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EASA facts and figures > Instrumentation > Flashcards

Instrumentation Flashcards

1
Q

What two organisations provide data link services to aircraft

A

SITA (Société Internationale de Télécommunications Aéronautiques) and ARINC (Air Radio Incorporated)

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2
Q

What is CPDLC

A

Controller Pilot Data Link Communications

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3
Q

What are the FD commands on take off with IAS below 60 knots

A

10 degrees nose down, wings level

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4
Q

What are the FD commands on take off with IAS above 60 knots

A

15 degrees nose up, wings level

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5
Q

What are the criteria for engaging the Flight Director in go-around mode

A

TO/GA switch pressed and below 2000’ not in take off mode.

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6
Q

on a glideslope at 6 NM, what is the vertical distance subtended by a 1 degree error

A

608 ft

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7
Q

on a glideslope at 0.5 NM, what is the vertical distance subtended by a 1 degree error

A

54 ft

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8
Q

at what height after take off can the autopilot be engaged?

A

400 ft

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9
Q

What autopilots must an aircraft have for single pilot IFR operations

A

Alt Hold and Heading Hold

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10
Q

what are the maximum pitch and roll attitudes that the autopilot may command?

A

10 degrees in pitch, 30 degrees in roll

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11
Q

What category of ILS is required for ain airport to support autoland

A

Cat 3 ILS

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12
Q

for a dual-autopilot approach, when must the second AP be engaged?

A

prior to 800 ft RA

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13
Q

At what point in the autoland will the second autopilot engage with the flight controls

A

after LOC and GS capture and at 1500 ft RA

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14
Q

by what point MUST flare be armed in order to execute an autoland

A

350 ft ra

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15
Q

At what height does the flare manouver begin in an autoland

A

50 ft RA. The AP disconnects fron the ILS to carry out the flare.

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16
Q

in an autoland, what is the rate of descent at touchdown

A

1-2 ft/sec

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17
Q

in an autoland, at what height does the autothrottle begin to retard the thrust

A

27 ft RA

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18
Q

in an autoland, at what height is flare mode disengaged

A

5 ft GA

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19
Q

During an autoland, at what point is the autothrottle disengaged

A

2 seconds after touchdown or on engagement of reverse thrust, whichever is sooner.

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20
Q

at what height is runway align mode armed, and engaged

A

1500 ft armed, 100 ft engaged

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21
Q

What is the control surface authority of a yaw damping system

A

3-6 degrees

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22
Q

What are the maximum permissable pitch angles allowed by control law?

A

30 degrees nose up, 15 degrees nose down

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23
Q

What are the maximum permissable roll angles allowed by control law?

A

67 degrees in a normal flight envelope, 45 degrees in high AoA mode, 40 degrees in high speed protection mode

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24
Q

What is the priority of aural alerts

A

Stall, Windshear, GPWS, ACAS

25
Q

At what deviations from the selected altitude does the altitude alerting system operate

A

in a 300 to 900 ft envelope for Boeing, (250 to 750 ft for airbus)

26
Q

Which aircraft must be fitted with an altitude alerting system?

A

all jet aircraft

and any turboprop with more than 9 seats or a mass exceeding 5700kg

27
Q

What is GPWS mode 1 and what are its warnings

A

Excessive rate of descent. Warnings are SINK RATE and WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP

28
Q

What is GPWS mode 2 and what are its warnings

A

Excessive terrain closure rate. Warnings are TERRAIN TERRAIN and WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP

29
Q

What is GPWS mode 3 and what are its warnings

A

altitude loss after take off or go around. Warning is DONT SINK.

30
Q

What heights is GPWS mode 3 active between

A

50 - 700 ft

31
Q

What is GPWS mode 4A and what are its warnings

A

Unsafe terrain clearance with gear not down. Warnings are TOO LOW GEAR and TOO LOW TERRAIN

32
Q

at what height does GPWS mode 4A activate

A

500 ft at speeds below M0.35, 1000 ft otherwise

33
Q

What is GPWS mode 4B and what are its warnings

A

Unsafe terrain clearance with flaps not in landing configuration. Warnings are TOO LOW FLAPS and TOO LOW TERRAIN

34
Q

at what height does GPWS mode 4B activate

A

200 ft at speeds below M0.28, 1000 ft otherwise

35
Q

What is GPWS mode 5 and what are its warnings

A

Below glide slope alert. Warning is GLIDE SLOPE

36
Q

What is GPWS mode 6A and what are its warnings

A

Below Selected Minimum Radio Altitude. Warning is MINIMUMS MINIMUMS

37
Q

What is GPWS mode 6B and what are its warnings

A

Altitude Call-outs and Bank Angle Alert. Warning is BANK ANGLE (activates at 40 degrees bank)

38
Q

What is GPWS mode 7 and what are its warnings

A

Windshear Alert. Warning is WINDSHEAR

39
Q

When is GPWS mode 4 armed

A

after climbing through 700 ft RA

40
Q

Which aircraft must have an ACAS II system fitted

A

anything with a mass ove 5700 kg or more than 9 passenger seats

41
Q

Which version of TCAS will give resolution advisories

A

TCAS II and above

42
Q

below what height are TCAS RAs not given

A

400 ft

43
Q

below what height are TCAS “descend” RAs not given

A

1000 ft

44
Q

below what height are TCAS “increase rate of descent” RAs not given

A

1450 ft

45
Q

How many seconds from the collision area must an intruder be before a TCAS system will issue a TA

A

35 - 45 seconds

46
Q

How many seconds from the collision area must an intruder be before a TCAS system will issue a RA

A

15-35 seconds

47
Q

What is the intended vertical seperation that a TCAS system will aim to achieve

A

300 ft -600 ft

48
Q

For an aircraft above 5700 kg, what is the minimum recording time for the flight data recorder (FDR)

A

25 hours

49
Q

For an aircraft below 5700 kg, what is the minimum recording time for the flight data recorder (FDR)

A

10 hours

50
Q

when MUST a FDR start recording

A

when the aircraft is capable of moving under its own power

51
Q

when DOES a FDR start recording

A

when an engine is started

52
Q

what is the minimum recording time for a CVR

A

30 mins if the aircraft weighs under 5700 kg, 2 hours otherwise

53
Q

What are the three modes of EICAS

A

Operational, status, maintenance

54
Q

What are the four modes of ECAM

A

Flight phase related, advisory, failure related (all automatic) and aircraft system display (manual)

55
Q

what are the three ground based components of an ILS

A

Glide slope transmitter, localizer transmitter, and marker beacons (or DME)

56
Q

what is the accuracy of a radalt

A

+ or - 3% or 1 ft, whichever is greater

57
Q

what is the radio frequency of the radalt

A

4.2 - 4.4 Ghz in the SHF band, or 1.6 Ghz in the Uhf band

58
Q

What are the startup pages of the FMS

A

IDENT, POS INIT, RTE, ENG

EASA facts and figures (14 decks)

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