Instrumentation

Question 1

What two organisations provide data link services to aircraft

Answer 1

SITA (Société Internationale de Télécommunications Aéronautiques) and ARINC (Air Radio Incorporated)

Question 2

What is CPDLC

Answer 2

Controller Pilot Data Link Communications

Question 3

What are the FD commands on take off with IAS below 60 knots

Answer 3

10 degrees nose down, wings level

Question 4

What are the FD commands on take off with IAS above 60 knots

Answer 4

15 degrees nose up, wings level

Question 5

What are the criteria for engaging the Flight Director in go-around mode

Answer 5

TO/GA switch pressed and below 2000’ not in take off mode.

Question 6

on a glideslope at 6 NM, what is the vertical distance subtended by a 1 degree error

Answer 6

608 ft

Question 7

on a glideslope at 0.5 NM, what is the vertical distance subtended by a 1 degree error

Answer 7

54 ft

Question 8

at what height after take off can the autopilot be engaged?

Answer 8

400 ft

Question 9

What autopilots must an aircraft have for single pilot IFR operations

Answer 9

Alt Hold and Heading Hold

Question 10

what are the maximum pitch and roll attitudes that the autopilot may command?

Answer 10

10 degrees in pitch, 30 degrees in roll

Question 11

What category of ILS is required for ain airport to support autoland

Answer 11

Cat 3 ILS

Question 12

for a dual-autopilot approach, when must the second AP be engaged?

Answer 12

prior to 800 ft RA

Question 13

At what point in the autoland will the second autopilot engage with the flight controls

Answer 13

after LOC and GS capture and at 1500 ft RA

Question 14

by what point MUST flare be armed in order to execute an autoland

Answer 14

350 ft ra

Question 15

At what height does the flare manouver begin in an autoland

Answer 15

50 ft RA. The AP disconnects fron the ILS to carry out the flare.

Question 16

in an autoland, what is the rate of descent at touchdown

Answer 16

1-2 ft/sec

Question 17

in an autoland, at what height does the autothrottle begin to retard the thrust

Answer 17

27 ft RA

Question 18

in an autoland, at what height is flare mode disengaged

Answer 18

5 ft GA

Question 19

During an autoland, at what point is the autothrottle disengaged

Answer 19

2 seconds after touchdown or on engagement of reverse thrust, whichever is sooner.

Question 20

at what height is runway align mode armed, and engaged

Answer 20

1500 ft armed, 100 ft engaged

Question 21

What is the control surface authority of a yaw damping system

Answer 21

3-6 degrees

Question 22

What are the maximum permissable pitch angles allowed by control law?

Answer 22

30 degrees nose up, 15 degrees nose down

Question 23

What are the maximum permissable roll angles allowed by control law?

Answer 23

67 degrees in a normal flight envelope, 45 degrees in high AoA mode, 40 degrees in high speed protection mode

Question 24

What is the priority of aural alerts

Answer 24

Stall, Windshear, GPWS, ACAS

Question 25

At what deviations from the selected altitude does the altitude alerting system operate

Answer 25

in a 300 to 900 ft envelope for Boeing, (250 to 750 ft for airbus)

Question 26

Which aircraft must be fitted with an altitude alerting system?

Answer 26

all jet aircraft | and any turboprop with more than 9 seats or a mass exceeding 5700kg

Question 27

What is GPWS mode 1 and what are its warnings

Answer 27

Excessive rate of descent. Warnings are SINK RATE and WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP

Question 28

What is GPWS mode 2 and what are its warnings

Answer 28

Excessive terrain closure rate. Warnings are TERRAIN TERRAIN and WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP

Question 29

What is GPWS mode 3 and what are its warnings

Answer 29

altitude loss after take off or go around. Warning is DONT SINK.

Question 30

What heights is GPWS mode 3 active between

Answer 30

50 - 700 ft

Question 31

What is GPWS mode 4A and what are its warnings

Answer 31

Unsafe terrain clearance with gear not down. Warnings are TOO LOW GEAR and TOO LOW TERRAIN

Question 32

at what height does GPWS mode 4A activate

Answer 32

500 ft at speeds below M0.35, 1000 ft otherwise

Question 33

What is GPWS mode 4B and what are its warnings

Answer 33

Unsafe terrain clearance with flaps not in landing configuration. Warnings are TOO LOW FLAPS and TOO LOW TERRAIN

Question 34

at what height does GPWS mode 4B activate

Answer 34

200 ft at speeds below M0.28, 1000 ft otherwise

Question 35

What is GPWS mode 5 and what are its warnings

Answer 35

Below glide slope alert. Warning is GLIDE SLOPE

Question 36

What is GPWS mode 6A and what are its warnings

Answer 36

Below Selected Minimum Radio Altitude. Warning is MINIMUMS MINIMUMS

Question 37

What is GPWS mode 6B and what are its warnings

Answer 37

Altitude Call-outs and Bank Angle Alert. Warning is BANK ANGLE (activates at 40 degrees bank)

Question 38

What is GPWS mode 7 and what are its warnings

Answer 38

Windshear Alert. Warning is WINDSHEAR

Question 39

When is GPWS mode 4 armed

Answer 39

after climbing through 700 ft RA

Question 40

Which aircraft must have an ACAS II system fitted

Answer 40

anything with a mass ove 5700 kg or more than 9 passenger seats

Question 41

Which version of TCAS will give resolution advisories

Answer 41

TCAS II and above

Question 42

below what height are TCAS RAs not given

Answer 42

400 ft

Question 43

below what height are TCAS "descend" RAs not given

Answer 43

1000 ft

Question 44

below what height are TCAS "increase rate of descent" RAs not given

Answer 44

1450 ft

Question 45

How many seconds from the collision area must an intruder be before a TCAS system will issue a TA

Answer 45

35 - 45 seconds

Question 46

How many seconds from the collision area must an intruder be before a TCAS system will issue a RA

Answer 46

15-35 seconds

Question 47

What is the intended vertical seperation that a TCAS system will aim to achieve

Answer 47

300 ft -600 ft

Question 48

For an aircraft above 5700 kg, what is the minimum recording time for the flight data recorder (FDR)

Answer 48

25 hours

Question 49

For an aircraft below 5700 kg, what is the minimum recording time for the flight data recorder (FDR)

Answer 49

10 hours

Question 50

when MUST a FDR start recording

Answer 50

when the aircraft is capable of moving under its own power

Question 51

when DOES a FDR start recording

Answer 51

when an engine is started

Question 52

what is the minimum recording time for a CVR

Answer 52

30 mins if the aircraft weighs under 5700 kg, 2 hours otherwise

Question 53

What are the three modes of EICAS

Answer 53

Operational, status, maintenance

Question 54

What are the four modes of ECAM

Answer 54

Flight phase related, advisory, failure related (all automatic) and aircraft system display (manual)

Question 55

what are the three ground based components of an ILS

Answer 55

Glide slope transmitter, localizer transmitter, and marker beacons (or DME)

Question 56

what is the accuracy of a radalt

Answer 56

+ or - 3% or 1 ft, whichever is greater

Question 57

what is the radio frequency of the radalt

Answer 57

4.2 - 4.4 Ghz in the SHF band, or 1.6 Ghz in the Uhf band

Question 58

What are the startup pages of the FMS

Answer 58

IDENT, POS INIT, RTE, ENG