Instrumentation Flashcards
What two organisations provide data link services to aircraft
SITA (Société Internationale de Télécommunications Aéronautiques) and ARINC (Air Radio Incorporated)
What is CPDLC
Controller Pilot Data Link Communications
What are the FD commands on take off with IAS below 60 knots
10 degrees nose down, wings level
What are the FD commands on take off with IAS above 60 knots
15 degrees nose up, wings level
What are the criteria for engaging the Flight Director in go-around mode
TO/GA switch pressed and below 2000’ not in take off mode.
on a glideslope at 6 NM, what is the vertical distance subtended by a 1 degree error
608 ft
on a glideslope at 0.5 NM, what is the vertical distance subtended by a 1 degree error
54 ft
at what height after take off can the autopilot be engaged?
400 ft
What autopilots must an aircraft have for single pilot IFR operations
Alt Hold and Heading Hold
what are the maximum pitch and roll attitudes that the autopilot may command?
10 degrees in pitch, 30 degrees in roll
What category of ILS is required for ain airport to support autoland
Cat 3 ILS
for a dual-autopilot approach, when must the second AP be engaged?
prior to 800 ft RA
At what point in the autoland will the second autopilot engage with the flight controls
after LOC and GS capture and at 1500 ft RA
by what point MUST flare be armed in order to execute an autoland
350 ft ra
At what height does the flare manouver begin in an autoland
50 ft RA. The AP disconnects fron the ILS to carry out the flare.
in an autoland, what is the rate of descent at touchdown
1-2 ft/sec
in an autoland, at what height does the autothrottle begin to retard the thrust
27 ft RA
in an autoland, at what height is flare mode disengaged
5 ft GA
During an autoland, at what point is the autothrottle disengaged
2 seconds after touchdown or on engagement of reverse thrust, whichever is sooner.
at what height is runway align mode armed, and engaged
1500 ft armed, 100 ft engaged
What is the control surface authority of a yaw damping system
3-6 degrees
What are the maximum permissable pitch angles allowed by control law?
30 degrees nose up, 15 degrees nose down
What are the maximum permissable roll angles allowed by control law?
67 degrees in a normal flight envelope, 45 degrees in high AoA mode, 40 degrees in high speed protection mode
What is the priority of aural alerts
Stall, Windshear, GPWS, ACAS
At what deviations from the selected altitude does the altitude alerting system operate
in a 300 to 900 ft envelope for Boeing, (250 to 750 ft for airbus)
Which aircraft must be fitted with an altitude alerting system?
all jet aircraft
and any turboprop with more than 9 seats or a mass exceeding 5700kg
What is GPWS mode 1 and what are its warnings
Excessive rate of descent. Warnings are SINK RATE and WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
What is GPWS mode 2 and what are its warnings
Excessive terrain closure rate. Warnings are TERRAIN TERRAIN and WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
What is GPWS mode 3 and what are its warnings
altitude loss after take off or go around. Warning is DONT SINK.
What heights is GPWS mode 3 active between
50 - 700 ft
What is GPWS mode 4A and what are its warnings
Unsafe terrain clearance with gear not down. Warnings are TOO LOW GEAR and TOO LOW TERRAIN
at what height does GPWS mode 4A activate
500 ft at speeds below M0.35, 1000 ft otherwise
What is GPWS mode 4B and what are its warnings
Unsafe terrain clearance with flaps not in landing configuration. Warnings are TOO LOW FLAPS and TOO LOW TERRAIN
at what height does GPWS mode 4B activate
200 ft at speeds below M0.28, 1000 ft otherwise
What is GPWS mode 5 and what are its warnings
Below glide slope alert. Warning is GLIDE SLOPE
What is GPWS mode 6A and what are its warnings
Below Selected Minimum Radio Altitude. Warning is MINIMUMS MINIMUMS
What is GPWS mode 6B and what are its warnings
Altitude Call-outs and Bank Angle Alert. Warning is BANK ANGLE (activates at 40 degrees bank)
What is GPWS mode 7 and what are its warnings
Windshear Alert. Warning is WINDSHEAR
When is GPWS mode 4 armed
after climbing through 700 ft RA
Which aircraft must have an ACAS II system fitted
anything with a mass ove 5700 kg or more than 9 passenger seats
Which version of TCAS will give resolution advisories
TCAS II and above
below what height are TCAS RAs not given
400 ft
below what height are TCAS “descend” RAs not given
1000 ft
below what height are TCAS “increase rate of descent” RAs not given
1450 ft
How many seconds from the collision area must an intruder be before a TCAS system will issue a TA
35 - 45 seconds
How many seconds from the collision area must an intruder be before a TCAS system will issue a RA
15-35 seconds
What is the intended vertical seperation that a TCAS system will aim to achieve
300 ft -600 ft
For an aircraft above 5700 kg, what is the minimum recording time for the flight data recorder (FDR)
25 hours
For an aircraft below 5700 kg, what is the minimum recording time for the flight data recorder (FDR)
10 hours
when MUST a FDR start recording
when the aircraft is capable of moving under its own power
when DOES a FDR start recording
when an engine is started
what is the minimum recording time for a CVR
30 mins if the aircraft weighs under 5700 kg, 2 hours otherwise
What are the three modes of EICAS
Operational, status, maintenance
What are the four modes of ECAM
Flight phase related, advisory, failure related (all automatic) and aircraft system display (manual)
what are the three ground based components of an ILS
Glide slope transmitter, localizer transmitter, and marker beacons (or DME)
what is the accuracy of a radalt
+ or - 3% or 1 ft, whichever is greater
what is the radio frequency of the radalt
4.2 - 4.4 Ghz in the SHF band, or 1.6 Ghz in the Uhf band
What are the startup pages of the FMS
IDENT, POS INIT, RTE, ENG
