Ophthalmology: Eye Conditions 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the vitreous fluid/humor?

What is posterior vitreous detachment?

A
  • Vitreous fluid/humor fills the vitreous chamber of the eye. It usually maintains the structure/shape of the eyeball and keeps the retina pressed against the choroid; it is made up of collagen and water.
  • Posterior vitreous detachment is the separation of the vitreous membrane from the retina
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2
Q

State 2 risk factors for posterior vitreous detachment- highlighting the key risk factor

A
  • Increasing age (75% cases in those >65yrs): as we age, vitreous fluid becomes less viscous and hence doesn’t hold it’s shape as well; consequently, vitreous membrane is pulled away from retina
  • Highly myopic (near sighted) patients: increased risk of developing it earlier in life because eye has longer axial length than normal
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3
Q

Describe typical presentation of posterior vitreous detachment

A

May be asymptomatic or may have:

  • Floaters (may describe as dots, strands or squiggles. Large floaters as cobweb across vision)
  • Photopsia (flashing lights)
  • NO PAIN
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4
Q

What would you see on fundoscopy in posterior vitreous detachment?

A

Weiss ring (detachment of vitreous membrane around optic nerve forms a ring-shaped floater)

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5
Q

Do patients with suspected posterior vitreous detachment need to see an ophthalmologist?

A

Yes, need to see one within 24hrs to rule out retinal tears or detachment as these can cause sight loss and require surgery to fix

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6
Q

Discuss the management of posterior vitreous detachment

A
  • Reassurance: symptoms will improve over time as brain adjusts & PVD on it’s own does not lead to sight loss
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7
Q

What is a vitreous haemorrhage?

State some common causes

A
  • Bleeding into the vitreous humour
  • Common causes:
    • Proliferative diabetic retinopathy (>50%)
    • Posterior vitreous detachment
    • Ocular trauma
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8
Q

State some risk factors for vitreous haemorrhage

A

Risk factors for vitreous haemorrhage include:

  • Diabetes
  • Trauma
  • Anticoagulants
  • Coagulation disorders
  • Severe short sightedness
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9
Q

Discuss the presentation of vitreous haemorrhages

A
  • Disruption to vision can vary
    • Floaters
    • Haze/red hue in vision
    • Complete visual loss
  • Decreased visual acuity (variable dependent on size & location of haemorrhage)
  • Painless
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10
Q

Discuss the management of vitreous haemorrhages

A

Management varies for individuals but some options include:

  • Observation if stopped bleeding
  • Treat underlying cause:
    • Laser photocoagulation
    • Anti-VEGF
  • Vitrectomy (if not clearing after 3 months)
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11
Q

State some potential complications of posterior vitreous detachment

A

Increased risk of:

  • Retinal tear
  • Retinal detachment

… which can both lead to vision loss

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12
Q

What is retinal detachment?

What usually causes the above?

Why is it a problem?

A
  • Retina separates from choroid
  • Usually due to retinal tear that allows vitreous fluid to get between the retina and choroid and thus cause separation of the two layers
  • Outer retina relies on choroid for it’s blood supply hence it may cause vision loss if not recognised early
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13
Q

State some risk factors for retinal detachment

A
  • Posterior vitreous detachment
  • Diabetic retinopathy
  • Trauma to the eye
  • Retinal malignancy
  • Older age
  • Family history
  • Previous surgery for cataracts
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14
Q

Describe typical presentation of retinal detachment (in adults)

A
  • Sudden, painless peripheral vision loss (like a shadow coming across vision)
  • Floaters (pigment cells in vitreous space)
  • Blurred vision
  • Photopsia
  • If macula affected, reduced central visual acuity
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15
Q

Infants with retinal detachment often present late due to impaired ability to recognise and communicate symptoms; how may children with retinal detachment present?

A
  • Squint
  • White pupillary reflex (loss of red reflex)
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16
Q

What might you find on examination of pt with retinal detachment?

A
  • Reduced peripheral visual fields
  • Reduced central vision acuity (if macula involved)
  • Loss of red reflex
  • Relative afferent pupillary defect (if optic nerve involved)
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17
Q

Discuss the management of retinal detachment (include management of any associated retinal tears)

A

Same day (urgent) referral to ophthalmologist for assessment & management. Aim of treatment is to reattach retina and reduce any traction or pressure that might result in it detaching again.

Options for reattaching retina

  • Vitrectomy: remove parts of vitreous body and replace with oil or gas
  • Scleral buckling: use silicone ‘buckle’ to put pressure on sclera so that outer eye indents to force choroid inwards and into contact with detached retina
  • Pneumatic retinopexy: inject gas bubble into vitreous body; gas bubble creates pressure that flattens retina against choroid

Must also treat any associated retinal tears:

  • Laser therapy
  • Cyrotherapy

(both create adhesions between retina and choroid)

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18
Q

What is a retinal vein occlusion?

State the two types of retinal vein occlusion

A

Retinal vein occlusion is when there is impaired drainage of retinal vein(s)- usually due to a thrombus. Two types of retinal vein occlusion:

  • Branch retinal vein occlusion (occurs in one of 4 retinal veins, each of which drains ¼ of retina)
  • Central retinal vein occlusion (occurs in central retinal vein which the 4 retinal veins drain into- hence it drains whole of retina)
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19
Q

Discuss pathophysiology of retinal vein occlusion

A
  • Blockage of vein causes pooling of blood in retina
  • Causes leakage of fluid and blood
    • → retinal haemorrhages
    • → macula oedema
  • Damage to retinal tissue and loss of vision
  • Increased venous pressure also decreases capillary perfusion resulting in release of VEGF which stimulates neovascularisation
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20
Q

State some risk factors for retinal vein occlusion

A
  • Hypertension
  • Hypercholesterolaemia
  • Diabetes
  • Smoking
  • Glaucoma
  • Systemic inflammatory conditions e.g. SLE
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21
Q

How does retinal vein occlusion present?

A
  • Sudden, painless reduction or loss of vision (whether it is reduction or loss depends on which vein occluded. Complete loss would mean central retinal vein occlusion)
  • Usually unilateral
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22
Q

What would you find on fundoscopy of pts with retinal vein occlusion?

A
  • Flame haemorrhages
  • Blot haemorrhages
  • Optic disc oedema
  • Macula oedema
  • Cotton wool spots

In central retinal vein occlusion “blood & thunder”

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23
Q

What investigations would you do if you suspect retinal vein occlusion?

A

Investigations for risk factors

  • BP: hypertension
  • Glucose: diabetes
  • Lipids: hypercholesterolaemia
  • ESR: inflammatory disorders
  • FBC: retinal vein occlusion can be presentation of leukaemia

Further ophthalmological investigations:

  • OCT
  • Fluorescein angiography
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24
Q

Discuss the management of retinal vein occlusion

A

Same day (urgent) referral to ophthalmology for assessment & management. Management is centred around treating macular oedema and preventing complications such as neovascularisation & glaucoma. Options:

  • For macular oedema:
    • Intravitreal anti-VEGF therapies
    • Or intravitreal steroids
  • For neovascularisation:
    • Pan-retinal laser photocoagulation (uses the heat from a laser to seal or destroy abnormal, leaking blood vessels in the retina)

ALSO, should manage underlying conditions/risk factors.

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25
Q

What is the main complication/thing you are worried about with retinal vein occlusions?

A

Loss of vision (can result from the development of neovascularisation, macular oedema, or macular ischaemia. The risk diminishes with time since the RVO occurred)

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26
Q

Compare the following in terms of symptoms:

  • Posterior vitreous detachment
  • Retinal detachment
  • Vitreous haemorrhage
A
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27
Q

State some of the most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision

A
  • Ischaemic/vascular: thrombosis, embolism, temporal arteritis (including recognised syndromes e.g. occlusion of central retinal vein and occlusion of central retinal artery)
  • Retinal detachment
  • Retinal migraine
  • Vitreous haemorrhage
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28
Q

What is amaurosis fugax?

A
  • Temporary partial or complete loss of sight in one eye that is typically caused by an abrupt reduction in blood flow (ischaemia) to an eye- usually lasts few seconds to minutes
  • Can be referred to as transient vision loss
  • May be monocular or binocular
  • Most commonly monocular due to ipsilateral carotid artery disease
29
Q

What do pts commonly describe if there is an ischaemic/vascular aetiology to their vision loss?

A

“curtain coming down”

30
Q

What might a transient loss of vision also be a form of?

A

May be a form of a transient ischaemic attack and if so needs treating in same way (300mg aspirin)

31
Q

What is central retinal artery occlusion?

A

Blockage of central retinal artery which supplies blood to the retina

*branch of ophthalmic artery which is branch of internal carotid artery

32
Q

State some common causes of central retinal artery occlusion- highlighting the most common

A
  • Thromboembolism from atherosclerosis
  • Giant cell arteritis
33
Q
  • State some risk factors for central retinal artery occlusion
A

Same as those for other cardiovascular disease:

  • Advancing age
  • FH
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol
  • Diabetes
  • Hypertension
  • Poor diet
  • Inactivity
  • Obesity

Risk factors for giant cell arteritis:

  • >50yrs
  • Polymyalgia rheumatica
  • Previous history
34
Q

Describe typical presentation of central retinal artery occlusion (symptoms & signs- including fundoscopy findings)

A
  • Sudden, painless loss of vision
  • RAPD (pupil in affected eye constricts more when light in shone in other eye as input is not being sensed by ischaemic retina in affected eye)
  • Pale retina (due to lack of perfusion)
  • Cherry red spot (is the macula that has a thinner surface that shows the red coloured choroid below)
35
Q

Discuss the management of central retinal artery occlusion

A

Must be referred to ophthalmologist immediately for management.

Immediate management

  • Investigate for GCA (ESR & temporal artery biopsy); if it is GCA, treat with high dose steroids 60mg

If pt presents shortly after symptom development then there are a few things that can be tried to dislodge thrombus however none of them have strong evidence base:

  • Ocular massage
  • Removing fluid from anterior chamber to reduce intraocular pressure
  • Inhaling carbogen (mix of 5% CO2 and 95% O2) to dilate artery
  • Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate

Further/long term management

  • Treating reversible risk factors
  • Secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease (e.g. antihypertensive, statins, aspirin etc…)
36
Q

State 1 potential complications of central retinal artery occlusion

A
  • Partial or complete loss of sight in affected eyes
37
Q

Diabetic retinopathy is the _____ common cause of blindness in adults aged 35-65yrs

A

MOST common

38
Q

What is diabetic retinopathy?

A

Damage to the blood vessels in retina due to prolonged exposure to hyperglycaemia; leads to progressive deterioration in retinal health

39
Q

Discuss the pathophysiology of diabetic retinopathy

A
  • Hyperglycaemia thought to increase retinal blood flow and lead to abnormal metabolism in retinal vessel walls
  • Causes damage to endothelial cells & pericytes (cells that wrap around endothelial cells in capillaries)
    • Endothelial damage results in increased vascular permeability
      • Blot haemorrhages
      • Hard exudates
    • Pericyte damage predisposes to microaneurysm formation and venous beading
  • Damage to blood vessels can result in retinal ischaemia
    • Response to this is to release VEGF
    • Resulting in neovascularisation
  • Damage to nerve fibres causes cotton wool spots
40
Q

Discuss the classification of diabetic retinopathy

A

Broadly split into two categories based on fundoscopy appearance:

  • Non-proliferative (also referred to as pre-proliferative, background) no new blood vessels formed
    • Mild
    • Moderate
    • Severe
  • Proliferative: new blood vessels developed
  • Maculopathy: can have in non-proliferative and proliferative
41
Q

Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy can be split into mild, moderate and severe; state some features of each that you may see on fundoscopy

A

Mild

  • Microaneurysms

Moderate

  • Micoraneurysms
  • Blot haemorrhages
  • Hard exudates
  • Cotton wool spots
  • Venous beading

Severe

  • Blot haemorrhages & microaneurysms in 4 quadrants
  • Venous beading in at least 2 quadrants
  • IRMA in at least 1 quadrant
42
Q

What is IRMA?

A
  • Intraretinal microvascular abnormalities
  • Dilated & tortuous capillaries in retina
  • Can act as shunt between arterial and venous vessels in retina
43
Q

State some features of proliferative diabetic retinopathy on seen on fundoscopy

A
  • Neovascularisation
  • Vitreous haemorrhage
44
Q

What might we find, on further investigations, that suggests pt has diabetic maculopathy?

A

Maculopathy means disease of the macula; hence, diagnosis is based on location as oppose to specific findings on fundoscopy (as in non-proliferative and proliferative)

  • Macular oedema (see on OCT, black [fluid] in macula area of retina. Hard to see on fundoscopy)
  • Ischaemic maculopathy (use fluorescein angiogram)
45
Q

State some potential complications of diabetic retinopathy

A
  • Retinal detachment
  • Vitreous haemorrhage
  • Rubeosis iridis
  • Optic neuropathy
  • Cataracts
46
Q

What is rubeosis iridis?

Why is it a problem?

A
  • Abnormal blood vessel formation in the iris
  • Can progress to neovascular glaucoma (open or closed angle)!
47
Q

Discuss the management of diabetic retinopathy (think about management that applies to all pts and then stage/classification specific management)

A

All patients= optimise the following:

  • Glycaemic control
  • BP
  • Hyperlipidaemia
  • Stop smoking
  • Weight loss

Non-proliferative retinopathy

  • Regular observation (4-6/12 FU)
  • If severe, pan retinal laser photocoagulation

Proliferative

  • Laser therapy (focal/grid or panretinal photocoagulation)
  • Vitrectomy (e.g. if vitreous haemorrhage or retinal detachment)

Maculopathy

  • Intravitreal VEGF e.g. ranibizumab, becavizumab (central involving, >400micron)
  • Laser therapy (focal if focal disease or grid if diffuse disease)
48
Q

There are two types of laser therapy that can be used in diabetic retinopathy; briefly describe each and state when may be used

A
  • Focal: identify and target specific point of leakage with laser
  • Grid:
  • Pan-retinal: makes lots of burns in periphery of retina
49
Q

What is the purpose of pan-retinal photocoagulation/how does it work in diabetic retinopathy?

A

Laser directed at many sites in periphery of retina; destroys some of the photoreceptors, reduces the oxygen consumption of the retina and re-establishes a balance between the oxygen supply and demand. Aim is to prevent deterioration/worsening of disease, not restore sight.

50
Q

What is hypertensive retinopathy?

A

Systemic hypertension causes damage to small blood vessels in retina; may be develop progressively over time due to chronic hypertension in develop quickly in response to malignant hypertension

51
Q

Hypertensive retinopathy is usually asymptomatic and diagnosed on routine screening; true or false?

A

True

52
Q

What classification is used to stage hypertensive retinopathy?

State characteristic features present in stage 1, 2, 3 and 4 of hypertensive retinopathy

A

Keith-Wagener-Barker Classification

  • Stage 1: slight arteriole narrowing, silver wiring
  • Stage 2: focal narrowing of arterioles, arteriovenous nipping
  • Stage 3: cotton wool spots, hard exudates, retinal haemorrhages
  • Stage 4: Papilloedema
53
Q

Explain why you get each of the following findings on fundoscopy of pt with hypertensive retinopathy:

  • Silver wiring/copper wiring
  • AV clipping
  • Cotton wool spots
  • Hard exudates
  • Retinal haemorrhages
  • Papilloedema
A
  • Silver wiring/copper wiring: walls of arterioles are thickened & sclerosed so there is increased reflection of light
  • AV clipping: arterioles compress veins where they cross (due to sclerosis of arterioles)
  • Cotton wool spots: retinal ischaemia and infarction causing damage to nerve fibres (ischaemia of neuroretinal layer)
  • Hard exudates: damage vessels leaking lipids
  • Retinal haemorrhages: damaged vessels leaking blood into retina
  • Papilloedema: ischaemia to optic nerve resulting in optic nerve swelling (oedema) and blurring of disc margins
54
Q

Discuss the management of hypertensive retinopathy

A

Management centred around controlling BP and other cardiovascular disease risk factor e.g. smoking, lipids etc…

55
Q

What is retinitis pigmentosa?

A

Congenital, inherited condition in which there is degeneration of the rods and cones in the retina (in most cases the rods degenerate more than the cones)

56
Q

There are many different genetic causes of retinitis pigmentosa; true or false?

A

True

  • Some causes result in isolated retinitis pigmentosa, others result in systemic diseases associated with the condition
  • Age of presentation varies
  • Prognosis varies
57
Q

Describe typical presentation of retinitis pigmentosa (include symptoms and signs- including fundoscopy findings)

A

Symptoms (explanation for order of symptoms is that rods tend to degenerate more than cones)

  • Night blindness (often FIRST symptom)
  • Peripheral vision loss
  • … followed by central vision loss

Signs

  • Bone spicule pigmentation that is most concentrated around mid-peripheral retina
  • May be associated narrowing of arterioles
  • May be associated waxy or pale appearance to optic disc
58
Q

Discuss the management of retinitis pigmentosa

A

General management:

  • Referral to ophthalmologist
  • Vision aids
  • Sunglasses (protect retina from accelerated damage)
  • Driving limitations & informing DVLA
  • Genetic counselling
  • Regular follow up (assess vision and for other reversible conditions that may make symptoms worse)

Treatments to slow disease progression (note: limited evidence)

  • Gene therapy (approved by NICE)
  • Others:
    • Vitamin & antioxidant supplements
    • Oral acetazolamide
    • Topical dorzolamide
    • Steroid injections
    • Anti-VEGF
59
Q

What is herpes zoster ophthalmicus?

A

Reactivation of varicella-zoster virus in area supplied by ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve (~10% of shingles)

*Basically shingles affecting the ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve

60
Q

Describe typical presentation of herpes zoster ophthalmicus

A
  • Vesicular rash around eye (may or may not involve the eye itself)
  • Hutchinson’s sign (rash on tip or side of nose; indicates nasociliary involvement and is strong risk factor for ocular involvement)
61
Q

Discuss the management of herpes zoster ophthalmicus

A

NOTE: any ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review

  • PO antiviral (e.g. Aciclovir)
    • Ideally start in first 72hrs
    • IV if very severe or immunocompromised
  • Topical steroids (eye drops) can be used if there is secondary inflammation of the eye

*Don’t treat with topical antivirals

62
Q

State some potential complications of herpes zoster ophthalmicus

A
  • Ocular
    • Conjunctivitis
    • Keratitis
    • Episcleritis
    • Anterior uveitis
  • Ptosis
  • Post-herpetic neuralgia
63
Q

Which pts, with thyroid disease, may experience thyroid eye disease?

A
  • Common in Graves’ disease (25-50%)
  • Hypothyroid
    • Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
  • Euthyroid
64
Q

Discuss who is more likely to get thyroid eye disease, men or women?

A
  • Women more likely to have it
  • However, severe cases of thyroid eye disease occur more often in men than in women
65
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of thyroid eye disease

A
  • TSH receptors are expressed on fibroblasts of retro-orbital and dermal tissues
  • TSH autoantibodies bind to these receptors
  • Causes immune response in the eye
  • T cells produce cytokines and stimulate fibroblasts to secrete GAGs (which increases osmotic load and so interstitial fluid content) and differentiate into adipocytes
  • Increased interstitial fluid content along with infiltration of inflammatory cells causes swelling of orbital tissues
  • IGF-1 receptor is also thought to play an important role in thyroid eye disease as there is aberrant expression of IGF-1 receptors on fibroblasts in pts with thyroid eye disease; thought that this promotes T cell recruitment

IGF-1= insulin like growth factor 1

66
Q

What is the most important modifiable risk factor for thyroid eye disease?

A

Smoking

67
Q

Describe typical presentation of thyroid eye disease (symptoms & signs)

A

Symptoms

  • Gritty/watery eyes
  • Puffy lids
  • Bulging eyes
  • Diplopia
  • Ocular pain

Signs

  • Proptosis
  • Lid retraction (with temporal flare and scleral show)
  • Lid lag on downgaze (von Graefe sign)
  • Decreased retropulsion
68
Q

Discuss the management of thyroid eye disease

A
  • General
    • Optimise endocrine control
    • Stop smoking
    • Selenium supplements
    • Topical lubricants
  • To treat inflammation
    • Steroids +/- immunsparing agents
    • Immunosuppressive agents
  • AVOID RADIOACTIVE IODINE
  • Surgery to decompress, correct strabismus, correct eyelids
69
Q

State some signs/symptoms, in patients with thyroid eye disease, that indicate referral for urgent review by ophthalmologist

A

For patients with established thyroid eye disease the following symptoms/signs should indicate the need for urgent review by an ophthalmologist (see EUGOGO guidelines):

  • unexplained deterioration in vision
  • awareness of change in intensity or quality of colour vision in one or both eyes
  • history of eye suddenly ‘popping out’ (globe subluxation)
  • obvious corneal opacity
  • cornea still visible when the eyelids are closed
  • disc swelling