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Operations Flashcards

1
Q

What are the yearly limits for pilot flying hours?

A

900 hours per calendar year, or 1000 hours in a consecutive 12-month period

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2
Q

Where can ICAO rules relating to the operation of international commercial aeroplanes be found?

A

Annex 6 part 1

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3
Q

What is a SMS and who runs it

A

A Safety Management System, and it is run by the Operator

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4
Q

How long must maintainance releases be held for?

A

three months.

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5
Q

What lights are mandatory, and when?

A

Anti-collision lights at all times, and Navigation lights at night.

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6
Q

what does SARP stand for?

A

Standards and Reccomended Practices. Can be found in ICAO Annex 6

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7
Q

What documents must be carried aboard a flight

A 
R.A.N.R.A.I.L
Registration
Airworthiness
Noise Certificate
Radio license
AOC (copy)
Insurance certificate
Licenses & type ratings
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8
Q

What information and forms must be carried aboard a flight

A 
S.C.A.M.T.O.W.N.
Special Pax info
Charts
ATC Flight Plan
Mass and Balance
Technical log
Operational flight plan
Weather briefing material
NOTAMS/AIS (including SAR info)
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9
Q

What information must be held on the ground for a flight?

A 
N.O.T.A.M.S.
Notams
Operational flight plan
Tech log
AIS briefing material
Mass and balance docs
Special loads documentation
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10
Q

What is the maximum distance from land an aircraft can fly without special survival equipment

A

120 minutes or 400 nm, whichever is greater. Applicable for aircraft with over 30 seats only.

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11
Q

What does EASA 145 concern?

A

Approval for aircraft maintainance

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12
Q

What are the four posts that an operator must fill?

A
  • Flight Operations manager.
  • Maintenance System manager.
  • Crew Training manager.
  • Ground Operations manager.
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13
Q

What is contained in part A of the Operations Manual (OM)

A

Part A: General and Basic information

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14
Q

What is contained in part B of the Operations Manual (OM)

A

Part B: Aeroplane Operating Matters (type specific)

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15
Q

What is contained in part C of the Operations Manual (OM)

A

Part C: Route and Aerodrome Instructions and Information

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16
Q

How far can a take-off alternate be from the take-off aerodrome for twin engine aircraft?

A

60 mins at the 1-engine inop cruise speed (up to 2 hours for ETOPS A/C)

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17
Q

How far can a take-off alternate be from the take-off aerodrome for a 3+ engine aircraft?

A

up to 2 hours at the 1-engine inop cruise speed

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18
Q

What is V(at)?

A

IAS at runway threshold (for landing). equal to V(s1g) * 1.23 or V(so) * 1.3

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19
Q

What is the definition of a Low Vis Takeoff?

A

RVR less than 400m

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20
Q

What is the minimum RVR for conducting a Visual Approach?

A

800m RVR

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21
Q

All turbine powered A/C are to be fitted with ACAS II if they have a MTOM of? AND more than ? Passenger seats

A

5700kg. 19!

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22
Q

Aeroplanes with more than ? Passenger seats or with a MTOM of greater than ? Kg must be fitted with a PA system and crew interphone

A
  1. 15,000
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23
Q

What are the CAT I approach minima?

A

Ceiling below 200ft and RVR below 550m

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24
Q

V(at) is equal to?

A

V(so) x 1.3 or V(s1g) x 1.23 whichever is the higher.

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25
What are the associated Aeroplane categories and V(at) speeds?
``` A- less than 91 kt B- 91-120 C- 121-140 D- 141-165 E- 166-210 ```
26
In low viz ops when is an auto approach and landing including roll out performed?
RVR less than 400m
27
LVTO RVR?
400m
28
Required RVR for visual approach?
800m
29
What is the V(at) speed for a landing cat A aircraft
less than 91 kt
30
What is the V(at) speed for a landing cat C aircraft?
121 to 140 kt
31
What is the V(at) speed for a landing cat E aircraft?
166 to 210 kt
32
What NPA have an absolute minima for an MDH of 350 ft? (2 answers)
NDB and SRA terminating at 2 nm
33
What NPA have an absolute minima for an MDH of 300 ft? (2 answers)
VOR and NDB/DME approaches
34
What NPA have an absolute minima for an MDH of 250 ft? (3 answers)
SRA terminating at 0.5 nm, VOR/DME approach and Localiser approach (no glideslope)
35
What is the minimum RVR for any Non-Precision Approach?
not less than 750m, unless accepted by the authority.
36
What is the minimum RVR for takeoff from a runway without lighting or marking?
500m
37
What is the minimum RVR for a takeoff from a runway with edge lighting *and* centreline -marking-?
300m
38
What is the minimum RVR for a takeoff from a runway with edge lighting *or* centreline marking?
400m (by night end lights are also required)
39
What is the minimum RVR for a takeoff from a runway with edge lighting *and* centreline lighting?
200m
40
What is the minimum RVR for a takeoff from a runway with edge lighting *and* centreline marking, and multiple sources of RVR information?
150m, 125m if the lighting is high intensity. RVR must be in limits for all sources of RVR info.
41
What is the lowest possible takeoff RVR, and what is required to achieve it?
75m, requiring a runway equipped for CATIII approaches with certified lateral guidance facilities.
42
How much of the runway must be visible *at the threshold* to commence takeoff?
90m, which equates to 6 lights.
43
What is the minimum RVR for conducting an Non-Precision approach?
750m
44
What is the DH and RVR for a Cat 1 ILS?
200ft, 550m
45
What is the DH and RVR for a Cat 2 ILS?
100ft (radalt), 300m (350m for cat D aircraft manual landing)
46
What visual references must be achieved by DH for an ILS approach?
3 lights with lateral information. only one light neccesary for cat III approaches with fail-operational autopilot.
47
What is the DH and RVR for a Cat 3A ILS?
DH<100ft, 200m
48
What is the DH and RVR for a Cat 3B ILS?
DH<50ft (or none), 75m
49
What is the time band for daytime OTS?
1130Z - 1900Z
50
What is the time band for nighttime OTS?
0100Z - 0800Z
51
At what latitude do the OTS times take effect
030W (i.e. must be at 030W within the OTS validity times)
52
What are the offsets required to achieve composite seperation in NAT MNPSA airspace?
+- 500ft (+- 1000 above RVSM), 15 nm
53
Where can you find information relating to the airfield noise abatement procedures?
AIP part AD2
54
At what cloud ceiling is *landing* on the noise-preferential runway not mandatory?
cloud base 500ft or less
55
With what wind factors is use of the noise-preferential runway not mandatory?
crosswind 15kt or tailwind 5kt
56
With what visibility is use of the noise-preferential runway not mandatory?
less than 1900m
57
During the takeoff, what is the minimum altitude that an aircraft may begin a turn?
500ft (ICAO 400ft)
58
At what height do noise abatement power reductions start?
800ft
59
What is the NADP1 climb speed?
V2 + 10-20 kt
60
What is the NADP2 climb speed?
Vzf + 10-20 kt
61
at what distance from the runway must a landing aircraft be in the final landing configuration?
5 nm
62
Above what altitude must an aircraft have quick-donning oxygen masks for flight deck crew?
25,000 ft

EASA facts and figures (14 decks)

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