OPM 600 Flashcards
1
Q
- Who adopted the Incident Management System? When? 600.00
A
a. Broward County Fire Chiefs Association
b. Spring 1996
2
Q
- The incident management system was designed to meet the requirements of what NFPA? 600.01
A
a. 1561
3
Q
- The ultimate control and direction of all resources falls under: 600.01
A
a. Incident Commander, except for a unified command
4
Q
- The ICS Organizational structure develops in a: 600.01
A
a. Modular fashion based on kind and size of incident
5
Q
- Define span of control: 600.01
A
a. The number of subordinates one supervisor can manage effectively
6
Q
- What is the acceptable limit in emergency situations? 600.01
A
5
7
Q
- What are the four sections under command? 600.01
A
a. Operations
b. Planning
c. Logistics
d. Finance/Administration
8
Q
- Define Operations: 600.01
A
a. All activities directed toward hazard reduction and control
9
Q
- Define Planning: 600.01
A
a. Collection, evaluation, and dissemination of information
10
Q
- Define Logistics: 600.01
A
a. Provides support needs to the incident
11
Q
- Define Finance/Administration 600.01
A
a. Responsible for all cost incurred at the incident
12
Q
- Who is included in the Command Staff? 600.01
A
a. Safety Officer
b. Liaison Officer
c. PIO
d. IC Aide
13
Q
- Define Command Sequence: 600.01
A
a. Standardized sequential thought process
14
Q
- What are the four parts of the Command Sequence? 600.01
A
a. Incident Priorities
b. Size Up
c. Goals and Objectives
d. Tactical Operations
15
Q
- What are the incident priorities? 600.01
A
a. Life Safety
b. Incident Stabilization
c. Property Conservation
16
Q
- Define Life Safety:
A
a. Actions which reduce the threat of life or injury
17
Q
- Define Incident Stabilization:
A
a. Activities designed to stop the escalation of the incident
18
Q
- Define Property Conservation:
A
a. Efforts to reduce the long-term economic and social impact
19
Q
- What are the goals in relation to incident priorities:
A
a. Rescue
b. Exposure
c. Confinement
d. Extinguishment
e. Overhaul
20
Q
- What is considered to be the solutions to the problems
A
a. Tactical operations
21
Q
- What is the designation of the Command Post?
A
a. CP
22
Q
- What is also located in the Command Post?
A
a. Planning function
b. Field communications center
23
Q
- What can be co-located with the command post?
A
a. The incident base
24
Q
- What is the Incident Base?
A
a. Location where primary support personnel activities are performed
b. Houses all equipment and personnel support operations
25
25. What may also be located at the Incident Base?
a. Logistics section
26
26. Can the incident base be re-located?
a. Normally not
27
27. The staging area is established by who?
a. Operations Section Officer
28
28. Who assigns a Staging Area Manager?
a. Operations Section Officer
29
29. What is the staging area manager responsible for?
a. Checking in coming resources
b. Dispatching of resources
c. Requests for services from Logistics Section
30
30. The implementation of the action plan will be done under the direction of:
a. Operation Section Officer
31
31. The Operations Section Officer is normally drawn from:
a. Agency having greatest jurisdictional involvement
32
32. What is a landing zone?
a. Temporary locations where helicopters can land and take off
33
33. What is a Heli-base?
a. Location where helicopters are staged for possible action
34
34. What is a task force?
a. Combination of resources with common communication and a leader
35
35. What is a strike team?
a. Set number of resources of the same kind and type and a leader
36
36. Position: Incident Commander – Title:
a. Incident Commander
37
37. Position: Command Staff – Title:
a. Officer
38
38. Position: Section – Title:
a. Section Officer
39
39. Position: Branch – Title:
a. Director
40
40. Position: Division – Title:
a. Supervisor
41
41. Position: Group – Title:
a. Supervisor
42
42. Position: Task Force – Title:
a. Leader
43
43. Position: Strike Team – Title:
a. Leader
44
44. Position: Single Resource – Title:
a. Company Officer
45
45. Who recommends to the IC the need for additional Divisions/Groups?
a. Section Officers
46
46. What is the primary reason for using Divisions and Groups?
a. Safety of personnel
| b. Maintaining span of control
47
47. Divisions are assigned to specific:
a. Geographical locations
48
48. Structural Divisions will be designated by letter for:
a. For the side of the building
49
49. Structural Divisions will be designed by the number for:
a. Floors
50
50. Groups will be identified by:
a. The function they perform (salvage group)
51
51. When are Branches implemented?
a. Span of control begins to become complex
| b. The incident has two or more distinctly different operations (fire, hazmat)
52
52. Branches report to whom?
a. Section Officers
| b. Should communicate on different channel
53
53. Define RIT:
a. Two fresh firefighters
b. Staged at CP
c. May stage near the various divisions
54
54. The first unit to arrive at the scene of an incident must transmit:
a. An arrival and size up report along with establishment of command
55
55. The initial Incident Commander shall remain in Command until:
a. Command is transferred or passed
| b. Incident is stabilized and terminated
56
56. The first arriving unit activates the Command process by giving:
a. An initial radio report
57
57. Identification and location of Command shall be by:
a. Geographical location or well-known landmark
58
58. Can unit numbered Command locations be used?
a. No
59
59. Single company incident:
a. Can be single unit OR engine and rescue
60
60. If two incidents on the same street, what is command designator?
a. “hundred block”
61
61. The establishment of Command is a top priority for the following units:
a. Chief Officer
| b. Member or unit without tactical capabilities
62
62. Four modes of Command:
a. Nothing showing mode
b. Fast attack mode
c. Command mode
d. Defensive mode
63
63. What is nothing showing mode?
a. Generally require investigation
| b. Utilize portable radio to command incident
64
64. What is Fast attack mode?
a. Situation that require immediate action to stabilize and requires company officer assistance
b. Fast attack should not last more than a few minutes
65
65. Fast attack mode ends with one of the following:
a. Situation is stabilized
b. Situation is not stabilized and company officer must withdraw
c. Command is transferred
66
66. What are examples of why fast attack mode would be chosen?
a. Offensive fire attack
b. Critical life situations
c. Incident where the safety and welfare of firefighters is a major concern
67
67. What is defensive mode?
a. When conditions or hazards preclude direct entry into the hazard zone
68
68. The declaration of a defensive mode signals:
a. That complex operations will be involved
69
69. What is command mode?
a. Incident by virtue of size, complexity, or potential for rapid escalation requires immediate, strong, direct, overall command
70
70. Agency representatives from responding agencies shall report to:
a. The liaison officer at the command post
71
71. Define Unity of Command:
a. Each individual being responsible to one supervisor
72
72. How is command transferred?
a. Can be transferred by radio, but should be done face to face
73
73. The transfer of command briefing should include:
a. Current situation
b. Current unit placement
c. Assignments
d. Review of the tactical worksheet
74
74. Assumption of command is based on these factors:
a. Potential escalation of the incident
b. Personnel considerations
c. IC capabilities
d. Etc.
75
75. It may be advantageous to have the officer being relieved of command remain with the new IC, in the role of:
a. IC Aide or Operations Section Officer
76
76. When is passing of command advantageous?
a. When initial commitment of the first arriving company requires a full crew and another company is in position to assume command
77
77. The passing of command to a unit not on scene:
a. Not advisable
| b. Creates a gap in the command process
78
78. Level 1 staging:
a. Occurs automatically
b. About 1 block away to avoid “boxing in”
c. Second due engine stages at hydrant
d. No staging officer
79
79. Level 2 staging:
a. More formalized and organized
b. Staging officer is assigned
c. Located several blocks away
80
80. When is an Incident Commander activated?
a. Situation requiring two or more units
b. The judgment of the on-scene ranking officer
c. Implemented for concerns of safety and scene control
81
81. The incident commander provides:
a. Comprehensive leadership and direction
82
82. What position is the focal point of all facets of the operation?
a. Incident Commander
83
83. What are the roles of the Incident Commander Aide
a. Provide administrative and operational assistance
b. Mange the command area
c. Process information that does not require the attention of the IC
d. May be assigned Accountability during early stages of incident
84
84. Who encompasses the majority of incident mitigation activities?
a. Operation Section Officer
85
85. Who assigns a Rehab Officer?
a. Operations Section Officer
86
86. The Branch Director reports to Operations Officer when:
a. Incident Action Plan is to be modified
b. Additional resources are needed
c. Surplus of resources are available
d. Hazardous or significant event occurred
87
87. Safety Officer recommended Staffing:
a. NFPA Safety Officer 1521
b. Florida Fire Officer 1
c. ICS Level
88
88. At a Hazmat scene, who is the Safety Officer?
a. Must be a HazMat Tech
89
89. Who does the initial investigation of accidents that have occurred at an incident?
a. Safety Officer
90
90. How many PIOs should be involved when a unified command post is activated?
a. Only one PIO should represent all the agencies
91
91. When are vital signs assessed in Rehab?
a. Expended two bottles of air or more
| b. Includes pulse, BP, respirations, and Lung sounds
92
92. The Planning Section Officer is located:
a. On scene or at EOC
93
93. When is the Planning Section Officer activated?
a. When the IC cannot effectively forecast the future action plan
94
94. Who serves as the “clearing house” for information?
a. Planning Section
95
95. Who can be assigned as a Finance/Administrative Officer?
a. Any qualified or trained individual appointed by command (may be a civilian)
96
96. Where is the Logistics Section Officer located?
a. On scene or at EOC
97
97. When is the Logistics Section Officer activated?
a. Any incident requiring move ups or mutual aid coverage
98
98. Who does the Staging Officer report to?
a. Operations or Command
99
99. If a potential evacuation condition is noticed, who is notified?
a. Incident Commander immediately
100
100. Who makes the decision to evacuate a building or area?
a. Incident commander
101
101. What is the Emergency Evacuation Procedure?
a. IC will announce “Emergency Traffic” and have dispatch sound the alert tone
b. State “All personnel evacuate the building or area immediately” then repeat
c. Order all units to blow air horns for 30 seconds (one second on, one second off)
d. Conduct a PAR
102
102. If personnel are missing, how is the report given?
a. Face to face, no report will be announced over the radio
103
103. What is Air?
a. Helicopter or fixed wing aircraft
104
104. What is Ambulance?
a. BLS transport capable unit
105
105. What is Attack?
a. Mini Pumper
106
106. What is Brush?
a. Off-road vehicle with water tank and pump
107
107. What is Engine?
a. NFPA compliant Class A pumper
108
108. What is Foam?
a. Vehicle or trailer other than crash truck with minimum 50 gallons of foam
109
109. What is Ladder?
a. Straight aerial ladder of at least 75 feet
110
110. What is Medical?
a. ALS transport capable unit with civilian staffing
111
111. What is Platform?
a. Telescopic boom with platform of at least 75 feet
112
112. What is Quint?
a. Class A pumper with at least 75 foot straight aerial
113
113. What is Rescue?
a. ALS transport capable unit with cross trained firefighters
114
114. What is Snorkel
a. Articulating platform device
115
115. What is Squad?
a. Heavy, Medium, Light rescue or personnel carrier
116
116. What is Squirt?
a. Class A pumper with 55-70 foot aerial/water tower
117
117. What is Support?
a. SCBA refill truck
118
118. What is Tanker?
a. Apparatus with minimum of 1500 gallons on-board water
119
119. What is Tender?
a. Foam tanker with minimum of 1000 gallons of foam
120
120. What is Truck?
a. Airport crash truck with foam
121
121. What is Utility?
a. Light/generator/ventilation vehicle
122
122. OSHA 29 CFR 1090.134 states that during interior structural firefighting, among other things, the employer shall insure that:
a. 2 employees enter IDLH and remain in visual and voice contact
b. 2 employees are located outside IDLH
c. All employees engaged in interior structural firefighting use SCBA
123
123. When is it acceptable to not have RIT in place prior to commencement of firefighting?
a. The fire is in incipient stage
| b. Rescue of trapped occupants
124
124. On larger buildings, how long should the search rope be?
a. 300 feet or consider attaching two search ropes together
125
125. Upon the deployment of RIT, the IC shall immediately:
a. Assign a secondary (backup) RIT
126
126. PASS Activation Procedure:
a. State “Emergency Traffic” and attempt to contact downed firefighter twice
b. Two failed attempts to contact will activate RIT
127
127. The Mutual Aid system within Broward County uses:
a. Mutual aid phone circuit (MARS system)
b. 800 MHz radio system
c. Regular telephone line
128
128. What is the primary method of requesting Mutual Aid?
a. MARS circuit
129
129. What is reaction time?
a. Amount of time to start units to an incident
130
130. What is the specific talk group for requesting mutual aid?
a. System 12, Talk group “A” (800MHz radio)
131
131. How many levels of redundancy are there to assure that mutual aid is requested?
3
132
132. The 800MHz “system” has how many talk groups dedicated to mutual aid?
a. 15, “B-O”
133
133. What is the mutual aid calling channel?
a. System 12, Talk group “A”
134
134. Define Special Operations:
a. Any response to emergencies requiring specialized equipment or personnel
135
135. Define Hazardous Materials:
a. Any incident involving the leak, fire, or spill of any radioactive, chemical, or biological
136
136. Define Rope Rescue:
a. Any rescue attempt that requires rope and related equipment
137
137. Define Confined Space:
a. Areas that are not intended for continual occupancy
b. Limited means of egress
c. Potential for physical, chemical, or atmospheric engulfment
138
138. Define Trench Rescue:
a. Rescue operation in a narrow excavation where the depth is greater than the width
b. No greater than 15 feet
139
139. Define Structural Collapse:
a. Structural collapse or failure
140
140. Different events that can cause a structural collapse?
a. Natural occurrences (hurricanes, tornados)
b. Fire or Explosion
c. Engineering errors
d. Human factors (malicious damage and terrorist)
141
141. Define Water Rescue:
a. Rescue attempt that requires water rescue gear
142
142. Who investigates and responds to a Haz Mat Incident that is a Category I or II?
a. First responders initially investigate
| b. If needed, one regional team will assist
143
143. Who investigate and responds to a Haz Mat Incident that is a Category 3 or 4?
a. Automatic response of two regional teams
144
144. Who investigates and responds to a Confined Space Incident?
a. Confirmed active incident, two teams respond
145
145. Who investigates and responds to a Non-technical Rope Rescue Incident?
a. First responder will investigate
| b. If needed, one regional team will assist
146
146. Who investigates and responds to a technical Rope Rescue incident?
a. Automatic two team response
147
147. What is a Non-technical Evacuation?
a. Evacuations that are less than 40 degrees inclination
148
148. What is a technical evacuation?
a. Evacuations that are more than 40 degrees inclination
149
149. Who investigates and responds to a Trench Rescue Incident?
a. Automatic two team response
150
150. Who investigates and responds to a suspected structural collapse?
a. Response of one regional team
151
151. Who investigates and responds to an active structural collapse?
a. Response of two regional teams
152
152. Who responds for the purpose of shoring and securing the integrity of a structure after a fire has weakened the structure?
a. Response of one regional team
153
153. Who responds to a Water Rescue Incident that is in Rescue Mode?
a. One regional team if requested
154
154. What is rescue mode?
a. Submersion time of up to one hour
155
155. Who responds to a Water Rescue Incident that is in Recovery Mode?
a. One regional team if requested
156
156. What is recovery mode?
a. Submersion time of greater than one hour
157
157. Define a Hazard Zone:
a. Any area that requires an SCBA
| b. Any area in which a firefighter can become lost, trapped, or injured
158
158. What is a minimum crew size defined as?
a. Two members and a radio will be required
159
159. What is the minimum rank to supervise all crews entering a hazard zone?
a. Lieutenant or higher
160
160. If a radio fails while in the hazard zone:
a. The crew will exit unless there is another working radio with the crew
161
161. Who can be an Accountability Officer?
a. Driver
b. Division/group Officer
c. Designated accountability officer
162
162. What is the size of the nametag?
a. 1”x2”
163
163. What is engraved on the nametag?
a. Member’s last name and first two initials of the first name
164
164. Where is the nametag stored?
a. Collar of bunker coat
b. Helmet
c. Similar location
165
165. What does a white passport mean?
a. Chief Officer
166
166. What does a red passport mean?
a. Company Officer
167
167. What does a yellow passport mean?
a. Firefighter/Paramedics/Drivers/Others
168
168. What is the size of the passport unit?
a. 2”x3”
169
169. What is engraved on the passport unit?
a. Apparatus or unit number
170
170. Where is the passport unit located?
a. At or near the center of the dashboard
171
171. Where is status boards located?
a. Battalion Chief
b. Duty Chief
c. Other designated supervisors
172
172. When is a PAR required?
a. Missing or trapped firefighter (initiated by command)
b. Change from Offensive to Defensive (initiated by command)
c. Sudden hazardous event (initiated by command)
d. Report of “All Clear” after primary
e. Every 30 minutes
f. Report of “Fire under control”
173
173. Passport system will be implemented at any incident that:
a. Requires the use of SCBA
174
174. Where are the passports located for a single company incident?
a. Remain on the apparatus dash
| b. D/O assumes accountability responsibilities
175
175. Where are the passports located for multi-company operations?
a. Delivered to the command post or accountability officer
176
176. What does an upside down passport indicate?
a. Member is not in the hazard zone
177
177. The passport system will be implemented at any incident requiring:
a. Entry into a hazard zone
178
178. When a crew has completed its assignment in the hazard zone, what is done with the passport unit?
a. Returned to the Company Officer for entry into rehab or reassignment
179
179. When is the passport system terminated?
a. Report of “fire under control” or “incident under control”
b. Command will determine where to continue passport use
180
180. Who developed the Mayday Procedural Guidelines?
a. Mutual aid committee of the fire chief’s association of Broward County
181
181. When is the term MAYDAY supposed to be used?
a. Encounter an immediately perilous situation
182
182. What is the MAYDAY procedure?
a. Unit announces MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
b. IC will gather all necessary information (Location, Unit, Nature, Air, Resources)
c. Advise dispatch to initiate MAYDAY protocol and sound alert tone
d. Repeat information one time
e. Activate RIT
f. Move all other units to secondary channel
g. Conduct PAR
