Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NBDE 2 > OMFS > Flashcards

OMFS Flashcards

1
Q

S/s of advanced osteoarthritis of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

A
  1. Tendency toward prognathism
  2. Flattening of articular surface
  3. Crepitus
  4. Antegonial notching

** crepitus, flattening of the articular surface of the condyle, limited jaw movement, and pain on mouth opening.**

** TMJ arthritis CLD NOT cause apertognathia, which is the dental malocclusion where the posterior teeth occlude prematurely, resulting in an anterior open bite.***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dry socket aka

A

(localized alveolar osteitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

____________ is a painful condition that occurs two to three days following tooth extraction and is self-limiting in nature.

A

Dry socket aka (localized alveolar osteitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_______is the preferred method for visualizing the TMJ, followed by _______.

A

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

cone-beam computed tomography.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F. No obvious TMJ pathology evident on their pantomograph ( PANO) is characteristic of TMJ

A

TRUE.

PANs are not useful when diagnosing TMJ pain/dysfunction disorders because only hard tissues are visible, so the relation of the condylar head to the mandibular fossa and articular tubercle are also often distorted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Best flap for mesiodens removal

A

Full thickness flaps

within the palatal area allow for adequate visualization of the bone surrounding the mesiodens.

also provide better blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F. Oxygen is not stored in its liquid state for use in dental practices, so the pressure gauge is accurate for the oxygen tank.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

most common result of habituated abuse of nitrous oxide?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

Long-term exposure can cause vitamin B12 deficiency, numbness, and reproductive side effects (in pregnant females).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

only joint structure that exerts posterior traction on the articular disc?

A

Superior retrodiscal lamina

Superior retrodiscal lamina functions by pulling the articular discs posteriorly against the lateral pterygoid that pulls it forward.

connects the articular disc to the tympanic plate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The ________ muscle inserts into the lower posterior portion of the mandibular ramus as well as the angle of the mandible and serves to help close the jaw.

A

medial pterygoid

During an unfavorable mandibular fracture, the medial pterygoid that inserts at the mandibular angle pulls in the same direction as the vector of displacement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Elevators are single-blade instruments that are used to do ?

A

Engage the tooth apical to the cementoenamel junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

_____________ are related to muscular or motor reflexive functions including peristalsis, breathing, and heartbeat and are not involved in pain perception.

A

Autonomic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

nerve innervation of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

A

The masseteric nerve,
auriculotemporal nerve,
deep temporal nerve, and
mandibular division of trigeminal nerve have branches that innervate the TMJ.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Verrill sign

A

Ptosis of eyelid

Verrel sign can be used to eval level of sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nitrous is :

A
  1. It is heavier than air.
  2. It alters cardiac output minimally.
  3. It is not significantly metabolized.

Nitrous oxide gas is used to provide anesthesia, anxiolysis, and vasodilation (for IV placement). It is stable and combustible but does not explode.

Nitrous oxide sedation is very safe and effective. Its effects in the body are immediately removed once the nitrous oxide gas is completely expired by the patient, making anesthetic recovery time faster.

**Beware of Diffusion Hypoxia _ dont just take NO2 and O2 off. Leave O2 on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Best incision to make when removing palatal tori

A

Double Y incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

______________nerves are both sensory and motor nerves that transmit nociceptive stimuli from the face.

A

The fifth and ninth cranial nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

clinical signs commonly associated with acute suppurative osteomyelitis

A

Paresthesia or anesthesia of the inferior alveolar nerve

High or intermittent fever

Intense pain

affects children and is usually correlated with a Staphylococcus aureus infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A guerin fx is =

A

a lefort 1 fx = horizontal seperation of the maxilla form the nasal and zygomatic bones AND pterygoid plates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A ____ fx is the most commonly seenin ER/OR?

A

Zygomatic - blow/fist to face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dislocation of the mandible is best managed with:

A

restriction of mandibular movement for a period of 2 to 4 weeks. Opening should be limited and time for healing given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The jaw area with the LOWEST incidence of fractures is?

A

The coronoid process with an incidence rate of 1.3%. The regions most likely to be involved in fractures are

the condylar process [29.1%], 
angle [ 24.5% ] 
symphysis [ 22% ] 
body [ 16% ] 
alveolar [ 3.1%]

CASBA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

For maxillary right quadrant extractions, the patient should turn their head substantially towards_____ and the occlusal plane of the maxilla should be at _______ to the floor.

A

the operator
60 degrees

For extraction of maxillary teeth, the practitioner should stand and raise the patient so that the height of the patient’s mouth approximates the height of the operator’s elbow.

For maxillary extractions, the occlusal plane should always be at 60 degrees to the floor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when ext anterior teeth, the patient should ___ ____.

A

face forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When ext teeth in the left upper quadrant, the patient should _________.

A

only turn slightly towards the operator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

_______ are used specifically for the removal of tooth roots.

A

Pick type elevators

It may be necessary to drill a hole in the root and use the buccal plate as a fulcrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Seldin retractors retract ________. They do not have a ____2_____, should not be used to ____3____, and they are designed similarly to Henahan retractors.

A
  1. oral soft tissues
  2. sharp leading edge
  3. retract mucoperiosteum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What nerve supplies the efferent muscles of the tongue?

A

Hypoglossal

The hypoglossal (CN XII) exits the skull through the hypoglossal canal of the occipital bone and supplies the afferent sensations of the muscles of the tongue, as well as efferent motor control to the intrinsic muscles of the tongue, the genioglussus, the hyoglossus, and the styloglossus muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Most commonly impacted teeth

A

Mand 3rds, Max 3rds, Max Canines

primarily d/t inadequate arch length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

__1___ requires brush placed over lesion 5-10 xs so that ___2__ is obtained.

A
  1. Cytology biopsy

2. cells from all three epithelial layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Exam shows a suspicious 3cm lesion in ventrolateral tongue, what is next tx?

A

Incisional biopsy

  • used when lesion is large > 1cm, polymorphic, poss malig, or in area of low morbid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

WHen to use an Excisional biopsy

A

Used when lesion is small < 1cm polymorphic, poss malig, or in area of low morbid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The chorda tympani is a small ____1_____ branch of the ___2____ that innervates the ___3___ and ___4___.

A
  1. parasympathetic
  2. facial nerve (CN VII)
  3. submandibular
  4. sublingual salivary glands

The chorda tympani also supplies the taste sensation for the body of the tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

most common malignant tumor in oral cavity

A

SCC - epidermoid carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cancers of the ____________ met to the head and neck

A 
Breast
Prostate
lung
kidney
thyroid
hematopoetic system
colon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most commonly congenitally missing teeth

A

3rd molars, Maxillary Laterals, Mand 2ms

priamrily d/t failure to form

37
Q

Pharmacodynamics of LA

A

Block Na2+ channels

38
Q

How will increased blood flow affect LA?

A

Inc bld flow = shorter duration of action

39
Q

1

A

1

40
Q

1

A

1

41
Q

The lingual nerve is a branch of the trigeminal (CN V) that supplies the _____, ______, and ______. 1

A
  1. body of the tongue,
  2. the floor of the mouth
  3. the lingual gingiva of the mandibular teeth

It exits the skull through the foramen ovale on the sphenoid bone.

42
Q

How will increased protein binding affect LA?

A

Inc protein binding = inc lipid sol = INC DUration of action

43
Q

Which LA has two different concentrations

A

Mepivicaine = 2% or 3%

Bupivicaine ( 0.5%)

44
Q

How will pKa affect LA?

A

Lower pKa = inc non-ionized form of LA = Faster onset

45
Q

The majority of injectable LA used today are

A

Tertiary Amines

46
Q

The _________ nerve is both _____. It supplies the base of the tongue and the pharyngeal muscle.

A
  1. glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
  2. afferent and efferent

the efferent innervation = the swallowing mechanism. The afferent component = the taste sensation for the posterior one-third of the tongue.

47
Q

which LA injection has the highest degree of failure

A

IAN

48
Q

Sensory and taste of Posterior 1/3 of tongue

Sensory and Taste of Anterior 2/3 of tongue

A

SEN AND TASTE Post 1/3 = Glossopharyngeal n.

SEN ant 2/3 = lingual n of CN V3
Taste ant 2/3 = Chorida Tympani ( CN7)

49
Q

Pregnancy class C LAs

A

BAME ;
Bupivicaine, Articaine, Mepivicane, Epinepherine

Class B = lido/prilocaine

50
Q

An infraorbital nerve block will anesthatize what nerves?

A

ASA, MSA
Lateral Nasal
Superior Labial
Inferior palpebral

51
Q

________ is a procedure that divides the ramus of the mandible by a horizontal cut on the medial aspect and a vertical cut on the lateral aspect of the ramus. This procedure allows the mandible to either be advanced or setback in order to remedy excess or deficit of the mandible.

A

A bilateral sagittal split osteotomy

52
Q

S/s of dyspnea, orthopnea, pedal edema?

A

CHF

tx: ACE inhibtor ; DIgoxin*

53
Q

Most common reason of cardiac arrest /heart failure in children?

A

Respiratory distress

54
Q

Most common heart defects in children

A

VSD

55
Q

Bilateral mandibular fractures in the _____1_____ region will most likely lead to mandibular displacement inferiorly and ___2___.

A
  1. parasymphysis
  2. posteriorly

The pull of the genioglossus, geniohyoid, and digastric muscles facilitate the inferior and posterior displacement of the mandible. This may result in a compromised airway and the patient may have difficulty breathing, so it is critical to evaluate the airway of a patient with bilateral parasymphysis fractures.

56
Q

Most commonly impacted teeth?

A

Mand 3rds, Max 3rds, Max Canines

primary reason = arc length

57
Q

Most congenitally missing teeth?

A

3rd molars, Max laterals, Mand 2PM

d/t failure to form

58
Q

Most difficult molar ext?

A

Fully bony impaction

*(any any impacted tooth)

59
Q

WInter’s classifcation of 3rd molars

A 
Refers of the long axis of 3rd to 2nd
Vertical
mesoangular =  easiset
Horizontal 
Distoangular = Difficult
Buccolingual
other
60
Q

Classifcation of 3rds suing ABC, 123

A 
Pell and gergory
ABC = Impaction depth
A = same lvl, at occlusion
B = halfway down 2nd
C = below Cervical line of 2nds  ( most difficult)
123 = relationship to ramus
1 = crown ant to ramus
2 = half the crown in ramus
3 = whole crown in ramus ( most difficult)
61
Q

What is possible whenever a mucoperiosteal flap is elevated during surgaical ext

A

Subperiosteal abcess

Irrigate throughly to removed fractured tooth or bone spicules bleow soft tissue

62
Q

How does Dig work?

A

Inhibits Na/K/ATPas = inc Ca influx into cell; INC contractility of heart ( ionotropic)

63
Q

Tx of OAC

A

Oro-antral communication

Tx:
<2mm do nothing
2-6mm (four A’s) = abx, antihistamine, analgesics afirn nsal spray (vasocont to dec sinus pressure) + Figure 8 sutures
>6 mm = Flap surgery for priamry closure

64
Q

How can a pt be molar class 2 and skeletaly class 3?

A

ANB and Cleft palate

65
Q

What sx will pt with cleft palate likely need in the furtre?

A

Mandibular Set back

early sx to fix lip/palate causes pt to dvlp class 3 so have setback to correct class 3

66
Q

Most commonly used surgery for mand augmentation?

A

bilateral sagital osteotomy BSSO

67
Q

Before sx when shld you stop warfin?

A

DONT STOP MED - risk of bldclot > risk of bleeding

INR of 2.5 needed for omfs

68
Q

Etoh pt , what labs to order?

A

PT/INR

69
Q

Apertognathic aka

A

anterior open bite

70
Q

Canine and deep temporal space infxns can result in _____ via the opthalmic veins.

A

Canvernous Sinus Thrombosis

71
Q

Lateral pharyngeal infxns can transverse the ____1____ and__2____ spaces and spread into the ____3___

A
  1. retropharyngeal
  2. prevertebral
  3. mediastinum
72
Q

6 tx principles of odontogenic infxns ( in spaces)

A
  1. Det severity of infxn
  2. Eval host reponse
  3. Refer or no?
  4. Sx ( culture 2mml min anearobic 2 lab )
  5. Support pt medically
  6. Rx Abx ( typically streptococc/anaearobes ->PEN V or CLinda/clarithro
73
Q

Types of biopsy:

A
  1. Cytology
  2. Aspiration
  3. incisional
  4. Exisional
74
Q

Proper specimen care requires that the tissue be place in __________________________.

A

10% formalin in a vilume 20xs that of the specimen.

Biopsy Data sheet ( hx, findings, xry,pic)

75
Q

Distended jugulars, pitting edema, dyspnea?

A

CHF

76
Q

Orthostatic HPN + Headache =

A

SE of Nitrates
dliates bld vsl dec BP* inc HR

NOT indicated for TIA - only angia***

77
Q

Which receptor is for lungs and which is for heart?

A

Beta 2 receptor for LUNGS ( two lungs)

Beta 1 for heart ( 1 heart)

78
Q

Hyperventilation causes?

A

Tachycardia and tachypnea

79
Q

postion of pt whose crown fell into mouth

A

Upright

80
Q

Common early sign of syncope

A

Pallor

81
Q

Pt unconscious , postioning?

A

Trensdelengburg

82
Q

All forms of shock have what?

A

dec perfusion to tissues

83
Q

most common ER in dental chair

A

syncope

t-burg ; amonia salts

can occur after does of LA

84
Q

Carpopedal spasms can cause ?

A

Hyperventilation

Carpopedal spasms are frequent and involuntary muscle contractions in the hands and feet.

85
Q

Hyponatrimia can induce

A

Sz

86
Q

muscles elevating the jaw :

A

masseter,
temporalis,
medial pterigoid

87
Q

What is the best predictor for pulpal anesthesia?

A

Backward pressure

88
Q

When do you know that is it a non-odontogenic pain:

A

When pain is not relieved with LA

89
Q

What tooth and what condition makes it most difficult to properly anesthetize the tooth:

A

Irreversible pulpitis and mandibular

NBDE 2 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions