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EASA facts and figures > Operations > Flashcards

Operations Flashcards

1
Q

What are the yearly limits for pilot flying hours?

A

900 hours per calendar year, or 1000 hours in a consecutive 12-month period

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2
Q

Where can ICAO rules relating to the operation of international commercial aeroplanes be found?

A

Annex 6 part 1

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3
Q

What is a SMS and who runs it

A

A Safety Management System, and it is run by the Operator

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4
Q

How long must maintainance releases be held for?

A

three months.

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5
Q

What lights are mandatory, and when?

A

Anti-collision lights at all times, and Navigation lights at night.

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6
Q

what does SARP stand for?

A

Standards and Reccomended Practices. Can be found in ICAO Annex 6

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7
Q

What documents must be carried aboard a flight

A 
R.A.N.R.A.I.L
Registration
Airworthiness
Noise Certificate
Radio license
AOC (copy)
Insurance certificate
Licenses & type ratings
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8
Q

What information and forms must be carried aboard a flight

A 
S.C.A.M.T.O.W.N.
Special Pax info
Charts
ATC Flight Plan
Mass and Balance
Technical log
Operational flight plan
Weather briefing material
NOTAMS/AIS (including SAR info)
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9
Q

What information must be held on the ground for a flight?

A 
N.O.T.A.M.S.
Notams
Operational flight plan
Tech log
AIS briefing material
Mass and balance docs
Special loads documentation
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10
Q

What is the maximum distance from land an aircraft can fly without special survival equipment

A

120 minutes or 400 nm, whichever is greater. Applicable for aircraft with over 30 seats only.

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11
Q

What does EASA 145 concern?

A

Approval for aircraft maintainance

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12
Q

What are the four posts that an operator must fill?

A
  • Flight Operations manager.
  • Maintenance System manager.
  • Crew Training manager.
  • Ground Operations manager.
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13
Q

What is contained in part A of the Operations Manual (OM)

A

Part A: General and Basic information

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14
Q

What is contained in part B of the Operations Manual (OM)

A

Part B: Aeroplane Operating Matters (type specific)

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15
Q

What is contained in part C of the Operations Manual (OM)

A

Part C: Route and Aerodrome Instructions and Information

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16
Q

How far can a take-off alternate be from the take-off aerodrome for twin engine aircraft?

A

60 mins at the 1-engine inop cruise speed (up to 2 hours for ETOPS A/C)

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17
Q

How far can a take-off alternate be from the take-off aerodrome for a 3+ engine aircraft?

A

up to 2 hours at the 1-engine inop cruise speed

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18
Q

What is V(at)?

A

IAS at runway threshold (for landing). equal to V(s1g) * 1.23 or V(so) * 1.3

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19
Q

What is the definition of a Low Vis Takeoff?

A

RVR less than 400m

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20
Q

What is the minimum RVR for conducting a Visual Approach?

A

800m RVR

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21
Q

All turbine powered A/C are to be fitted with ACAS II if they have a MTOM of? AND more than ? Passenger seats

A

5700kg. 19!

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22
Q

Aeroplanes with more than ? Passenger seats or with a MTOM of greater than ? Kg must be fitted with a PA system and crew interphone

A
  1. 15,000
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23
Q

What are the CAT I approach minima?

A

Ceiling below 200ft and RVR below 550m

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24
Q

V(at) is equal to?

A

V(so) x 1.3 or V(s1g) x 1.23 whichever is the higher.

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25
Q

What are the associated Aeroplane categories and V(at) speeds?

A 
A- less than 91 kt 
B- 91-120
C- 121-140 
D- 141-165 
E- 166-210
26
Q

In low viz ops when is an auto approach and landing including roll out performed?

A

RVR less than 400m

27
Q

LVTO RVR?

A

400m

28
Q

Required RVR for visual approach?

A

800m

29
Q

What is the V(at) speed for a landing cat A aircraft

A

less than 91 kt

30
Q

What is the V(at) speed for a landing cat C aircraft?

A

121 to 140 kt

31
Q

What is the V(at) speed for a landing cat E aircraft?

A

166 to 210 kt

32
Q

What NPA have an absolute minima for an MDH of 350 ft? (2 answers)

A

NDB and SRA terminating at 2 nm

33
Q

What NPA have an absolute minima for an MDH of 300 ft? (2 answers)

A

VOR and NDB/DME approaches

34
Q

What NPA have an absolute minima for an MDH of 250 ft? (3 answers)

A

SRA terminating at 0.5 nm, VOR/DME approach and Localiser approach (no glideslope)

35
Q

What is the minimum RVR for any Non-Precision Approach?

A

not less than 750m, unless accepted by the authority.

36
Q

What is the minimum RVR for takeoff from a runway without lighting or marking?

A

500m

37
Q

What is the minimum RVR for a takeoff from a runway with edge lighting and centreline -marking-?

A

300m

38
Q

What is the minimum RVR for a takeoff from a runway with edge lighting or centreline marking?

A

400m (by night end lights are also required)

39
Q

What is the minimum RVR for a takeoff from a runway with edge lighting and centreline lighting?

A

200m

40
Q

What is the minimum RVR for a takeoff from a runway with edge lighting and centreline marking, and multiple sources of RVR information?

A

150m, 125m if the lighting is high intensity. RVR must be in limits for all sources of RVR info.

41
Q

What is the lowest possible takeoff RVR, and what is required to achieve it?

A

75m, requiring a runway equipped for CATIII approaches with certified lateral guidance facilities.

42
Q

How much of the runway must be visible at the threshold to commence takeoff?

A

90m, which equates to 6 lights.

43
Q

What is the minimum RVR for conducting an Non-Precision approach?

A

750m

44
Q

What is the DH and RVR for a Cat 1 ILS?

A

200ft, 550m

45
Q

What is the DH and RVR for a Cat 2 ILS?

A

100ft (radalt), 300m (350m for cat D aircraft manual landing)

46
Q

What visual references must be achieved by DH for an ILS approach?

A

3 lights with lateral information. only one light neccesary for cat III approaches with fail-operational autopilot.

47
Q

What is the DH and RVR for a Cat 3A ILS?

A

DH<100ft, 200m

48
Q

What is the DH and RVR for a Cat 3B ILS?

A

DH<50ft (or none), 75m

49
Q

What is the time band for daytime OTS?

A

1130Z - 1900Z

50
Q

What is the time band for nighttime OTS?

A

0100Z - 0800Z

51
Q

At what latitude do the OTS times take effect

A

030W (i.e. must be at 030W within the OTS validity times)

52
Q

What are the offsets required to achieve composite seperation in NAT MNPSA airspace?

A

+- 500ft (+- 1000 above RVSM), 15 nm

53
Q

Where can you find information relating to the airfield noise abatement procedures?

A

AIP part AD2

54
Q

At what cloud ceiling is landing on the noise-preferential runway not mandatory?

A

cloud base 500ft or less

55
Q

With what wind factors is use of the noise-preferential runway not mandatory?

A

crosswind 15kt or tailwind 5kt

56
Q

With what visibility is use of the noise-preferential runway not mandatory?

A

less than 1900m

57
Q

During the takeoff, what is the minimum altitude that an aircraft may begin a turn?

A

500ft (ICAO 400ft)

58
Q

At what height do noise abatement power reductions start?

A

800ft

59
Q

What is the NADP1 climb speed?

A

V2 + 10-20 kt

60
Q

What is the NADP2 climb speed?

A

Vzf + 10-20 kt

61
Q

at what distance from the runway must a landing aircraft be in the final landing configuration?

A

5 nm

62
Q

Above what altitude must an aircraft have quick-donning oxygen masks for flight deck crew?

A

25,000 ft

EASA facts and figures (14 decks)

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