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NBDE 2 > OMFP > Flashcards

OMFP Flashcards

1
Q

Stochastic effect of radiation?

A

Leukemia

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2
Q

Strawberry tongue

A

Scarlett fever
Caused by Group A, β-hemolytic Streptococci- attack blood vessels and produce skin rash
Fungiform papillae become erythematous- “White strawberry tongue” first two days “Red strawberry tongue” fourth to fifth day

tx: Antibiotics (Penicillin V or Amoxicillin)

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3
Q

Fodyce Granules what gland is affected?

A

Sebbaceous gland

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4
Q

Port wine stain

A

Sterg- Webber
port wine = nevus flammeus

congenital skin/nerve dz ; can have seizures

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5
Q

Condyloma accuminatum is ass with ?

A

HPV 6, 11

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6
Q

Heck’s Diseases?

A

HPV 13, 32

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7
Q

ghost teeth

A

regional odotodysplasia

all the ghost in this region have teeth

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8
Q

Most common benign salivary tumor

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

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9
Q

Nickolski’s sign

A

Pemphigus

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10
Q

Best imaging for the maxillary sinus

A

A water’s View aka occipitomental view

** comes up alot**

Waters’ view (also known as the Occipitomental view) is a radiographic view, where an X-ray beam is angled at 45° to the orbitomeatal line. The rays pass from behind the head and are perpendicular to the radiographic plate. It is commonly used to get a better view of the maxillary sinuses. Another variation of the waters according to Merrill’s Atlas of Radiographic Positioning and Procedures places the orbitomeatal line at a 37° angle to the image receptor.

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11
Q

Best imaging for the facial fx

A

CBCT

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12
Q

Blue sclera

A

Dentinogenisis Imperfecta

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13
Q

HPV 13, 32

A

Heck’s Dz

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14
Q

Mucus plug on floor of mouth and can be blue/purple

A

Ranula

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15
Q

Cafe au late spots + Neurfibromatosis

A

Von reckenhousin’s dz

lich nodules on iris
supernumery teeth

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16
Q

Ground glass

A

Fibrous dysplasia

“You have to grind the glass to make the fibrer of the display windows”

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17
Q

What would you see Gardner’s

A

Intestinal polyps and

multp osteomas

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18
Q

Cotton wool

A

Pagets Dz = inc in alkaline phosphate but norm Ph/Ca ; bones become dense but fragile ; inc incidence for malignancy - can lead to osteosarcoma
AKA OSTEITIS DEFORMANS
seen in older pts ( denture stops fitting)
Paget wears cotton and wool barets

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19
Q

Punched Out

A

Multiple Myeloma

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20
Q

Sunburst

A

Osteosarcoma

most common primary malignant tumor of young ppl

Teens with bone ca use clerasil sunburst face wash

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21
Q

Honeycomb or soap bubble + giant cell

A

Odontogenic myxoma

tx: sx xcisn b/w inner materiel jelly

Myx the soap with water to get bubbles and eat honey in the bath.

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22
Q

Most common malignant major salivary gland tumor

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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23
Q

Kpolick Spots

A

Rubeolla

Measles

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24
Q

Hunter syndrome and Hurler’s Synd is when?

A

glycoaminoglycans (GAGs) build up and

mucoployscaarides ?????

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25
Q

Verrucous carcinoma has which HPVs

A

HPV 16, 18

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26
Q

most common primary malignant tumor of young ppl

A

Osteosarcoma

sunburst

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27
Q

Most common epithelial odontogenic tumor

A

Ameloblastoma

local invasion?

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28
Q

Doughy consistency

A

Dermoid cyst

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29
Q

obliterated pulp and short roots

A

Dentin dysplasia

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30
Q

Bilateral jaw expansion

A

Cherbusim

no tx

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31
Q

HPV 6, 11

HPV 16, 18

HPV 13, 32

A

condoloma accumlatum

Verroucous

Heck’s

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32
Q

Pleomorphic Adenoma

A

Most common benign salivary tumor

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33
Q

Cleft lip is the lack of fusion b/w?

A

Medial Nasal process and maxillary proces

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34
Q

congenital focal proliferation of capillaries

A

Hemangioma

most involute but persistn = xcised

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35
Q

Cleft palate is the lack of

A

fusion b/w palatal shelves

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36
Q

components of Melkerson-Rosenthal syn

A
  1. fissured tounge
  2. granulomatous chelitis
  3. facial paralysis

Mel fell face first in ROse bush and busted her lip and split her toungue

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37
Q

Occurrence of cleft lip/cleft palate

A

1/700 ; boys > girls 3:2

CL/CP =boys ; CP only = girls
In whites CL 1:1000 ; CP 1:2000

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38
Q

congenital focal proliferation of lymph vsl

A

lymphangioma

oral lymphangiomas are very rare - purple spots on tongue

cystic hygroma = neck

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39
Q

angiomas of _____1____ and skin along the dirstrubtion of the trigeminal nerve is part of _______2___ condition?

A
  1. leptomeninges (arachoniod and pia )

2. STURGE- webber

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40
Q

Mass in the midline floor of the mouth of doughy consistncy

A

Dermoid cyst
if above mylohyoid - floor of mouth
if below = neck

can contain adexnal stx ( hair/sebecaous glands)

  • Raunla will NOT be midline - dermoid cyst = MIDLINE*
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41
Q

Radioluceny in posterior mandible below mandibular canal

A

Stafne Bone Defect
due to lingual concavity of the jaw - anatomy variation 10-30mm
- is not pathologic
-pseudocyst b/c no fluid / epithelial lining.

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42
Q

Lateral to midline purlple Mucocele tx with marsupulization

A

Ranula

Marsupialization(exterirorization) entails removal of the roof of the intraoral lesion, potentially allowing the sublingual gland ducts to reestablish communication with the oral cavity. However, this procedure is often unsuccessful, and most authors emphasize that removal of the offending gland is the most important consideration in preventing a recurrence of the ranula. If the gland is removed, meticulous dissection of the lining of the lesion may not be necessary for the lesion tends to resolve, even for the plunging ranula.

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43
Q

__% of ppl ahve herpes in uS

A

80-85%

60-90% ww

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44
Q

Red, ulcerated, bleeds easily lesion; usually on vermilion

A

Pyogenic granuloma - inc freq in preg

reactive proliferation of capillary blood vessels. It presents as a shiny red lump with a raspberry-like or minced meat-like surface. Although they are benign, pyogenic granulomas can cause discomfort and profuse bleeding.

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45
Q

Fistula from nonvital tooth

A

Parulis:

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46
Q

Most common in mandibular bicuspid-cuspid region; may be blue

A

Gingival cyst of the adult

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47
Q

Shingles + Bells aplsy

A

Rasmy- hunts

Tx of SV = acyclovir

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48
Q

Herpes in kids

A

Acute herpetic gingivostomatits
s/s fever w/ vesicles

[1-5 yrs google]

The best tx: inc liquid intake, gentle debridement of the mouth, and sustained good oral hygiene. self limit (10-14d)

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49
Q 
HSV1  = 
HSV 2 =
HSV 3 = 
HSV 4 = 
HSV 5 =
HSV 8 =
A

1 oral ( fever, HA, malise, gingivits-no necrosis)
2 genital
3 Chicken pox VZV shingles
4 EBV ( infec mono ;kiss; lymphaden; NUG peticha on pal)
5 Cytomeglavirus
8 = kaposi sarcoma

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50
Q

Drug to treat HSVs

A

1,2,3,4 = Acyclovir ( 1 also palliative)
5 CMV = ganciclovir or valancyclovir

recurrent hsv infx = docosanol ( abreva) OR acyclovir
Vlatrex

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51
Q

Edentulous mandible in mental foramen area; often painful to palpation firm

A

Traumatic neuroma

Denture can be cause

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52
Q

white or pink cauliflower peduculated lesion on palate

A

Papilloma
HPV

Can be white or pink; most common on soft palate and tongue; usually pedunculated

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53
Q

Globulomaxillary Lesion is ___-

A

any readioluceny b/w max canine and lateral incisor
( clinical description)

tx: enucleaation

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54
Q

heart shaped radiolucency in nasopal canal

A

Nasopalatine duct cycts

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55
Q

Syphlis chancre ressembles

A

herpes lesion

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56
Q

scallops around roots lesion typically casued by trauma

A

Simple bone cyst
- benign, no epithelial lingin ( not true cyst) ; in mandible of teens
tx; aspirate to dx, monitor

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57
Q

Hyperplasia of filliform papilla

A

Hairy [black] tongue

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58
Q

nerves affected in CST

A

CN 3,4,5, 6,

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59
Q

first sign of canverous sinuts thrmobosis (CST)

A

Headache

blurred vision

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60
Q

CST mostly comes from

A

ant max, upper lip, canine infx
staph aureus, streptococcus
s/s: ptosis, dec vision, paralysis of CN, exopthalmus

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61
Q

This type of cellulits, _____, is bliateral and spreads to what spaces ?

A

Ludwigs Angina
Subling
Sub mand
sub mental

ALL EXCEPT retropharyngeral
Reg cellulits = unilateral Ludwigs = bilateral

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62
Q

complication of Ludwigs angina

A

epiglotis edema

Airway obstruction

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63
Q

s/s of ludwigs

A

raising of tongue, pain, swelling of tongue /neck/tissues in spaces, maliase fever, SEV = stridor/DOB

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64
Q

infx of mand pm/moalr goes to

A

submand space

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65
Q

PT has an infxn of Max 2M what muscel will sstop the spread of th infextion to multiple spaces?

A

Buccinator

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66
Q

Infxn of lateral pharyngeal space involves what muscle?

A

Medial pterygoid

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67
Q

EXT 2nd mand molar root can be lost in what space?

A

submandbib

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68
Q

Ext MAX 3rd , root can be lost whree?

A

max sinus

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69
Q

Treacher collins aka

A

Mandibulofacila dystosis

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70
Q

Turner tooth is assoc with?

A

Trauma or local infxn

Enamel hyposplasia ( usualy d/t traum when young effects 2nry tooth)

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71
Q

transient Ulcer that heals without scaring

A

minor apthous ulcer

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72
Q

Apthous ulcer typically effect what kind of tissue

A

non-keratinized

HSV - keratinzed only

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73
Q

pt presents in dental chair with c/o having big fluid filled vessicles that turned into multiple painful uclers after .

A

Pempigus vulgaris

  • ashkenazi jews *
  • ROunded Tzanack cells*
    tx: corticosteroids ; azothioprine ; ig therapy
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74
Q

how does acyclovir selective toxity mech of action

A

Phosphyrlated infected cells Inhibits viral mRNA so it cant make DNA ; DSNT work on DNA

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75
Q

What does histoplasmosis oral look like/resemble?

A

carcinoma

Oral lesions present as a painful solitary ulceration of tongue, palate

Most common systemic fungal infection in United States
Seen in the Ohio-Mississippi River Valley; Spores inhaled from bird or bat droppings

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76
Q

kaposis sarcoma most likely to appear on

A

hard pallate

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77
Q

Post herpetic neuralgia is caused by?

A

VSV - herpes zoster

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78
Q

Mutation of the 5q32 gene

A

mandibulofacial dystosis

malformed ears, mand hypolasia, midfacial dvlpmntl def

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79
Q

Pathologist sees pt with dz where autoantibodies attacked pt’s desmisomes*; smear show a positive Nickolsy’s sign

A

Pemphigus vulgaris
tx: corticosteriods

nicks - blow air on tissue and it peels off

Nick gets vulgur when he hangs out with pem and desi

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80
Q

S/s of mandibulofacial dystosis

A
  • Mand hypoplasia
  • zygoma hypolasia
  • malformed ear*
  • malformed eyelids - downwars slanting eyes
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81
Q

BEchet’s dz =

A

multisystem vasculitis that causes apthous-type of ulcers of gential and oral and inflammation of the eye

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82
Q

Sutton’s aka

A

Major apthous ulcer ( scarring)

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83
Q

transient Ulcer that heals with scaring

A

Major apthous ulcer aka Suttons

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84
Q

pt presents with is a hereditary skeletal condition- having partly missing or missing clavicles. and unerupted and supernumerary teeth of permanent dentition.

A

Cleidocranial Dysplasia

Individuals with this condition will also have an abnormally increased distance between the eyes as well as bulging foreheads. However, the hypoplastic or aplastic clavicles are usually the main sign of a person having cleidocranial dysplasia and it will make the neck and shoulders look longer and narrower than it really does

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85
Q

PT presents with malformed ears, downward slanting eyes mandibular hypoplasia

A

mandibulofacial dystosis aka treacher collins

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86
Q

______is an autoimmune disorder that causes hyperthyroidism, or overactive thyroid.

A

Graves’ disease

With this disease, your immune system attacks the thyroid and causes it to make more thyroid hormone than the body needs.

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87
Q

PT present wiht Erythematous mucosal patches Hemorrhagic crusts of lips all of a sudden, dx?

A

erythema multiforme

Entire perimeter of tongue may be affected
Targetoid ( bull’s eye) * cutaneous lesions

Males, 20-40 , most cases secondary to HSV or mycoplasma pnuemonia

Tx: steriods ( sys/top)

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88
Q

Burkitts lymphoma assoc with what virus?

A

EBV virus

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89
Q

yellow spots on buccal mucosa?

A

Fordyce granulers

ectopic sebaceous glands*

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90
Q

ulcers of genital and oral

inflammation of the eye

A

Bechets

tx: corticosteroids

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91
Q

Allergic rxn to inhaled antigen

A

Wegner;’s granulomatosis

Strwberry gingiva
tx: prednisone + cyclophosamaine

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92
Q

Angioedema allergic rxn?

A

IgE and histamine relase by mast cells d/t allergic rxn to food or drug

edema of lips neck or face

antihistmines

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93
Q

Dz where T lymphocyte target and destroy basal keratinocytes ; vacuolized basal zone

A

Lichen planus

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94
Q

EM look alike involves head and trunk drug induced

A

Steven’s Johnsons syndrome

Drug induced ( major)

Can effect genitals ( johnsons) eyes **
tx: steroids or palliatve

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95
Q

Sawtooth rete pegs

A

Lichen planus

tx: corticosteroids

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96
Q

disc like lesions on the face where oral lesions can look like whicam striae w/ red ulcerations

A

LUPUS discoid form

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97
Q

Candida forms (6)

A
  • Psuedomebranous
  • Eyrthematous
  • Angulr Chelitis
  • Hyperplastic (candial leukoplakia)
  • Central papilary atrophy (median rhombiod glossitis)
  • Denture stomatitis

burning mouth assoc w/ pseudo + erythem

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98
Q

Crowns are short & bulbous, narrow roots, obliterated pulp

A

Dentiogenesis Imperfecta

  • DI Type 1 is with osteogenic imperfecta. DI Type 2 is not with OI. DI Type 3 is the bradywine type, which occurs in absence of OI, exhibits multiple periapical radiolucency, shell-like appearance, & large pulp chambers/exposures.
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99
Q

Dentin dysplasia looks like dentinogenesis imperfect WITH ONE DIFFERENCE?

A

Dysplasia has radiolucency.

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100
Q

Condyloma acuminatum -

A

Genital warts

HPV 6,11

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101
Q

Pemphigoid like dz in kids

A

Epidermolysis BUllosa

Or Bullous pemphigoid

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102
Q

Pathologist sees pt with dz where autoantibodies attacked pt’s basement membrane*; smear show a positive Nickolsy’s sign and pt c/o trichiasis

A

Pemphigoid (benign mucous membrane pemphigoid)

Twice as common as -gus

Cicatricial type - scarring from ulcer oustide oral - no scaring w/i oral

direct immofluoresence (michels soln) shows contin liner band of IgG and C3 along bm

Nick eats subs all day and still lives in mothers basement

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103
Q

```

A

1

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104
Q

CA pt get candida d/t?

A

Chemotherapy

or radiotherapy

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105
Q

HIV pt wiht oropharyngeal candid tx?

A

Fluconazole ( aslo for vag candida) and amph B

occurs with low CD4 counts mostly- mostly pseudo/eryth/chlit forms ( immunsup)

nystatin (topical), clotrimazole (topical), ketoconazole (systemic), fluconazole (systemic), and itraconazole (systemic) AMPHOTERICIN B*

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106
Q

Fibromas are a result of what ?

A

hyperplasia

Focal Fibrous hyperplasia
usually normal in color ; can be along occlusal line

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107
Q

pt presents wiht TB like symptoms but theres no calcification of the lungs, dx?

A

BLASTOMYCOSIS

Oral lesions resemble squamous cell carcinoma-

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108
Q

white spidery/lacy straie on mucosa

A

lichen planus - reticular form ( most common)

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109
Q

Deep fungal infection seen in South or Central America, also known as South American blastomycosis ; Oral lesions have “mulberry ulcerations” of alveolar mucosa, gingiva, palate

A

PARACOCCIDIOMYCOSIS

Organisms resemble “Mickey Mouse ears” or a “ship’s steering wheel”

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110
Q

1

A

1

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111
Q

Whicken striae with ulceration

A

lichen planus - erosive form

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112
Q

Multiple organ involvement w/ butterfly rash

A

SLE - Systemic acute type
Dx w/ ANA( autoantibodies) test
tx: corticosteroids

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113
Q

Blue purple lesion on ant mandible dentist runs labs from calcium lvls and to rule out hyperparathyroidsm, dx?

A

Giant cell granuloma

70% in mand, ant
R/o hyperparathyroid
Tx: corticosteriods, calcitonin, intereron2a

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114
Q

pt presents in dental chair with restricted mouth opening and hard skin ; xrays show uniform widened PDL space, loss of ramus of mandible, Dx?

A

Scleroderma
Depostition of collagen in organs causes organ failure

tx: tx sysmtoms
Getting pain relief through nonsteroidal, anti-inflammatory medications or corticosteroids. Immunosuppressive drug, Calcium channel blocker, Steroid, and Proton-pump inhibitor

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115
Q

Mom comes in with neborn baby girl c/o pink-red, smooth-surfaced mass on the gums lateral of the baby’s midline maxilla

A

congenital epulis of newborn

rare soft tissue polypoid tumor occurring on alveolar ridge of newborn ; resembles granular cell tumor (myobalstoma)
Usually in females; especially anterior maxilla

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116
Q

Mulberry molars (Moon’s molars or Fournier)

A

congenital syphylis

S/s: Hutchinson’s Triad
1. Hutchinson teeth [ incisors, mulberry molars] , 2. Ocular interstitial keratitis 3. Eighth nerve deafness

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117
Q

Indurated (wooden) area of fibrosis; “Sulfur granules”-yellow flecks of bacterial colonies found in pus or tracts
Caused by anaerobic, gram-positive branching organism, Actinomyces israeli

A

CERVICOFACIAL ACTINOMYCOSIS

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118
Q

Found in uncontrolled insulin-dependent diabetics with ketoacidosis, bone marrow ; Branching at right angles

A

MUCORMYCOSIS

Organisms are found in bread molds or decaying fruits or vegetables

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119
Q

Perineural invasion is seen in:

A

adenoid cystic carcinoma

neurotrophic factor and perineral invasion

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120
Q

Fungal infection commonly seen in Southwestern United States and Mexico ; akak vally fever

A

COCCIDIOIDOMYCOSIS

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121
Q

“swiss cheese ” microscopic pattern

A

adenoid cystic carcinoma

High grade salivary malignancy; Palate most common;Most common malignant; spreads through perinueral spaces*****

122
Q

Most common EPITHELIAL ODONTOGENIC TUMOR…mand molar area

A

Ameloblastoma

123
Q

Ameloblastoma histology :

A

Stellate Reticulum in bell stage, epithelium in net flex

124
Q

_______ = bone disorder where scar-like tissue develops in place of normal bone. This can weaken the affected bone & cause it to deform or fracture.

A

Fibrous dysplasia

125
Q

________ = rare disease w/ clonal proliferation of Langerhans cells, abnormal cells deriving from bone marrow and capable of migrating from skin to lymph nodes.

A

Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH)

126
Q

T/F. Nasolabial cyst is a bone cyst.

A

FALSE : Not a bone cyst b/c it occurs outside of bone & is a soft-tissue cyst

127
Q

Radiolucency radiating from root of central incisor toward midline, could be all of the below EXCEPT: lateral periodontal cyst, nasopalatine cyst, some sort of fibrous dysplasia, nasolabial cyst

A

nasolabial cyst

-Because this cyst is extra osseous [SOFT TISSUE}, it is not likely to be seen on a radiograph.

128
Q

1

A

1

129
Q

_________ disease is associated with multifocal Langerhans cell histiocytosis.

A

Hand–Schüller–Christian

  • Oral signs: bad breath, sore mouth, loose teeth. Lesion are sharply punched out radiolucency & teeth
130
Q

Etiology of Squamous Cell Carcinoma,

A

external factors and stress.
etoh, tobacco, UV radiation, certain HPV types, vitamin deficiency, immunocompromised, iron deficiency anemia – plummer Vinson syndrome..

131
Q

T/F. Xerostomia increases risk of SCC

A

TRUE

132
Q

HPV ___ identified in 90% of HPV+ oropharyngeal cancers

A

16

Persistent infection with HPV 16 inc risk of ascc
Five year survival if HPV + = 54-89 ; - = 33-65

133
Q

Lesion that resembles SCC…16wks and then disappears

A

keratoacanthoma

keratoacanthoma has a bump with a crusty crater in the middle, but BCC can be pink, waxy/pearly, or skin colored or brownish. BCC is more reddish/can be flat while keratoacanthoma has a crust and looks really gross

134
Q

Most likely site for SCC?

A

Ventrolateral tongue

135
Q

pt fresh from tiwan has an angry ulcerated lesion on his ventrolateral tongue he eats alot of betel dx?

A

SCC

Betel quid nut - black inc risk of SCC

136
Q

Most common malignancy in the oral cavity?

A

SCC aka Epidermoid Carinoma

137
Q

Philadelphia chromosome mutation ; lymoh node enlargemtn

A

(chromosomal translocation)**Chronic myelogenous leukemia

138
Q

Which of the salivary tumor glands has the best prognosis:

A

Mixed Tumor ( 1st

Acinar Cell Carcinoma 2nd if mixd not there

139
Q

Most common malignant major salivary gland tumor:

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma 


140
Q

Most common malignant minor salivary gland tumor:

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma 


141
Q

Most common salivary gland benign major or minor :

A

Pleomorphic adenoma 


MOST COMMON SITE = MINOR GLANDS OF PALATE
MOST COMMON TUMOR OF PAROTID GLAND

142
Q

Of verrucus ca which has the best prognosis

A

in the vestibule

143
Q

Max canine surrounded by lesion:

A

AOT Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor (AOT)

mixed density young child; GOES TO APEX

144
Q

kid c/o fatigue, easily bleeding gums

A

luekmia

get cbc to r/o

145
Q

What cyst is ameloblastoma most likely to stem from?

A

Dentigerous cyst

146
Q

Teeth show: globular dentin, early pulpal obileration, defective root formation, PARL, premature exfoliation, Dx?

A

Dentin Dysplasia

147
Q

________ = X-linked conditions in which there are abnormalities of 2 or more ectodermal structures

A

Ectodermal dysplasia

(ex. hair, teeth, nails, sweat glands, salivary glands, cranial-facial structure, digits). During tooth bud development, it frequently results in congenitally absent teeth (in many cases, a lack of a permanent set) and/or in the growth of teeth that are peg-shaped or pointed.

148
Q

MOST COMMON epithelial odontogenic tumor.

A

Ameloblastoma

149
Q

_______ tumor consists entirely of odontogenic epithelium. MOST AGGRESSIVE odontogenic tumor.

A

Ameloblastoma

sx excision

150
Q

____ compared to ameloblastoma - younger age, slower growth, does not infiltrate

A painless, well-circumscribed radiolucency and radioopacity in the posterior mandible of

A

Ameloblastic Fibroma

151
Q

Mixed density lesion in a young child

A

ADENOMATOID ODONTOGENIC TUMOR (AOT):

152
Q

What is the most definite way to distinguish ameloblastoma from OK?

A

reactive light microscopy

153
Q

______ = benign tumor of odontogenic origin, commonly in mandible. It starts off lucent but develops small calcifications to be radiodense lesion, can give rise to dentigerous cyst, divided into 2 categories:

A

Odontoma

compound odontoma- looks like a tooth more defined;
complex odontoma – giant mass that is radiopaque but doesn’t look like a tooth

154
Q

This tumor arises from the enamel organ or dental lamina. It’s mostly young females, maxillary, & usually associated w/ unerupted permanent tooth.

A

Adenomatoid odontogenic aka 2/3 tumor:

  • 2/3 in maxilla, 2/3 in female, 2/3 in anterior jaw
  • REMEMBER lesion goes to apex*
155
Q

___________ has identifiable tooth components while __________ has irregular calcified lesions w/ no distinct tooth components

A
  • Compound Odontoma –

Complex Odontoma –

156
Q

16 y/o boy: x-ray showed maxillary anterior tooth with a radiolucency with “SPECKS” in it

A

Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumor

157
Q

___________ = malfunction of the proteins in the enamel: ameloblastin, enamelin, tuftelin and amelogenin.

A

Amelogenesis imperfecta

People afflicted with amelogenesis imperfecta have teeth with abnormal color (yellow, brown or grey) and have rapid attrition, excessive calculus deposition, and gingival hyperplasia.

158
Q

Amelogenesis imperfecta is ________ gene

A

autosomal dominant.

159
Q

Congenitally missing teeth often seen in?

A

Ectodermal dysplasia

160
Q

Ectodermal dysplasia is __________ gene

A

It is X-linked, not autosomal dominant

161
Q

Characteristics of Ectodermal Dysplasia ?

A

Oligodontia (some missing teeth, > 6 teeth, not all teeth) Hypohidrotic , sparse hair, dec alvelar ridge= dec VDO, Conical shape ant teeth , lips = prominent ; OLD AGE FACE (lack of sweat glands)

162
Q

Having hypodontia will prevent/undermine formation of what?

A

Alveolus

  • Less teeth = reduced alveolar ridge development so the vertical dimension of the lower face is reduced
163
Q

IN Polycystotic fibrous dysplasia aka _______ you see areas of radiolucent/radiopaque—potential for malignant transformation

A

**Mccune-Albright Syndrome

Café au lait spots (coast of Maine)—bone and skin disorder—brown spots!

164
Q

Diffuse expansion of the mandible, (“orange peel”) appearance

A

FIbrous Dysplaisa
difuse radiopacity w/ teeth will be vital

  • Monostotic fibrous dysplasia may be completely asymptomatic and is often an incidental finding on x-ray

** osseous fibroma: radiolucent vital tooth**

165
Q

________ = periapical inflammatory disease that results from a reaction to a dental infection. It causes more bone production rather than bone destruction in the area (most common site is near the root apices of premolars and molars).

A

Condensing osteitis

  • appears as a radiopacity in the periapical area due to the sclerotic reaction.
166
Q

Picture said: “scalloped border, tooth is vital, patient is asymptomatic”

A

traumatic bone cyst

No tx, spontaneous healing

167
Q

Football player with mouthguard, crepitation of left TMJ, trigger zone / tenderness at L temporalis, stiffness upon wakening. dx?

A

Myofacial pain syndrome

168
Q

Dentin Dysplasia vs Dentiongenesis Imperfecta?

A

DI: Crowns are short & BULBOUS, NARROW roots,
obliterated pulp

DD: SHORT roots (sometimes rootless), obliterated pulp, sometimes PARL, MOBILE teeth

169
Q

“Ghost cells” =

A

keratinized calcifying odontogenic cyst aka
Calcifying Odontogenic cysts (COC) aka
Gorlin Cyst

eosinophils - lost nuclei = gost cells

GORLIN married casper; she get GHOST COC ; and they had a MIXED baby

170
Q

All of the following are congenital except…:

a. dentin dysplasia
b. AI
c. Regional odontodysplasia
d. ectodermal dysplasia

A

c. regional odontodysplasia

171
Q

Hypoplastic pitting enamel

A

Amelogenesis Imperfecta

does not contain the proteins ameloblastin, enamelin, tuftelin, and amelogenin.

172
Q

Pictures of teeth, premolars just erupted. Thick dentin, thin enamel, pulps not obliterated, and no teeth contact

A

Amelogenesis imperfecta

AI in X-ray shows open contacts

173
Q

When does enamel hypoplasia occur?

A

Altered matrix formation (BELL STAGE)

174
Q

ghost teeth.

A 
Regional odontodysplasia
(enamel, dentin and pulp are all affected. Non hereditary, eruption is delayed or doesn’t
175
Q

Dentin Dysplasia is _______ gene

A

autosomal dominant

short roots ; PARL***

176
Q

Hand-Schuller-Christian triad:

A

Diabetes insipidus
exophthalmos
lytic bone lesions (Langerhans dis).

177
Q

________ = rare non-odontogenic, soft-tissue, developmental cyst occurring inferior to the nasal alar region.

  • Patient usually presents with a slowly enlarging asymptomatic swelling.
A

Nasolabial cyst (nasoalveolar cyst, Klestadt`s cyst)

Derived from epithelial cells retained in the mesenchyme after fusion of the medial & lateral nasal processes + maxillary prominence or due to the persistence of epithelial remnants from the nasolacrimal duct
extending between the lateral nasal process and the maxillary prominence.

178
Q

Round yellow-white bump underneath tongue?

A

Oral lymphoepithelial cyst

- Usually an enlargement of the parotid or lacrimal gland

179
Q

X-ray shows heart shaped near central incisors

A

Nasopalatine cyst

tx = Enucleation

180
Q

What is the rarest cyst?

A

Lateral Periodontal Cyst

181
Q

The most common non-odontogenic cyst:

A

nasopalatine duct cyst

182
Q

pt shows w/ bad breath, sore mouth, loose teeth. Lesion are sharply punched out radiolucency & teeth appear as FLOATING IN AIR

A

LANGERHANS CELL HISTOCYTOSIS

  • Hand–Schüller–Christian disease is associated with multifocal Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
183
Q

Lining of nasolabial cyst =

A

pseudostratified squamous

184
Q

_______ Originates from epithelial cell rests (stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium) ; along mandible, presents with swelling & pain, & has a high reoccurrence rate.

A

Odontogenic keratocyst

185
Q

Freckles on lips + intestinal polyps =

A

Peutz–Jeghers syndrome

186
Q

Basal cell nevus syndrome a.k.a. :

A

Gorlin’s syndrome, multiple OKC’s seen)

187
Q

What causes bell’s palsy?

A

idiopathic

One theory of its cause is that the facial nerve becomes inflamed within the temporal bone, possibly with a viral etiology.

188
Q

Man comes in after years of tmjd with reduction and is now only able to open 25mm and that’s it with muscle pain. Whats his disorder?

A

Myofacial pain syndrome.

189
Q

_______ = destruction of salivary and tear ducts causes dry mouth

A

Sjogren’s syndrome:

190
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome causes:

A

Midfacial deficiency

Cleft lip (if midfacial def not an opt)

191
Q

TMJ pain are mostly related to what nerve?

A

V3

192
Q

_______ = commonly see multiple OKCs and palmar pitting, plantar keratosis (odontogenic keratin cyst, KCOT)

A

Nevoid basal cell carcinoma (Gorlin syndrome)

193
Q

Which cranial nerve affected bell’s palsy?

A

Facial nerve ( CN 7)

194
Q

Initial treatment for OKC is:

A
  • Conservative treatment generally includes simple enucleation, with or without curettage
195
Q

Most immediate sign after delivering a FP with a high occlusion?

A

Myofacial pain

196
Q

TMJ ligaments purpose –

A

limit the movement of mandible

197
Q

What branch off facial nerve gets damaged the most during TMJ surgey? 


A

CN 7 (facial) - Temporal branch

198
Q

__________ = rare benign but locally aggressive developmental cystic neoplasm. It often affects the posterior mandible but can extend to maxillary. Usually, a lucent uniloclar lesions extending along mandible, presents with swelling and; pain, and; has a high reoccurrence rate.

A

Keratocystic odontogenic tumor (OKC)

  • High recurrence rate
  • “Picket fence -Palisaded columnar basal cell layer
  • Derived from rests of the dental lamina (Rests of Serre)
  • Thin layer of parakeratotic stratified squamous epithelium
  • Epithelial surface is corrugated (wavy)

OKC players bought houses with pickett fence wavy pools parakeets AND satalite tv

199
Q

Depostition of collagen in organs causes organ failure

A

Scleroderma

200
Q

immunofluorescence of antibodies shows linear pattern

A

pemphigoid

201
Q

Which muscle mainly responsible for positioning and translating condyles?

A

Lateral pterygoids

202
Q

Pt has calcified falx cerebri, multiple OKCs, bifid ribs. What syndrome does the patient have?

A

Gorlin Goltz syndrome aka Basal cell bifid rib syndrome.

203
Q

CREST syndrome aka ?

A

sclerodoma
CT disease of skin, blood vessels, muscles, and internal organs. autoimmune disorder. Blue fingers, Hair loss Skin hardness Skin that is abnormally dark or light

204
Q

Geographic tongue aka

A

erythema migrans aka Migratory glossitis

can move locations ; burning tongue ; red w/ white borders ; cause unknown = loss of papillae

205
Q

aspirin burn is due to:

A

coagulation necrosis.

206
Q

biopsy reveals acantholysis and a suprabasilar vesicle. Which of the following represents the MOST likely diagnosis?

A

Pemphigus

acantholysis

207
Q

______ = Caused by ruptured salivary duct, Usually due to trauma, Seen on the lower lip

A

Mucocele

NEVER ON GINGIVA

208
Q

Complications of Sjogren’s syndrome

A

keratoconjunctivitis, it involves the genitalia too.

Sjogrens ass w/ SLE ( NVR herpes)

209
Q

immunofluorescence of antibodies shows fishnet pattern

A

Pemphigus

210
Q

______ = unilateral facial paralysis with no known cause, except that there is a loss of excitability of the involved facial nerve. The paralysis onset is abrupt & most symptoms reach their peak in 2 days.

A

Bell’s palsy

211
Q

Nevoid BCC and palmar melatonin indicative of:

A

OKC

212
Q

What is most common with Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

Lymphoma (or maybe lipoma or some other growth),

213
Q
  • Xerostomia is rarely due to :
A

a vitamin deficiency

Ex: Sjogren’s syndrome, (Other parotid problems)

214
Q

Sialoliths most commonly associated with

A

submandibular gland
/ submand duct (wharton’s)

suasuage –sialolith–stenson-parotod

215
Q

Which articular disease most often accompanies Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

B. Rheumatoid arthritis.

216
Q

Sjogren syndrome laboratory test:

A

SS-A / SS-B (also ANA or Rheumatoid factor)

217
Q

ranula due to –

A

mucus plug

Ranula tx = excisional

218
Q

Gorlin-gotz syndrome aka

A

basal cell nevus syndrome

Nevoid basal cell carcinoma causes cyst in the jaws

-Caused by mutation in PTCH suppressor gene on chromosome 9

219
Q

Most common location for mucocele?

A

Lower lip
nv on gingiva
due to- rupture of salivary ducts (trauma related)

AKA mucus extravasation phenomenon/ mucus retention cyst.

220
Q

What else most often seen with nevoid basal cell carcinoma?

A

Odontogenic keratocyst ( OKC)

221
Q

QUESTION: What does multiple OKC tell you?

A

Gorlin-gotz syndrome (also called basal cell nevus syndrome)

222
Q

______ = TISSUE overgrowth in Wrong location

A

CHORISTOMA-

223
Q

Gardner’s syn is _______ gene.

A

Autosomal Dominant

224
Q

Which artery supplies the TMJ?

A

MADS:

Middle meningeal from maxillary, Ascending pharyngeal, Deep auricular, Superficial temporal

225
Q

Secondary Sjogren Syndrome causes:

A

dry eye, dry mouth, rheumatoid arthritis

226
Q

What do Gardners and Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have in common?

A

GI polyps

Crohns also has polyps

227
Q

Part of the TMJ that purely rotates :

A

Articular eminence w/ condyle

228
Q

______ = a variant of familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by GI polyps, multiple osteomas, and skin/soft tissue tumors.

A

Gardner syndrome

Cutaneous findings of Gardner syndrome include epidermoid cysts, desmoid tumors, and other benign tumors. (mult facial osteomas & skin nodules)
Polyps can become cancerous

229
Q

_______= autosomal dominant disorder characterized by the development of benign hamartomatous polyps in the GI tract & hyp agonists for the insulin receptor, pigmented macules on the lips and oral mucosa (melanosis)

A

Peutz–Jeghers syndrome

230
Q

HISTO = “SAUSAGE links “ dx?

A

Sialodochitis

Parotid gland – chronic sialodochitosis

231
Q

_____ = unilateral facial paralysis with no known cause, except that there is a loss of excitability of the nerve

A

Bell’s palsy

232
Q

Which anatomical components are responsible for rotation of the mandible?

A

Condyle and articulating disk

233
Q

How do u tx painful Sialolith in whartons duct initially?

A

Moist heat ; massage or lemon drops to stimlate unblocking -> Dilation of duct –> Sx remove (cannulation & dilation)

wartons = submand

234
Q

Antral Pseudocyst aka

A

mucous retention pseudocyst

235
Q

Lower compartment of TMJ is for? ,

upper compartment ?

A 
Lower = ROT
UPPER =  TRANS
236
Q

Huge PA radioopacity in maxillary sinus

A

– mucus retention cyst

237
Q

Ankylglossitis aka

A

tongue tied

238
Q

what causes tmj ankylosis?

A

Trauma

239
Q

Which cyst is most likely to become neoplastic?

A

dentigerous cyst

240
Q

When TMJ is in rotational movement, rotation is in:

A

lower compartment

241
Q

Varicosities in ventral tongue are mostly seen in

A

– elderly

242
Q

Reason for parulis = ?

A

incomplete root canal (redue root canal)

243
Q

What does tuberculosis lesion in the oral cavity look like?

A

large ulcer

The most frequently affected sites = tongue base and gingiva ( irregular ucler or discrete granular mass)

244
Q

Allergic gingivitis caused most by-

A

toothpaste flavor(cinnamon)

245
Q

Target lesions ass w/?

A

Erythema Multiforme (also has positive nikolsky sign)

246
Q

_______ = Normal tissue overgrowth

A

HAMARTOMA-

247
Q

What does tuberculosis lesion in the oral cavity look like?

A

large ulcer (Painful nonhealing indurated often multiple ulcers)

248
Q

Cemento-osseous dysplasia aka :

A

CEMENTOMA
• Usually 30-50 years old, African-American Female
• Mandibular anterior VITAL teeth
• Asymptomatic periapical radiolucencies, which transform to radiopacities

249
Q

Most common place for periapical cemental dysplasia:

A

Lower anteriors

250
Q
  • Most common clinical forms of actinomycosis are:
A

cervicofacial (lumpy jaw), thoracic, and abdominal.

251
Q

Actinomycosis has abscess, draining fistula, & contains yellow sulfur granules. Tx is

A

incision & drainage + antibiotics

252
Q

_______ = relatively common low-grade tumor that originates in the pilosebaceous glands & closely resembles squamous cell carcinoma (SCC).

A

Keratoacanthoma (KA)

253
Q

Focal White females vital edentulous one lesion:

A

Focal Cemento-Osseous Dysplasia

254
Q

___________= gingival nodule composed of cellular fibroblastic connective tissue stroma, which is associated with the formation of randomly dispersed mineralized products (bone, cementum-like tissue, or dystrophic calcification).

A

Peripheral Ossifying Fibroma

255
Q

Talon cusp is for?

A

dent evagenatus, NOT invagenalis

256
Q

Asymptomatic periapical radiolucencies, which transform to radiopacities

A

(Periapical) Cemento-osseous dysplasia aka CEMENTOMA:

257
Q

Child with granulomatous gingiva and bleeding rectal-anus has what?

A

Crohn’s

s/s: granulomatous gingival hypertrophy- swollen gums + mouth ulcers

258
Q

_______ is characteristic of adrenal over production

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndrome

259
Q

Patient has red gums and is told she has “plasma cell gingivitis”. Common cause is?

A

cinnamon

260
Q

4 yr old kid has hemangioma on his tongue from when he grew. It grew at the same rate he did, dx?

A

hamartoma

261
Q

most common nonodontogenic cyst

A

nasopalatine duct cyst

262
Q

Pt c/o symptom where they sweat near cheek area when eating.

A

Auriculotemporal syndrome (Frey syndrome) - Damage Often after parotid sx

263
Q

Which reactive lesion of the gingival tissue reveals bone formation microscopically?

A

Peripheral ossifying fibroma

264
Q

Maxillary sinusitis bacteria:

A

Strep pneumonia

Most likely interp as toothache - can cause pain or pressure in the maxillary (cheek) area (e.g., toothache, headache)

Tx: Amox with clavulanic acid (for b-lactamase strep)

265
Q

Site almost nvr affect with white spngy nevus

A

The gingival margin and dorsum of the tongue are almost never affected.
AUTOSOMAL DOM

266
Q

________ is used for Trigeminal Neuralgia,

A

Carbamazepine ( tegretol - anticonvulsant)

do not use to treat constant, fascial pain. Use NSAIDS

267
Q

Patient feels pain on biting and feeling of fullness in maxillary posterior teeth, why?

A

sinusitis/ atypical trigeminal neuralgia,

268
Q

GUm boil aka?

A

Parulis

269
Q

Auriculotemporal nerve is severed, what are the symptoms?

A

gustatory sweating

TX: Ligation of auriotemporal nerve – disrupt gustory sweating

270
Q

leukoplakia that you can’t wipe off; Thick bilateral white plaque wiht spongy texture

A

white sponge nevus

usually on the buccal mucosa, but sometimes on the labial mucosa, alveolar ridge or floor of the mouth

271
Q

AURICULOTEMPRAL SYNDROME AKA ?

A

FREY’S SYNDROME:

272
Q

_______ = infectious subacute-to-chronic bacterial disease caused by filamentous, gram- (+) anaerobic bacteria (Actinomyces species).

A

Actinomycosis

IT is characterized by contiguous spread, suppurative and granulomatous inflammation, and formation of multiple abscesses and sinus tracts that may discharge sulfur granules.

273
Q

Keratosis happen where in the mouth?

A

Upper lip

274
Q

______: abnormal collections of inflammatory cells (granulomas) that can form as nodules

A

Sarcoidosis

275
Q

1st sign of multiple myeloma:

A

bone pain (in limbs & thoracic region)

276
Q

Bone infection = “onion skin” appearance

A

OSTEOMYELITIS

Garre’s (proliferative periostitis) and Ewing sarcoma are both onion skin

277
Q

Girl with caries into the pulp on tooth #3 – radiograph shows alternating RL/path at inferior border of mandible (a.k.a “onion skin”, bacterial)

A

Garre’s Osteomyelitis aka chronic osteomyelitis

278
Q

= plasma cell cancer, a type of WBC normally responsible for producing antibodies.

A

Multiple myeloma (plasma cell myeloma)

Initially, there are often no symptoms. When advanced bone pain, bleeding, frequent infections, and anemia may occur. Complications may include amyloidosis(buildup of amyloid proteins).

279
Q
  • Symmetric widening of the periodontal ligament space is an early radiographic sign of ?
A

osteosarcoma

SYMMETRICALLY WIDENED PDL SPACE, SUN-RAY/ S unburst APPEARANCE

280
Q

Garre’s Osteomyelitis aka

A

chronic osteomyelitis

ONION SKIN

281
Q

TB is similar to?

A

Sarcoidosis

Involves granulomas in th elungs

282
Q

bence jones protein in urine (light chains)

A

Multiple myeloma/plasma cell myeloma

  • Bence jone proteins
  • high M protein in serum
  • multiple punched out bone lucencies
  • monoclonal neoplastic expansion of immunoglobulin secreting B cells
283
Q

most significant oral finding in cleiocrainal dysplasia

A

supernumerary teeth

Also retained primary teeth

284
Q

when due fontanelles close?

A

Ant = 12-18mo
Post = 3-4 mo
skull closed by 2

285
Q

Most common developmental odontogenic cyst

A

DENTIGEROUS CYST aka (FOLLICULAR CYST)

286
Q

S?S of cleiodcranila dysplasia

A 
Supernumery teeth
retained priamry teeth
high palate
no or hyposplastic clavicles
cranial bossing- fontanelles failed to close

autosmal DOM

287
Q

Calcifying Odontogenic Cysts aka

A

(CALCIFYING CYSTIC ODONTOGENIC TUMOR/GORLIN CYST/COC)

288
Q

Unilateral slow growing elongation of face - this caused chin devation + malocclusion,

A

Condylar hyperplasia

289
Q

Epulis fissuratum is most like

A

fibroma ( both form trauma)

290
Q

s/s of painless ulcer on hard palaet then went away; heals w/o scarring

A

necrotizing sialometaplasia

Necrotizing sialometaplasia is an infectious condition of the salivary glands.

291
Q

It is the most common variety of salivary gland tumor and also the most common tumor of the parotid gland.

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

292
Q

______ is a health condition manifested with spontaneous mucous membrane ulcerations in the mouth, vagina, or rectum.

A

Agranulocytosis

Agranulocytosis occurs when the body fails to create mature and normal white blood cells, making the body more susceptible to bacterial infection. (s/s: sore throat rigor fever chills)

293
Q

what conditions typically results in crossbite malocclusion, facial asymmetry, and shifting of the midpoint of the chin to the unaffected side?

A

condylar hyperplasia

294
Q

______is the most common site of an intraoral malignant melanoma?

A

Hard palate and maxillary gingiva

295
Q

Stones in the Wharton duct are made visible in ?

A

cross-sectional occlusal radiographs

Occlusal radiographs are important when attempting to discern the location of submandibular sialoliths.

296
Q

______ has a common etiology of infection, loss of interocclusal/intermaxillary space, or vitamin B deficiency.

A

Angular cheilitis

Angular cheilitis is also known as angular cheilosis, commissural cheilitis, angular stomatitis, and perlèche.

297
Q

The floor of the mouth and lateral border of the tongue are the most common locations for the development of

A

squamous cell carcinoma inside the mouth.

298
Q

The most common mucocele locations are :

A

the lower lip, the inner side of the cheek, on the anterior ventral tongue, and the floor of the mouth.

299
Q

Definitive diagnosis of candidosis requires specialized tests, such as

A

a cytologic smear.

300
Q

______ is a neoplasm that commonly arises along the posterior aspect of the mandible during the fourth to fifth decades of life. It is a benign tumor that is thought to have originated from the epithelial remnants of the stratum intermedium of the enamel organ. It is a slowly progressing, painless swelling that is often associated with impacted teeth and occurs most frequently in the molar area but may also appear near premolars.

A

Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (Pindborg tumor)

301
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with hypodontia?

A- Ectodermal dysplasia

B- Cleidocranial dysplasia

C- Apert Syndrome

D- Gardner syndrome

A

A

NBDE 2 (13 decks)

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