Neurology: Epilepsy Flashcards

1
Q

Remind yourself of the main excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters in brain and state which receptor they act on

A
  • Excitatory: glutamate via NMDA receptor
  • Inhibitory: GABA via GABAa receptor
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2
Q

What are seizures?

A

Transient occurrence of signs and symptoms due to episodes of abnormal electrical activity in the brain

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3
Q

There are many other causes of seizures, other than epilepsy, state some other causes

A
  • Febrile convulsions (young children)
  • Alcohol withdrawal
  • Pseudoseizures/psychogenic non-epileptic seizures
  • Raised ICP e.g. following head trauma, infection etc…
  • Metabolic disturbance e.g. hypoglycaemia
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4
Q

Seizures are classified based on what 3 key features?

Describe the classification of seizures

A

Classified based on:

  • Where seizure began (generalised or focal onset)
  • Level of awareness during seizure (consciousness always lost in generalised onset)
  • Other features of seizure (broadly split into motor and non-motor and then into different subtypes based on features)
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5
Q

What do we mean by generalised onset seizures?

What do we mean by focal onset seizures?

A

Generalised

  • Abnormal electrical activity starts in both sides of brain
  • Pts always lose consciousness
  • Affects both sides of body

Focal

  • Abnormal electrical activity starts in one side of brain (has potential to spread to other side but starts in one side only)
  • Level of awareness/consciousness can vary
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6
Q

Describe the typical presentation tonic clonic seizures

A
  • Often starts with tonic phase (increased muscle tone)
  • Followed by clonic phase (rapid, rhythmic jerking)
  • May have associated tongue biting, incontinence, cyanosis
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7
Q

Describe the typical presentation of tonic seizures

A
  • Increase in muscle tone
  • Usually happen during sleep
  • Usually short in duration (<30 secs)
  • Pt may fall to ground if stood up when it occurs
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8
Q

Describe the typical presentation of absence seizures

A
  • Person blanks out
  • Generalised onset (so consciousness always lost)
  • Two subtypes:
    • Typical: last <10 seconds, eyelids may flutter
    • Atypical up to 20 seconds or more, slower/less clear onset and offset, repetitive blinking, altered muscle tone, lip smacking, hand motions
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9
Q

Describe typical presentation of atonic seizures

A
  • Loss of muscle tone
  • If standing pt often falls to ground
  • Typically <15 seconds
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10
Q

Describe the typical presentation of myoclonic seizures

A
  • Sudden, short-lasting jerks (may be mild or forceful making you drop something etc…)
  • Usually only last 1-2 seconds but may have clusters
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11
Q

Previously, the following phrases were used; explain what each is referring to:

  • Grand mal
  • Petit mal
  • Simple partial
  • Complex partial
A
  • Grand mal: generalised tonic-clonic seizure
  • Petit mal: typical absence seizure
  • Simple partial: focal aware seizure
  • Complex partial: focal impaired awareness seizure
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12
Q

What is Jacksonian march/seizure?

A
  • Kind of a simple partial seizure
  • The characteristic features of Jacksonian march are
    • It only occurs on one side of the body
    • It progresses in a predictable pattern from twitching or a tingling sensation or weakness in a finger, a big toe or the corner of the mouth, then marches over a few seconds to the entire hand, foot or facial muscles.
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13
Q

What specific questions should you include when taking a history of someone who blacked out and may have had a seizure?

A

Before event

  • What were they doing?
  • Lightheaded, dizzy, chest pain, palpitations, aura
  • Eaten, drank, taken medication etc…
  • Did anyone see them? How did they look (ask about colour of skin etc…)

During event

  • Consciousness lost or not
  • Any falls/potential injuries
  • How long
  • Did anyone see them? What did they look like (ask about e.g. cyanosis)? What did they do?
  • Tongue biting (lateral tongue biting more specific to epilepsy), incontinence

After event

  • Did they recall what happened?
  • Able to get themselves up
  • Any injuries
  • Any post-ictal period (confusion, drowsiness, tired etc..)- how long?
  • Did anyone see them? What did they look like?
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14
Q

Focal seizures start in one side of/hemisphere of brain; state some features in history that may allow you to further localisation the location of a focal seizure

A
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15
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

A condition in which person has a tendency toward recurrent seizures which are unprovoked by a systemic or severe neurological insult

*Idea that anyone can have seizures, epilepsy is the tendancy towards having seizures even when there is no systemic or severe neurological trigger.

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16
Q

Discuss the pathology of seizures in terms of neurotransmitters

A

A seizure is the clinical manifestation of abnormal and excessive excitation and synchronisation of a group of neurones within the brain. There may be loss of inhibitory (GABA mediated) signals or too strong an excitatory signals (NMDA/glutamate)

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17
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

A condition in which person has a tendancy toward recurrent seizures which are unprovoked by a systemic or severe neurological insult

*Idea that anyone can have seizures, epilepsy is the tendancy towards having seizures even when there is no systemic or severe neurological trigger.

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18
Q

What are reflex seizures?

A

Seizures brought on by a particular stimulus e.g. flashing lights HOWEVER none of the stimuli are classed as a severe neurological insult therefore the seizure is still classed as unprovoked and it is still epilepsy

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19
Q

How many seizures do you need to have had to be diagnosed with epilepsy syndrome?

A

At least two unprovoked (or reflex) seizures occuring more than 24 hours apart

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20
Q

Explain the difference between primary and secondary epilepsy- giving some examples of secondary causes of epilepsy

A
  • Primary: unknown cause/idiopathic (~50-60%)
  • Secondary: known cause of epilepsy e.g.:
    • Pre- or peri-natal injuries (e.g. hypoxia)
    • Brain tumour
    • Stroke
    • Degenerative CNS conditions e.g. Alzheimers
    • Infection
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21
Q

Epilepsy most commonly occurs in isolation however some conditions do have an association with epilepsy; state some

A
  • Cerebral palsy (30%)
  • Tuberous sclerosis
  • Mitochondrial disease
  • Neurofibromatosis
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22
Q

Which age groups(s) is epilepsy most common in?

A
  • New cases of epilepsy are most common among children, especially during the first year of life.
  • The rate of new cases of epilepsy gradually goes down until about age 10 and then becomes stable.
  • After age 55, the rate of new cases of epilepsy starts to increase, as people develop strokes, brain tumors, or Alzheimer’s disease, which all can cause epilepsy.
23
Q

Which age groups(s) is epilepsy most common in?

A
  • New cases of epilepsy are most common among children, especially during the first year of life.
  • The rate of new cases of epilepsy gradually goes down until about age 10 and then becomes stable.
  • After age 55, the rate of new cases of epilepsy starts to increase, as people develop strokes, brain tumors, or Alzheimer’s disease, which all can cause epilepsy.
24
Q

What investigations may you do for someone presenting with seizures?

A
  • Blood glucose
  • FBC
  • U&Es
  • Bone profile (for calcium)
  • Toxicology screen
  • Neuroimaging (head CT or MRI brain dependent on what suspecting)
  • EEG (will only be abnormal during the seizure)
25
Q

Outline the main aspects of management of epilepsy

A
  • Education surrounding epilepsy including:
    • General day-to-day advice e.g. what they can & can’t do without supervision
    • Advice regarding what to do during a seizure
    • Management of status epilepticus
    • Support groups
    • Must inform DVLA if driver
  • Pharmacological management/maintenance medication (most neurologists start after 2nd seizure though NICE specifies starting after first seizure if certain criteria are met)
  • Rescue medications (people will be given specific instructions on when to use these in their seizure action plan)
    • Benzodiazepines
      • E.g. buccal midazolam
      • E.g. rectal diazepam
26
Q

Anti-epileptic drugs often have more than one mechanism of action; true or false?

A

True

27
Q

Anti-epileptic drugs can be sodium channel blockers; describe the mechanism of aciton of Na+ channel blockers in seizures

A
  • Remember that Na+ channels open by depolarisation, allow Na+ in, then become inactivated and need hyperpolarisation to acitvate them and let them enter closed state. Depolarisation occurs and cycle starts again..
  • Na+ channel blocker seizure durgs block Na+ channels when they are in the inactivated state
  • This prevents the Na+ channel from recovering to the closed state and hence the open state so prevents further influx of Na+ through these channels (keeps channel in inactive state)
  • Reduces depolarisation, reduces likelihood of threshold being reached therefore reduces neuronal transmission
28
Q

State 3 examples of anti-epileptic drugs that are Na+ channel blockers

A
  • Phenytoin
  • Carbamazepine (trade name= tegretol)
  • Lamotrigine
29
Q

Lamotrigine is primarily a Na+ channel blocker (hence we have classed it as one) but it may also affect calcium channels; true or false?

A

True

Blocks Ca2+ channels which prevents calcium influx and hence prevents vesicles fusing with membrane to release neurotransmitter

30
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of levetiracetam (trade name Keppra)

A
  • Binds to glycoproteins on synaptic vesicles
  • Stops release of of neurotransmitter
  • Hence reduces neuronal activity
31
Q

Discuss which antiepileptics are used first and second line for the different types of seizures

A

General rule: sodium valproate is first line for most forms of epilepsy (except focal seizures)

32
Q

For sodium valproate, discuss:

  • ADRs
  • Contraindications
  • Interactions (don’t worry about too much)
  • If any monitoring is required
A

ADRs

  • Increased appetite & weight gain
  • Hair loss/alopecia
  • Tremor
  • Hepatitis
  • Pancreatitis
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Teratogenic (neural tube defects)!!!!

Contraindications

  • NICE state should not use in women of child-bearing age unless there are no suitable alternatives & strict criteria are met to ensure they don’t get pregnant (pregnancy prevention programme)
  • Personal or family history severe hepatic dysfunction

Interactions

  • Lots of interactions. Some to note are meropenem decreases concentration of sodium valproate

Any monitoring required

  • Liver function tests (LFTs, coagulation) both prior to starting and during first 6 months
  • FBC (looking particularly at platelets) prior to starting
33
Q

For carbamezapine, discuss:

  • ADRs
  • Contraindications
  • Interactions (don’t worry about too much)
  • If any monitoring is required
A

ADRs

  • Dizziness
  • Drowsiness
  • Visual disturbances (particularly diplopia)
  • Weight gain
  • SIADH
  • Agranulocytosis
  • Aplastic anaemia

Contraindications

  • AV conduction abnormalities (unless paced)
  • Hx bone marrow depression

Interactions

  • P450 enzyme inducer hence LOTS of reactions

Any monitoring

  • FBC, LFTs & U&Es recommended
  • Measure plasma concentration after 1-2 weeks
34
Q

For lamotrigine, discuss:

  • ADRs
A

ADRs

  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome
  • Leukopenia
  • Drowsiness
  • Tremor
35
Q

For phenytoin, discuss:

  • ADRs
    • Interactions (don’t worry about too much)
  • If any monitoring is required
A

ADRs

  • Drowsiness
  • Gingival hyperplasia
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Vit D & folate deficiency
    • Megaloblastic anaemia (folate deficiency)
    • Osteomalacia (vit D deficiency)

Interactions

  • P450 inducer so lots of interactions; some ones to note are:
    • DOACs- Apixaban, rivaroxaban, edoxaban, dabigatran (decrease exposure to the anticoagulants/make less effective)
    • COCP (decreases effectiveness)

Monitoring

  • Plasma concentration (to check within therapeutic level)
  • FBCs
36
Q

What is the DVLA guidance for pts with epilepsy?

A

General rule:

  • Following a one-off seizure, can’t drive for 6 months if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definitive epileptiform activity on EEG (if there is, duration will be increased to 12 months)
  • Following an epileptic seizure or multiple unprovoked seizures, can’t drive for 12 months (some situations in which it can be 6 months such as if doctor changed or reduced medication)
  • Following a provoked seizure, must not drive and must inform DVLA and await their instructions (usually 6 months)
37
Q

For ethosuximide, discuss:

  • ADRs
A

ADRs

  • Hiccups
  • Night terrors
  • Rashes
  • Weight loss
  • SJS
38
Q

Why does phenytoin require close monitoring?

A

Exhibits zero order kinetics

39
Q

A diagnosis of epilepsy can have a huge impact on life… state some examples of things a patient may not be able to do with a diagnosis of epilepsy

A
  • Drive *NOTE: it is patient’s responsibility to inform DLA
  • Swim
  • Have a bath
  • May have time off school/university/work
  • Careful crossing roads or doing anything as could have seizure
40
Q

Can women taking antiepileptics breastfeed?

A

Varies dependent on medication, BNF implies following are okay:

  • “Carbamazepine probably too small to be harmful”
  • “Small amounts in mothers taking phenytoin, not considered to be harmful”
  • “Present in milk, but limited data suggest no harmful effect on infant.”
41
Q

Summary of antiepileptic medications from passmed

A
42
Q

Define status epilepticus

A
  • Single seizure lasting > 5 minutes OR
  • 2 or more seizures within a 5 minute period without the person returning to normal in between
43
Q

Discuss the management of status epilepticus

A
  • A-E assessment including:
    • Secure airway (may need adjunct)
    • High flow oxygen
    • IV access
    • Bloods
    • Check glucose
  • First line= benzodiazepines
    • In hospital, IV lorazepam 4mg. Can be repeated after 10 minutes if continues. (Could also give 10mg IM midazolam if cannot get IV access)
    • In community, buccal midazolam or PR diazepam
  • If continues, repeat benzodiazepines
  • If continues, IV phenytoin or phenobarbital
  • If still going after 30 mins, need ITU to anaesthetise with thiopentone and ventilate
44
Q

State some advantages of levetiracetam (trade name Keppra)

A
  • Generally well tolerated
  • Safe in pregnancy
45
Q

State some generic side effects of all anti-epileptic drugs

A
  • Tiredness/drowsiness
  • Nausea & vomitting
  • Mood changes & suicidal ideation
  • Osteoporosis (particularly in elderly)
  • Rashes (this can include Steven Johnson syndrome- most likely in carbamezapine or phenytoin)
  • Anaemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Bone marrow failure
46
Q

State two anti-epileptic drugs which may decrease effectiveness of some antibiotics

A
  • Carbamezapine
  • Phenytoin
47
Q

Why will patients on anti-epileptics and warfarin require close monitoring?

A

Antiepileptics can cuase thrombocytopenia so with warfarin aswellt here is increase risk of bleeding

48
Q

Patients on antiepileptic drugs can consume alcohol; true or false

A

Ideally patients should NOT consume alcohol

49
Q

State two anti-epileptic drugs which decrease effectiveness of oral contraceptive pills

A
  • Carbamezapine
  • Phenytoin
50
Q

When determining whether a patients AED is effective what is the main thing we ask about/focus on?

A

Seizure frequency

51
Q

What antiepileptic drug can increase plasma concentration of other antiepileptic drugs?

A

Sodium valporate

52
Q

What blood test, if raised, favours a diagnosis of a true epileptic seizure over a Pseudoseizures?

A

Prolactin

*why prolactin is raised following seizures is not fully understood. It is hypothesised that there is spread of electrical activity to the ventromedial hypothalamus, leading to release of a specific prolactin regulator into the hypophyseal portal system

53
Q

Passmed summary of antiepilpetics

A