Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NBDE 2 > OPERATIVE > Flashcards

OPERATIVE Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What type of mercury is most harmful in the dental setting?
A

Methylmercury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 facts about Hydroxyapetite (HA):

A
  1. Hexagonal
  2. White powder
  3. Low biabsorption rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Naturally occurring HA in enamel and dentin

A

CHA Carbonate- substituted HA

CHA increases solubility of enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Protective mechanisms (4) of saliva are:

A
  1. Bacterial clearance (Glycoproteins in spit make bac clump together)
  2. Buffer (urea etc dilute plaque acids)
  3. Antimicrobactiral ( lysozyme, lactoferrin,lactoperoxidase)
  4. Remineralization (CA, Ph, K, F + proteins like proline-rich sIgA ect)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does F+ work?

A
  1. Remineralizatin
  2. Dec Solubility of enamel ( lower critical pH)
  3. Slow metabolism of cariogenic bacteria
    4.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

____ is the primary causative agent of initial caries

A

Mutans StrePtOcoccuS ( gram POS bac)

Mutans carry postive charges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Critical pH of enamel, dentin, cementum?

A

Enamel ( FA) = 4.5
Enamel (CHA) = 5.5
Dentin/Cementum = 6.2-6.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Enamel demineralization occurs at what pH?

A

5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pit and fissure lesion shape

A

Inverted V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Smooth Surface lesion shape

A

V shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Infected dentin vs Affected dentin

A 
infected = wet mushy soft
affected = deeper dry leathery ( demin but no bac)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

_____ necc for remineralization

A

intact surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Progress of lesion is ( order of a cavity)

A
  • ennamel demin
  • dentin demin
  • ## enamel caviation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The bacteria ___1__ secretes the enzxyme __2___ that causes the formation of extracellular polysaccharide, which allows it to stick to smooth tooth surfaces.

What else does this enzyme do? ___3____

What does this bact contain that makes it grow as opposed to other bac? ____4____

A
  1. Streptococ. Mutans or mutans streptococcus
  2. Glycosyltranferace
  3. It produces (Metabol. sucrose to lactic acid) and tolerates acid aka acidogenic/aciduric.
  4. BActeriocins - kill off competing org
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Primary cause of dentin caries

A

lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Primary cause of root caries

A

Actinomyces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Components of Saliva that make it protective

A
  1. Glycoproteins ( bacteria agglutination)
  2. Urea
  3. Lysozyme (destroy cell wall)
  4. Lactoferrin (bind to Fe- inactivates it from bac)
  5. Lactoperoxidase (inactiv. bac enzymes)
  6. sIgA (secretory immunoglobins antb against bac)
  7. CA, Ph, K, F
  8. Crystatin, Histatin, Statherin, proline-rich protiens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CLinical Exam methods for checking for caries

A
  1. Visual ( texture /color)
  2. Tactile ( explorer)
  3. Radiographs
  4. Transilluimnation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

_____ is loss of tooth structure from mechanical wear

A

Abrasion (Pathologic Or tooth brush)

most common cause of abrasion = porcelin/ceramic crowns against teeth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

amalgalm marginal gap/ditching = ?

A

0.5mm or LESS ; no need to replace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

____ is caused by acidic food or bev.

A

Erosion

no bac involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ultra Fine Finishing burs have ___ blades?

A

30 -40 blades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

_____ is occlusal wear from fxnl contacts with opposing natural teeth.

A

Attrition (burxism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
Cutting Instrument number formula 
1st Number = 
2nd Number =
3rd Number = 
4th Number =
A
  1. Blade width
  2. Cutting edge angle ( omitted if 90 deg)
  3. Blade Length
  4. Blade Angle

things i want an instrumetn ( penis)
Width [90 omited] Length Angle [curved penis]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The scalers are?

A

Graceys ( 1-2, 7-8, 11-12, 13-14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where are sickle scalers used

A

Supraging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where are Currettes used?

A

Subgingiv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Slow speed drill operates at?

A

<12,000 RPMs

Lowest possible =400RPMs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which bur is best for caries removal

A

Large Round Bur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

High Speed drill operates at?

A

> 200,000 RPMs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which bur is better for end cutting?

A

Carbide ( produces less heat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which bur is better for side cutting?

A

Diamons ( produces more heat and has inc hardness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cutting burs have ___ blades?

A

6 blades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

______ is defined by the extent of the carious lesion

A

Outline form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Internal Walls of cavity prep are?

A

Pulpal

Axial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

________ is the jxn of two walls?

A

Line angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dimensions of 330 bur?

A

1.5mm L x 0.8mm W

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Outline for is descirbed by the external outline of the tooth surface to be included in the prep along the ________________.

A

Cavosurface margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

________ is the jxn of THREE walls?

A

POINT Angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Finishing burs have ___ blades?

A

12 Blades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Eame’s Ratio?

A

50% Mercury

50% Metal Alloy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the components of the metal alloy in amalgam?

A 
50% metall alloy
Sliver [strength]
Tin [corrosion]
Copper [ Strength]
Zinc [ Deoxidizer]

(Amal) kept his (silver) in a (tin) can with his (pennies) (copper) near the (sink) (Zinc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Silver, Tin, Copper, and Zinc are metals in amalgalm what properties does each contribute to the alloy?

A 
Silver = Strength
Tin = Corrosion
Copper = Strength
Zinc =  Deoxidizer - but excess expansion if moisture contaminates zinc

Sickos (Silver,Copper) are strong and
Tin-zin = blew away the rock with air ??

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Adv (3) of Spherical Amalgalm

A
  1. Easier to condense
  2. Stronger
  3. Sets faster

speherical = mircospheres of various sizes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Adv of Admixed

A
  1. Better proximal contacts (

Disadv = Reqs more condense force

admixed = mix of irregular and spherical parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

With burs as ____1___ increases, ____2____ decreases.

A

Cutting efficeincy INC

Smoothness DEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

While creating the outline form of a prep do you follow the caries for depth?

A

No. Initial depth of 0.2-0.5mm into dentin

Only working on the width and length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When to use amalgalm?

A 
Mod- Large lesions
Isolation difficult (dry)
Lesion onto root
fondation/build up/abutment
Heavy occlusal loading
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

____ is loss of tooth strx in cervical d/t tooth flexure

A

Abfraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Fine Finishing burs have ___ blades?

A

18-24 blades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

4 main reasons its more difficult to bond to dentin vs enamel

A
  1. Compostion [Denitn = 25% water- more org mat]
  2. Structure [Enamel rods are || dentin has callagen wich is like spageti]
  3. Depth [deeper = inc in fluid filled tubes ( near pulp) ]
  4. Smear Layer [dec dentin permeability]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q 
GV Black's Cavity  Classification
Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV
Class V
Class VI
A
  1. Pits and fissures [post]
  2. Proximal [post]
  3. Proximal w/o incisal edge [Ant]
  4. Proximal WITH incisal Edge [Ant]
  5. Cervical third
  6. Only incisal edge of ant or cusp tip of post
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Flat pulpal/ging floors, Round internal line angles, are part of which step in a cavity prep

A

Resistance Form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

After etching you primer with what?

A

HEMA ( monomer + solvent )
infiltrates enamel prisms and dentin tubes; prevent collagen collapse

HEMA if contacts skin causes CONTACT DERM (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Dimensions of 245 bur?

A

3mm L x 0.8mm W

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

ETCH, PRIME, BOND….whats the bond?

A

Bis-GMA (bisphenol-a-glycidyl-methylmeacrlate)

Chem BONDS to underlying PRIMER AND overlying COMP thru MMA bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Outline form of prep gingival floor depth?

A
  1. 5mm of clearance

- you can see 0.5mm b/w ging floor of prep and adj tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Acid etch = ?

A

35% phosphoric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Acid etch for how long?

A

15 sec rinse

10 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Etched enamel&raquo_space;

A

chalky white

creates mircoporosities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Amalgalm rxn stages:

A 
y  = unreacted tin sliver
y1 = strong Ag-Hg matrix [highest strength/ corrosion resistance]
y2 =  weak Tin-Hg  [weakest - creep/corrosion]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Deformation of amalgalm unders compressive stress = ?

A

creep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

___________ = mechinical interface b/w tooth and adhesive

A

hybrid layer

micromechanical bond (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Under-titurated amalgalm looks like?

A

Dry, crumbly, sets too quikly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Etching dentin&raquo_space;

A

exposes layer of collagen, widens dent tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Amalgam capsule has __

A

alloy powder and liquid Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

External Walls of cavity prep are?

A

Buccal/Facial
Lingual
Distal
Gingival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Tituration ___

A

mixes amalgalm components- where the alloy particle is coated with Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The key to adhesive dentistry =

A

micromechanical bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

4th Gen bonding system contiains

A

Etch
prime
bond/adhesive
3 steps each in own contains ( ex opti bond)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

5th Gen bonding sys contains

A

Etch
prime+adhesive (in one)
2 step ( ex: Universal optibond plue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

RMGI cement is used as a __

A

base

Vitrebond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

If the extn of a prep is _______ the dist from the _______ to the _______, consider capping the tooth

A

more than 1/2
primary groove (to the)
cusp tip

Resistance form ***

** if from MOD to onlay your matin Resistance Form [RQ}***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

CaOH is used as a

A

liner ( Dycal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

______ is to improve access and visibility

A

convenience form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Best bur for amalgam prep

A

carbide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is GLUMA and how does it work?

A

5% gluteraldehyde ; 35% HEMA ( Hydroxyethyl methacrylate) water

occludes dentil tubules by cross-linking tubular proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Why acid etch ?

A

remove smear layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

6th GEN bonding syst

A
  1. Acid Ethc + Primer
  2. Adhesive
    ex: Clear SE
    * less post-op sensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Self-etch bond systems disadv

A
  • leave behind smear layer ( use carbide for less)
  • Enamel bond not a strong
  • Need to be refrigerated
  • No rinse

ADV: less post- op sensitivty b/c smear layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Class V prep walls for an amalgam should have ___ walls

A

Divergent ( d/t enamel rods needing to be supported)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

7th gen bonding syst

A

all in one

ex L-pop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

______ is the ratio of bond to unbond surfaces

A

C-factor

Class is INVERSELY proportional to C-factor
Class 1 = 5:1 (5) most shrinkage/microleakage/sens
Class 5 = 1:5 (0.2) least shrinkage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Best bur for composite

A

Diamond ( coarse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

It is called a ____ when a feather-edge margin is used in a gold onlay

A

Skirt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

_____is beveled shoulder around capped cusp for bracing in a gold only

A

collar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Amalgalm prep resistance form

A

90 degree cavosurface margin
90 degree amalgalm margin
1.5-2mm depth thickness of amalgam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Amalgalm prep retention form

A

occlusal CONvergance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

___ and _____ for resistance and rentention form when doing a gold onlay prep

A

Collar and skirt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Reasons why an amalgam marginal ridge would fx?

A
  1. Axiopulpal line angle not rounded
  2. Ridge too high
  3. occusal embrasure form incorrect
  4. Improper removal of matrix band
  5. Too much carving ( need 1.5-2mm depth)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Self-Cure Comp is _____1_____ with _____2___ as the initiator and ______3_____ as the activator.

A
  1. Two-paste syst
  2. Benzoyl Peroxide (Pimple)
  3. Tertiary Amine ( Activ)
92
Q

Composite Resin components (3)

A
  1. Resin Matrix ( Bis- GMA can mimic effects of estrogen) negligible)
  2. Filler Particle ( Silica - Radiopauqe[barium] - affect properties)
  3. Coupling agent (Silane- promotes adhesion b/w resin & filler (tooth)- binds the inorg/org mat. with hydrogen and covalent bonds)
93
Q

______ the c-factor means more chance for shrinkage, microleakage, and post-op sensitvity

A

HIGHER

94
Q

What are the 3 forms of Hg?

A
  1. Methylmercury = most toxic
  2. Elemental = liquid metallic, in dental amalgalm
  3. Mercury Salts = inorganic
95
Q

Glass Ionomer components

A 
Acid = Polyacrylic acid
Base = FLuoroalumnisilicate glass
96
Q

Glass Ionomer ADV: (3)

A
  1. FLouride Release
  2. Self -adhesion to tooth
  3. rely on chemical bond (vs micromech in comp)

DISADV: Weaker ; longer setting with less setting contrl

97
Q

______ is the prevention of displacement of restorative material

A

Retention form

98
Q

???

A

GI ( Salt-matrix) >
RMGI &raquo_space;
Compomer aka Polyaicd modified comp resin&raquo_space;>
Resin Composite ( resin -matrix)

99
Q

S/s of Mercury Tox

A
  1. Hypotonia ( muscle weakness)
  2. Alopecia ( loss of hair)
  3. Weight loss/ GI disturbance
  4. Exhaustion
100
Q

Most toxic form of mercury?

A

Methylmercury

101
Q

RMGI sets by :

A

Both acid base ( GI ) AND Free- radical addition polymerization ( comp) PLUS fluoride release ; stronger than GI

102
Q

_____________ is the prevention of tooth or restoration fx from occlusal forces

A

Resisitance form

103
Q

Light-Cure Comp is _____1_____ with _____2___ as the photoinitiator .

A
  1. Single Paste syst
  2. CamPHOrquinone is PHOtointiactor
  • when you CAMP you take PHOTOs*
  • Blue visable light @ 468nm light needed to polymerize
104
Q

Convergent walls, dovetail, and micro-mechanical bonding are aspect of ______ in regards to a cavity prep?

A

Retention Form

105
Q

Macrofill / conventional composite has

A

80% filler ;
Particle size is 8 microns ( makes it strong)
- rough and wear inc roughness over time

106
Q

Microfill composite has

A

40% filler ;
0.04 microns ( weak) Particle size

  • but better polish / wear resistance ; inc flexure (good for brusixm)
  • class V

Microfill composites are considered an appropriate choice for restoring class V cervical lesions or defects in which cervical flexure can be significant. This is true for cases of bruxism, clenching, and stressful occlusion. Their low modulus of elasticity allows them to flex during tooth flexure, better protecting the bonding interface.

Microfill composites also provide a smooth and polished surface in the finished restoration that is less receptive to plaque.

107
Q

Hybridofill composite has

A

80% filler ;
1 micron particle size
Both strong good wear -

108
Q

Nanoofill composite has

A

0.005-0.01 microns partic size

109
Q

When comparing composite types the ___1_____ have more strength while the ______2________ have lower water absorption

A
  1. larger fillers have more strength ( dnt polish or wear well)
  2. High filler % ( less room for water to seep in)
110
Q

Compomers ( polyacrylic modified resin comp) is an:

A

Annhydrous paste that contains major components of both comp resin and GI ( excpet for H2O) ; slower polymerizationn plus F+ release

  • ORTHO*
111
Q

______ refers to the lightness or darkness of a certain area or color.

A

Value ( black - gray - white)

Measured on the vertical axis of a Munsell color schematic

112
Q

T/F. Amalgam does NOT bond directly to the tooth structure.

A

TRUE.

Mechanical features, such as convergence of cavity walls, adequate preparation depth, grooves, and slots, are incorporated in cavity preparations to retain amalgam fillings.

113
Q

RDT (remaining dent thick) of greater than 1.5 mm you would place __?

A

GI cement can be used as cavity liner

114
Q

________ refers to the angle of lighting or type of light source that make colors appear as the same or different.

A

Metamerism

115
Q

The distance traveled by light into tooth structure before it is reflected back outward is known as its _____-

A

Degree of translucency

116
Q

The composite-resin restorative material is ___1___ bonded to the adhesive resin through polymerization through ____2_____ bonds

A
  1. chemically

2. methyl methacrylate (MMA)

117
Q

The use of cavity liners should be limited to

A

those areas of the preparation where there is a possibility of a minute pulpal exposure.

118
Q

______ teeth are most commonly affected in baby-bottle caries because of bottle positioning.

A

Maxillary anterior

119
Q

Compared to RMGICs, resin composites are:

A

Stronger
More color stable
More wear-resistant

RMGI leak F+

120
Q

A pH of ____1___ is called the ____2____ because any further drop in pH results in the demineralization of ___3___.

A
  1. 5.5
  2. “critical pH”
  3. enamel
121
Q

________ is the degree of the ability of light to pass through.

A

Penetrance

122
Q

Bacterial plaque is made up of ______

A

organic components and non-organic components (minerals).

123
Q

Organic components of Bacterial plaque include (4):

A

Polysaccharides
Glycoproteins
Proteins
Lipids

124
Q

Where should you place a cavity liner ?

A
  1. Areas where carious tissue is left in the prep
  2. Areas of prep where there is a possibility of a minute pulpal exposure
    * Application of cavity liners along the entire wall will reduce the retention or bonding of restorative material.
125
Q

Value

A

Value refers to the lightness or darkness of a certain area or color.

126
Q

Non-organic components of bacterial plaque are?

A

are the mineral components that include the following:

    Ca2+
    Na+
    K+
    P-3
    F-
127
Q

Esthetics Facts:

A

Rounding the incisal point angles of maxillary incisors removes the sharp angles that make the teeth appear worn down and abraded.

Shortening and flattening of incisal edges makes a person appear older, because it also insinuates abrasion of teeth due to old age.

128
Q

_____ refers to the color itself and its distinctive shades.

A

Hue ( red yellow blue)

measured by degrees in a circle and is considered the actual color - wavelength of visible light

129
Q

criterion when determining the effectiveness of a visible light-curing unit are:

A
  1. Shade of the composite [affects penetration of light ]
  2. Wavelength [470 nm.]
  3. Light exposure time [ not short, not long]
    * * NOT F+ release capacity*
130
Q

Strong ___1____ forces and large condensers should be used to properly condense which type of amalgam alloy 2?

A
  1. lateral
  2. spherical

Spherical vs Admixed amalgam
Spherical= high compressive strength req. strong lateral condensation forces to ensure proper adaptation to the cavity preparation.
Has large particle composition, necessitating good condensation to minimize the gap between the cavity prep and the amalgam.

131
Q

The snowplow technique employs

A

the use of flowable composites in conjunction with the posterior composite restorations.

132
Q

_____________ is where the low viscosity resins micro-mechanically interlock with dentinal collagen.

A

The hybrid layer, or hybrid zone,

133
Q

RDT ( remain dent thick) of 0.5 mm or less you would place __?

A

CaOH as a liner then GI on top

134
Q

choice of cavity-lining material depends upon

A

the remaining dentin thickness.

remaining dentin thickness is greater than 1.5 mm, glass ionomer cement can be used as cavity liner but for a remaining thickness of 0.5 mm or less, calcium hydroxide should be used, then glass ionomer should be placed.

135
Q

The four main characteristics or determinants of proximal grooves are

A

position, translation, occlusogingival orientation, and depth.

Depth refers to the extent of translation, such as the direction of the movement of axis of the bur.

136
Q

Removal of smear layer has these 4 consequences:

A
  1. Increases wetness of dentin
  2. Increases bond strength
  3. Makes microleakage more significant because barrier of bacteria to pulp is removed
  4. Increases fluid flow onto the exposed dentin surface
137
Q

cavity liners protects the endangered pulp from

A

thermal, chemical, electrical, and mechanical trauma.

138
Q

Dentin provides _____(3)______ to above-lying dental enamel.

A

chroma, opaqueness, and fluorescence

139
Q

_______ removes the smear layer and hydroxyapatite within the intertubular dentin, in addition to exposing the collagen fibers.

A

Etching

Acid-etching is thought to remove the smear layer and creates a microporous enamel layer on which resin tags are formed by adhesive resins.

140
Q

carving of amalgam should include

A
  1. ridge should be carved very nearly to the height of the adjacent marginal ridge.
  2. Sharp instruments
  3. Carving strokes should always start on tooth and proceed to amalg-enamel jxn
141
Q

Bleaching agents like hydrogen peroxide and carbamide peroxide act on

A

both the dentin and enamel.

142
Q

Bond strength relies upon the formation of _____ in enamel.

A

resin tags

143
Q

Rampant caries control protocols suggest

A

that caries should be removed, and glass ionomer cement restorations should be placed until the true pulp status can be assessed.

144
Q

Fluoride is incorporated into enamel during the __________ stage of tooth development.

A

calcification/mineralization

Fluoride ions can replace the hydroxyl ions during the calcification stage of tooth development, which results in a structure that is more compact and resistant to caries.

145
Q

___________ is the primary means of retention for pit and fissure sealants.

A

Micro-mechanical retention

146
Q

Continuous exposure to visible light used for curing the composite can cause serious damage to the

A

Retina

Prolonged visible light exposure can lead to photoreceptor cell damage.

147
Q

When the remaining dentin thickness _____1_____, glass ionomer cement can be used as cavity liner but for a remaining thickness of ____2______, calcium hydroxide should be used, then glass ionomer should be placed.

A
  1. is greater than 1.5 mm

2. 0.5 mm or less

148
Q

bacterial species is considered an early colonizer of supragingival plaque?

A

Streptococcus sanguinis

149
Q

The formation of dental plaque consists of three distinct stages:

A
  1. Formation of pellicle on the tooth surface
  2. Initial colonization by bacteria
  3. Secondary colonization with plaque maturation

Within a few seconds after cleaning the teeth, a thin layer called pellicle is formed on the tooth surface by the saliva, which is then colonized by bacteria within a few hours.

The initial colonizing bacteria are collectively known as supragingival plaque and predominantly consists of Gram-positive facultative microorganisms (Actinomyces viscosus, Streptococcus sanguinis).

150
Q

It is very important to consider ________ when restoring damaged incisal edges of maxillary incisors.

A

morphology and translucency

151
Q

________ is the intensity of any particular hue or color.

A

Chroma (saturation)

The chroma is measured radially outward from the neutral vertical axis [value] and is considered the purity of the color ( light blue to Bright blue); horizontal

152
Q

_________ is the emission of light by a substance that has absorbed light or other electromagnetic radiation.

A

Fluorescence

153
Q

The caries process occurs when

A

bacterial acid demineralization exceeds the remineralization by salivary components.

154
Q

Retention features for class V alloy restorations are typically placed on

A

Incisal/occlusal and gingival walls

155
Q

The thickness of enamel in the _____1____ surface is greater than that of the _____2____ surface.

A
  1. incisal

2. facial

156
Q

The rubber dam should be punched_____ to the designated tooth for class V restorations

A

1 mm facial

enables the rubber dam to completely cover the area to be isolated and making subgingival placement easier if needed

157
Q

The first increment in a class II restoration must be ____ thick if the snowplow technique is not used. The first increment is placed on the gingival floor of the restoration.

A

1-mm

158
Q

________ describes the absorption and scattering of radiation in a medium.

A

Opaqueness

159
Q

The maximum depth of resin that can be properly cured per layer is approximately ________.

A

2 mm

If the composite thickness exceeds 2 mm, inadequate curing occurs. This phenomenon is especially seen with darker shade composites. Filler particles and coloring agents tend to scatter or absorb the curing light within 1–2 mm of the material.

( the first layer in slopt prep = 1mm)

160
Q

The initial colonizing bacteria are collectively known as supragingival plaque and predominantly consists of _________.

A

Gram-positive facultative microorganisms (Actinomyces viscosus, Streptococcus sanguinis).

161
Q

Primer use is intended to provide two main functions in dentin bonding:

A
  1. Infiltrate and remove water from enamel prisms, dentin tubules, and exposed collagen network
  2. Form hybrid layer because it is made of solvents and bi-functional/amphiphilic penetrating monomers
162
Q

DISADV of microfilled composites include the following:

4

A
  1. Increased thermal expansion
  2. Decreased tensile strength ( small partc size)
  3. Increased water absorption ( less filler)
  4. Increased polymerization shrinkage (

40% filler ; 0.04 microns ( weak) Particle size

  • but better polish / wear resistance ; inc flexure (good for brusixm)
163
Q

________ penetrate the collagen network and allow the adhesive resins to form microtags within the intertubular dentin.

A

Primers

164
Q

Indications of composite restorations are:

A

Small- and moderate-sized restorations
Conservative tooth preparations
Areas where esthetics is important

165
Q

___1__ phase is the major matrix phase in set amalgam, has good __2____ and ___3____ resistance.

A

1 . γ-1

  1. strength
  2. corrosion
166
Q

how deep retention grooves must be to resist explorer-tip displacement?

A

0.5mm

Retention grooves are the secondary retention features of a preparation. They are positioned 0.2 mm inside the DEJ, maintaining the enamel support. They are recommended in tooth preparations with extensive proximal boxes in order to enhance retention form and counter proximal displacement. They must be deep enough to resist explorer-tip displacement. Ideally, grooves are 0.5 mm deep.

167
Q

indications for the placement of a base

A
  1. Prevention of other dental materials from irritating the pulp
  2. Replacement of missing tooth structure
  3. Thermal protection for the pulp

Bases replace missing tooth structure and support the final restoration.

  • insulate the pulp from drastic temperature changes experienced by the restoration.
  • provide structure to condense against when placing amalgam.
  • protect the pulp from agents that may irritate it.
168
Q

_________ is the material’s ability to resist deformation under load.

A

Flexural strength

169
Q

T/F/ The illusion of decreased width can be achieved with horizontal highlights.

A

FALSE. increased width can be achieved with horizontal highlights.

170
Q

Which composite resin constituent provides the most radiopacity?

A

Barium ( filler)

171
Q

_______ teeth creates microporosities that adhesives can infiltrate to create retention for composite-resin bonding.

A

Acid etching

172
Q

Define Hardness.

A

Hardness is a measure of how resistant solid matter is to various kinds of permanent shape change when a force is applied.

173
Q

T/F. Conventional glass ionomers contain water soluble polymerizable resin

A

FALSE.

Conventional glass ionomers contain water soluble polyacids and basic ion-leachable glass in their composition.

RMGI’s were formulated by adding a water soluble polymerizable resin such as 2-HEMA in the acidic cement liquid.

174
Q

_______ corrodes the carbon steel and anneals the cutting edge of the bur.

A

Heat sterilization

175
Q

advantageous properties of zinc oxide-eugenol cement?

A
  1. It provides an excellent marginal seal.
  2. It has a soothing effect on dental pulp.
  3. It can be easily removed from cavity preparations.
176
Q

_______ is the tendency of solid materials to return to their original shape after being deformed.

A

Elasticity

177
Q

disadvantages of amalgam restorations (3)

A

Does not bond to tooth structure on its own
Esthetics
Brittleness

178
Q

Composite resins are classified as ___(3)______ based on their viscosities.

A

flowable, condensable, and packable,

  • flowable = low viscosity (20-25% lower then normal resin)
  • flowable d/t inc resin)
  • Inc Filler % INC viscosity
179
Q

_______ is the infolding of the outer surface of the tooth and must be diagnosed radiographically.

A

Dens in dente aka Dens invaginatus.

It occurs most often in maxillary lateral incisors, and bilateral occurrence is not uncommon.

180
Q

______ of the resin composites measures the material’s ability to resist the propagation of a crack.

A

Fracture toughness

Fracture toughness is a quantitative way of expressing a material’s resistance to brittle fracture when a crack is present.

Brittle fracture is very characteristic of materials with low fracture toughness.

181
Q

Placement of ______ ________into the cavity prep often allows the amalgam to set before it is adapted and properly condensed into the floor and walls of the cavity, resulting in voids in the restoration and an open gingival margin.

A

excessive amalgam

182
Q

T/F. The illusion of increased length can be achieved with vertical highlights.

A

True.

183
Q

T/F. Surfaces smoother than usual give the impression of a larger size.

A

TRUE.

Whenever restorations are finished with unusually smooth surfaces, they give the impression of larger size and vice versa. Teeth appear larger than their actual size when the value is increased.

184
Q

T/F. Conventional glass ionomers use free radical polymerization to cure

A

FALSE.

Conventional glass ionomer cements undergo a chemical self-setting acid-base reaction created by mixing an ion-leachable fluoroaluminosilicate glass powder with an aqueous polyacrylic or polcarboxylic acid.

185
Q

The radiant exposure for a curing light producing 1,000 mW of power with a spot size of 2 cm² and an exposure time of 40 seconds is

A

20,000 mJ/cm².

(1,000 mW × 40 s) ÷ 2 cm² = 20,000 mJ/cm²

186
Q

_______ roughens the exposed enamel rods and dentin, thus creating micromechanical abrasions that allow the bonding agent to flow and adhere to the tooth surface.

A

Acid etching

187
Q

_____ removes surface debris, allowing for a clean bonding site.

A

Acid Etching

188
Q

T/F. Conventional glass ionomers contain basic ion-leachable glass

A

TRUE

189
Q

________(2)______ deposition can result from aging or mild irritation such as abrasion, attrition, and occlusal stress.

A

Sclerotic dentin

Sclerotic dentin is harder, denser, less sensitive, and more protective of the dental pulp.

190
Q

The setting reaction of self-cure, chemical cure, or auto-curing sealants is __________ in nature.

A

exothermic

A significant amount of heat energy is liberated. It is advised to use light-curing sealants for safety, good manipulation, and ease of handling.

191
Q

_______ creates higher bond strength between composite restoration and tooth structure while also decreasing micro leakage.

A

Acid etching

192
Q

Amalgam alloy typyes ( 2)

A 
Low-CU (<12% ; Y, Y1, Y2) and 
High CU (>12%+ ; Y,Y1 - less corrosion and creep)

If a low-copper, zinc-containing alloy is moisture-contaminated, it will result in surface blistering, internal corrosion, and a delayed expansion of up to 4% by volume beginning 3 to 5 days after the contamination and continuing for up to 6 months, which can lead to creep and a reduction in strength of up to 24%.

Addition of zinc to an amalgam reduces the negative effects of delayed expansion.

193
Q

trituration does what?

A

removes the oxide coating and wets each particle of alloy with mercury. Properly triturated amalgam is a homogenous mass with a slightly reflective surface. It flattens slightly if dropped on a tabletop.

194
Q

Enamel cavosurface angles of _____ are ideal.

A

90–100°

Such angles conserve dentinal support and restoration strength, helping the restoration withstand the forces of mastication without fracture.

195
Q

Retentive bevels are typically found around the margins of a ______ restoration.

A

class V

196
Q

______ ______ ( 2) is a condition in which a combination of small white, brown, and yellow spots are seen all over the surfaces of the teeth.

A

Mottled enamel

tx: Microabrasion with hydrochloric acid (HCl)/pumice

197
Q

_________ is the term for the enamel bevel placed on the facial side of a class IV preparation

A

Esthetic bevel

Esthetic bevels are typically placed at 60°.This bevel is placed to remove or mask the line of demarcation between the restorative material and the tooth structure

Placement of an esthetic bevel also makes the restoration conservative, increases the resin bond strength, and decreases the chances of fracture.

198
Q

DMFS” stands for which of the following?

A 
Caries prevalence can be recorded as “DMFT” or “DMFS” as follows:
Decayed
Missing
Filled
Surfaces
Teeth
199
Q

Most important in shade selection

A

Value

200
Q

Which (chroma, value, hue) depends on wavelength

A

Hue

“Hue rides the wave”

201
Q

Indirect restoration vs direct resotration

A

indirect = anything made by lab ( inlay,onlay, crown ect)

direct = comp amalgam

202
Q

Three parts of the hand instrument

A

Blade, Shank, Handle

203
Q

The ____1_____ method was developed called _____2____. It is caries ___3__ by the application of a gel to the tooth which selectively softens the carious dentin, thus facilitating removal of this tissue. This minimizes pain and should not affect healthy tissue.

A
  1. chemomechanical
  2. Carisolv (Medi Team)
  3. removal
204
Q

Enamel comprised of __1__ with a __2___ surface energy while dentin is comprised of _3__ with a _4__ surface energy.

A
  1. Hydroxapetite
  2. High surface E
  3. Hydroaptetit AND COLLAGEN
  4. Low surface E
205
Q

A triangular reamer with 60 degree cutting edges would require ______ degrees of rotation for one reaming motion arc.

A

The motion of reaming involves rotating an instrument clockwise, in an arc that goes from one cutting edge to the next. A triangular reamer having three 60 degree cutting edges would, therefore, require 120 degrees of rotation in order for one arc.

206
Q

low-copper amalgam alloys:

A

Low-copper amalgams form a tin-mercury (γ2) phase, which is highly susceptible to corrosion. Because of this, high-copper alloys have been developed and are now the primary amalgam type in use. Low-copper amalgams used to be more prominent in the first half of the 20th century.

207
Q

Resin-modified glass ionomer (RMGI) has greater ___________ than glass ionomer (GI)

A

flexural strength

208
Q

_____ are undifferentiated mesenchymal cells that form the dental pulp.

A

Fibroblasts

209
Q

_______ form the primary, secondary, and tertiary layers of dentin.

A

Odontoblasts

210
Q

_____- form the highly calcified dental enamel.

A

Ameloblasts

211
Q

______ is a protein that forms the organic matrix of mature tooth enamel.

A

Enamelin

212
Q

Injury resulting in tissue changes from excessive occlusal forces applied to a tooth or teeth that have normal, health supporting periodontium = ______?

A

Primary occlusal trauma

213
Q

Secondary occlusal trauma is an injury resulting in tissue changes from normal or excessive occlusal forces that are applied to ___________.

A

a tooth or teeth with reduced support

The main characteristics of this type of trauma are the presence of bone loss, attachment loss, and normal OR excessive occlusal forces.

214
Q

Two types of dental amalgam

A

Admized and Spherical

Admixed (mix of irreg/sphere, more condensation force, Better prox contact)

Speherical ( microsphere, easy to condense, Stronger, sets faster)

215
Q 
In dental amalgam what does the alloys contribute?
Sliver=
Tin= 
Copper
Zinc =
A 
Silver = strength
Tin = corrosion
Copper = strength
Zinc = deoxidizer [of other alloys] but excess expansion if moisture contaminated
216
Q

In the four observed zones of a sectioned incipient lesion, the deepest zone is?

A

Translucent

  1. Dark zone- the light is blocked by the many small pores, which are too small to absorb quinoline solution. These smaller vapor-filled pores make the region appear opaque.
  2. Body of the lesion- the largest portion of the incipient lesion during the demineralizing phase.
  3. Translucent zone- the deepest and advancing zone of the enamel lesion.
  4. Suface zone- the area unaffected by the caries process. It has a lower pore size than the body of the lesion and radiopacity when compared to unaffected enamel.
217
Q

T/F. GI chemically bonds to not only enamel and dentin but also cementum.

A

TRUE.

This is particularly helpful for subgingival restorations

218
Q

Benefits of using amalgam with smaller particle size?

A
  • Smoother surface
  • Increased working time - sets slower
  • Stronger restoration

CONS:
- Rougher surface

  • larger particle size = weaker
219
Q

GI is in fact made from the reaction of _____1_____ with ___2____.

A
  1. silicate glass

2. polyacrylic acid

220
Q

Whats wrong with the amalgam if it is shiny and smooth

A

Nothing - normal

221
Q

Amalgam phases
Y =
Y1=
Y2 =

A 
Y = unreacted silver-tin
Y1 = strong silver-mercury matrix *HIGHEST STRENGTH*
Y2 = weak tin-mercury * corrosing/creep/weakest*

Y1 = corrosion resistance

222
Q

_____is an aqueous or volatile organic suspension of zinc oxide or calcium hydroxide (Dycal) that can be used on the cavity surface.

A

A cavity liner

223
Q

Whats wrong with the amalgam if it is warm, wet, soft, sets too quickly

A

OVER-titiurated

224
Q

is a material which occludes the dentinal tubules and provides a protective barrier for the freshly cut tooth structure of the prepared cavity.

A

Sealer (cavity sealer)

225
Q

Base (cavity base)

A

________, usually cement, is used to protect a prepared cavity before the insertion of a permanent restoration. It is used to protect the pulp tissue and replace any dentin removed.

226
Q

The ART technique is the ____1______, which only uses ________ to excavate carious lesions.

A
  1. Atraumatic Restorative Treatment

2. hand instruments

227
Q

T/F. Older Amalgalm alloys had low amounts of copper <12%.

A

TRUE.
THis type has Y, Y1, Y2

Newer = ~20% Copper = Y, Y1 = less corrosion/creep

NBDE 2 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions