Utilize portable radio to command incident

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64
Q
  1. What is Fast attack mode?
A

a. Situation that require immediate action to stabilize and requires company officer assistance
b. Fast attack should not last more than a few minutes

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65
Q
  1. Fast attack mode ends with one of the following:
A

a. Situation is stabilized
b. Situation is not stabilized and company officer must withdraw
c. Command is transferred

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66
Q
  1. What are examples of why fast attack mode would be chosen?
A

a. Offensive fire attack
b. Critical life situations
c. Incident where the safety and welfare of firefighters is a major concern

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67
Q
  1. What is defensive mode?
A

a. When conditions or hazards preclude direct entry into the hazard zone

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68
Q
  1. The declaration of a defensive mode signals:
A

a. That complex operations will be involved

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69
Q
  1. What is command mode?
A

a. Incident by virtue of size, complexity, or potential for rapid escalation requires immediate, strong, direct, overall command

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70
Q
  1. Agency representatives from responding agencies shall report to:
A

a. The liaison officer at the command post

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71
Q
  1. Define Unity of Command:
A

a. Each individual being responsible to one supervisor

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72
Q
  1. How is command transferred?
A

a. Can be transferred by radio, but should be done face to face

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73
Q
  1. The transfer of command briefing should include:
A

a. Current situation
b. Current unit placement
c. Assignments
d. Review of the tactical worksheet

74
Q
  1. Assumption of command is based on these factors:
A

a. Potential escalation of the incident
b. Personnel considerations
c. IC capabilities
d. Etc.

75
Q
  1. It may be advantageous to have the officer being relieved of command remain with the new IC, in the role of:
A

a. IC Aide or Operations Section Officer

76
Q
  1. When is passing of command advantageous?
A

a. When initial commitment of the first arriving company requires a full crew and another company is in position to assume command

77
Q
  1. The passing of command to a unit not on scene:
A

a. Not advisable

b. Creates a gap in the command process

78
Q
  1. Level 1 staging:
A

a. Occurs automatically
b. About 1 block away to avoid “boxing in”
c. Second due engine stages at hydrant
d. No staging officer

79
Q
  1. Level 2 staging:
A

a. More formalized and organized
b. Staging officer is assigned
c. Located several blocks away

80
Q
  1. When is an Incident Commander activated?
A

a. Situation requiring two or more units
b. The judgment of the on-scene ranking officer
c. Implemented for concerns of safety and scene control

81
Q
  1. The incident commander provides:
A

a. Comprehensive leadership and direction

82
Q
  1. What position is the focal point of all facets of the operation?
A

a. Incident Commander

83
Q
  1. What are the roles of the Incident Commander Aide
A

a. Provide administrative and operational assistance
b. Mange the command area
c. Process information that does not require the attention of the IC
d. May be assigned Accountability during early stages of incident

84
Q
  1. Who encompasses the majority of incident mitigation activities?
A

a. Operation Section Officer

85
Q
  1. Who assigns a Rehab Officer?
A

a. Operations Section Officer

86
Q
  1. The Branch Director reports to Operations Officer when:
A

a. Incident Action Plan is to be modified
b. Additional resources are needed
c. Surplus of resources are available
d. Hazardous or significant event occurred

87
Q
  1. Safety Officer recommended Staffing:
A

a. NFPA Safety Officer 1521
b. Florida Fire Officer 1
c. ICS Level

88
Q
  1. At a Hazmat scene, who is the Safety Officer?
A

a. Must be a HazMat Tech

89
Q
  1. Who does the initial investigation of accidents that have occurred at an incident?
A

a. Safety Officer

90
Q
  1. How many PIOs should be involved when a unified command post is activated?
A

a. Only one PIO should represent all the agencies

91
Q
  1. When are vital signs assessed in Rehab?
A

a. Expended two bottles of air or more

b. Includes pulse, BP, respirations, and Lung sounds

92
Q
  1. The Planning Section Officer is located:
A

a. On scene or at EOC

93
Q
  1. When is the Planning Section Officer activated?
A

a. When the IC cannot effectively forecast the future action plan

94
Q
  1. Who serves as the “clearing house” for information?
A

a. Planning Section

95
Q
  1. Who can be assigned as a Finance/Administrative Officer?
A

a. Any qualified or trained individual appointed by command (may be a civilian)

96
Q
  1. Where is the Logistics Section Officer located?
A

a. On scene or at EOC

97
Q
  1. When is the Logistics Section Officer activated?
A

a. Any incident requiring move ups or mutual aid coverage

98
Q
  1. Who does the Staging Officer report to?
A

a. Operations or Command

99
Q
  1. If a potential evacuation condition is noticed, who is notified?
A

a. Incident Commander immediately

100
Q
  1. Who makes the decision to evacuate a building or area?
A

a. Incident commander

101
Q
  1. What is the Emergency Evacuation Procedure?
A

a. IC will announce “Emergency Traffic” and have dispatch sound the alert tone
b. State “All personnel evacuate the building or area immediately” then repeat
c. Order all units to blow air horns for 30 seconds (one second on, one second off)
d. Conduct a PAR

102
Q
  1. If personnel are missing, how is the report given?
A

a. Face to face, no report will be announced over the radio

103
Q
  1. What is Air?
A

a. Helicopter or fixed wing aircraft

104
Q
  1. What is Ambulance?
A

a. BLS transport capable unit

105
Q
  1. What is Attack?
A

a. Mini Pumper

106
Q
  1. What is Brush?
A

a. Off-road vehicle with water tank and pump

107
Q
  1. What is Engine?
A

a. NFPA compliant Class A pumper

108
Q
  1. What is Foam?
A

a. Vehicle or trailer other than crash truck with minimum 50 gallons of foam

109
Q
  1. What is Ladder?
A

a. Straight aerial ladder of at least 75 feet

110
Q
  1. What is Medical?
A

a. ALS transport capable unit with civilian staffing

111
Q
  1. What is Platform?
A

a. Telescopic boom with platform of at least 75 feet

112
Q
  1. What is Quint?
A

a. Class A pumper with at least 75 foot straight aerial

113
Q
  1. What is Rescue?
A

a. ALS transport capable unit with cross trained firefighters

114
Q
  1. What is Snorkel
A

a. Articulating platform device

115
Q
  1. What is Squad?
A

a. Heavy, Medium, Light rescue or personnel carrier

116
Q
  1. What is Squirt?
A

a. Class A pumper with 55-70 foot aerial/water tower

117
Q
  1. What is Support?
A

a. SCBA refill truck

118
Q
  1. What is Tanker?
A

a. Apparatus with minimum of 1500 gallons on-board water

119
Q
  1. What is Tender?
A

a. Foam tanker with minimum of 1000 gallons of foam

120
Q
  1. What is Truck?
A

a. Airport crash truck with foam

121
Q
  1. What is Utility?
A

a. Light/generator/ventilation vehicle

122
Q
  1. OSHA 29 CFR 1090.134 states that during interior structural firefighting, among other things, the employer shall insure that:
A

a. 2 employees enter IDLH and remain in visual and voice contact
b. 2 employees are located outside IDLH
c. All employees engaged in interior structural firefighting use SCBA

123
Q
  1. When is it acceptable to not have RIT in place prior to commencement of firefighting?
A

a. The fire is in incipient stage

b. Rescue of trapped occupants

124
Q
  1. On larger buildings, how long should the search rope be?
A

a. 300 feet or consider attaching two search ropes together

125
Q
  1. Upon the deployment of RIT, the IC shall immediately:
A

a. Assign a secondary (backup) RIT

126
Q
  1. PASS Activation Procedure:
A

a. State “Emergency Traffic” and attempt to contact downed firefighter twice
b. Two failed attempts to contact will activate RIT

127
Q
  1. The Mutual Aid system within Broward County uses:
A

a. Mutual aid phone circuit (MARS system)
b. 800 MHz radio system
c. Regular telephone line

128
Q
  1. What is the primary method of requesting Mutual Aid?
A

a. MARS circuit

129
Q
  1. What is reaction time?
A

a. Amount of time to start units to an incident

130
Q
  1. What is the specific talk group for requesting mutual aid?
A

a. System 12, Talk group “A” (800MHz radio)

131
Q
  1. How many levels of redundancy are there to assure that mutual aid is requested?
A

3

132
Q
  1. The 800MHz “system” has how many talk groups dedicated to mutual aid?
A

a. 15, “B-O”

133
Q
  1. What is the mutual aid calling channel?
A

a. System 12, Talk group “A”

134
Q
  1. Define Special Operations:
A

a. Any response to emergencies requiring specialized equipment or personnel

135
Q
  1. Define Hazardous Materials:
A

a. Any incident involving the leak, fire, or spill of any radioactive, chemical, or biological

136
Q
  1. Define Rope Rescue:
A

a. Any rescue attempt that requires rope and related equipment

137
Q
  1. Define Confined Space:
A

a. Areas that are not intended for continual occupancy
b. Limited means of egress
c. Potential for physical, chemical, or atmospheric engulfment

138
Q
  1. Define Trench Rescue:
A

a. Rescue operation in a narrow excavation where the depth is greater than the width
b. No greater than 15 feet

139
Q
  1. Define Structural Collapse:
A

a. Structural collapse or failure

140
Q
  1. Different events that can cause a structural collapse?
A

a. Natural occurrences (hurricanes, tornados)
b. Fire or Explosion
c. Engineering errors
d. Human factors (malicious damage and terrorist)

141
Q
  1. Define Water Rescue:
A

a. Rescue attempt that requires water rescue gear

142
Q
  1. Who investigates and responds to a Haz Mat Incident that is a Category I or II?
A

a. First responders initially investigate

b. If needed, one regional team will assist

143
Q
  1. Who investigate and responds to a Haz Mat Incident that is a Category 3 or 4?
A

a. Automatic response of two regional teams

144
Q
  1. Who investigates and responds to a Confined Space Incident?
A

a. Confirmed active incident, two teams respond

145
Q
  1. Who investigates and responds to a Non-technical Rope Rescue Incident?
A

a. First responder will investigate

b. If needed, one regional team will assist

146
Q
  1. Who investigates and responds to a technical Rope Rescue incident?
A

a. Automatic two team response

147
Q
  1. What is a Non-technical Evacuation?
A

a. Evacuations that are less than 40 degrees inclination

148
Q
  1. What is a technical evacuation?
A

a. Evacuations that are more than 40 degrees inclination

149
Q
  1. Who investigates and responds to a Trench Rescue Incident?
A

a. Automatic two team response

150
Q
  1. Who investigates and responds to a suspected structural collapse?
A

a. Response of one regional team

151
Q
  1. Who investigates and responds to an active structural collapse?
A

a. Response of two regional teams

152
Q
  1. Who responds for the purpose of shoring and securing the integrity of a structure after a fire has weakened the structure?
A

a. Response of one regional team

153
Q
  1. Who responds to a Water Rescue Incident that is in Rescue Mode?
A

a. One regional team if requested

154
Q
  1. What is rescue mode?
A

a. Submersion time of up to one hour

155
Q
  1. Who responds to a Water Rescue Incident that is in Recovery Mode?
A

a. One regional team if requested

156
Q
  1. What is recovery mode?
A

a. Submersion time of greater than one hour

157
Q
  1. Define a Hazard Zone:
A

a. Any area that requires an SCBA

b. Any area in which a firefighter can become lost, trapped, or injured

158
Q
  1. What is a minimum crew size defined as?
A

a. Two members and a radio will be required

159
Q
  1. What is the minimum rank to supervise all crews entering a hazard zone?
A

a. Lieutenant or higher

160
Q
  1. If a radio fails while in the hazard zone:
A

a. The crew will exit unless there is another working radio with the crew

161
Q
  1. Who can be an Accountability Officer?
A

a. Driver
b. Division/group Officer
c. Designated accountability officer

162
Q
  1. What is the size of the nametag?
A

a. 1”x2”

163
Q
  1. What is engraved on the nametag?
A

a. Member’s last name and first two initials of the first name

164
Q
  1. Where is the nametag stored?
A

a. Collar of bunker coat
b. Helmet
c. Similar location

165
Q
  1. What does a white passport mean?
A

a. Chief Officer

166
Q
  1. What does a red passport mean?
A

a. Company Officer

167
Q
  1. What does a yellow passport mean?
A

a. Firefighter/Paramedics/Drivers/Others

168
Q
  1. What is the size of the passport unit?
A

a. 2”x3”

169
Q
  1. What is engraved on the passport unit?
A

a. Apparatus or unit number

170
Q
  1. Where is the passport unit located?
A

a. At or near the center of the dashboard

171
Q
  1. Where is status boards located?
A

a. Battalion Chief
b. Duty Chief
c. Other designated supervisors

172
Q
  1. When is a PAR required?
A

a. Missing or trapped firefighter (initiated by command)
b. Change from Offensive to Defensive (initiated by command)
c. Sudden hazardous event (initiated by command)
d. Report of “All Clear” after primary
e. Every 30 minutes
f. Report of “Fire under control”

173
Q
  1. Passport system will be implemented at any incident that:
A

a. Requires the use of SCBA

174
Q
  1. Where are the passports located for a single company incident?
A

a. Remain on the apparatus dash

b. D/O assumes accountability responsibilities

175
Q
  1. Where are the passports located for multi-company operations?
A

a. Delivered to the command post or accountability officer

176
Q
  1. What does an upside down passport indicate?
A

a. Member is not in the hazard zone

177
Q
  1. The passport system will be implemented at any incident requiring:
A

a. Entry into a hazard zone

178
Q
  1. When a crew has completed its assignment in the hazard zone, what is done with the passport unit?
A

a. Returned to the Company Officer for entry into rehab or reassignment

179
Q
  1. When is the passport system terminated?
A

a. Report of “fire under control” or “incident under control”
b. Command will determine where to continue passport use

180
Q
  1. Who developed the Mayday Procedural Guidelines?
A

a. Mutual aid committee of the fire chief’s association of Broward County

181
Q
  1. When is the term MAYDAY supposed to be used?
A

a. Encounter an immediately perilous situation

182
Q
  1. What is the MAYDAY procedure?
A

a. Unit announces MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
b. IC will gather all necessary information (Location, Unit, Nature, Air, Resources)
c. Advise dispatch to initiate MAYDAY protocol and sound alert tone
d. Repeat information one time
e. Activate RIT
f. Move all other units to secondary channel
g. Conduct PAR

OPM (10 decks)

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