Air Law Flashcards

1
Q

ICAO annex 1?

A

Personnel licensing

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2
Q

ICAO annex 2?

A

Rules of the air

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3
Q

ICAO annex 3?

A

Meteorological services for international air navigation

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4
Q

ICAO annex 4?

A

Aeronautical charts

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5
Q

ICAO annex 5?

A

Units of measurement to be used in air and ground operations

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6
Q

ICAO annex 6

A

Operation of aircraft

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7
Q

ICAO annex 7?

A

Aircraft nationality and registration marks

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8
Q

ICAO annex 8

A

Airworthiness of aircraft

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9
Q

ICAO Annex 9?

A

Facilitation

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10
Q

ICAO annex 10

A

Aeronautical telecommunications

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11
Q

ICAO annex 11

A

Air traffic services

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12
Q

ICAO annex 12

A

SAR

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13
Q

ICAO annex 13?

A

Aircraft accident investigations

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14
Q

ICAO Annex 14?

A

Aerodromes

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15
Q

ICAO annex 15?

A

AIS

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16
Q

ICAO annex 16?

A

Environmental protection (Masi)

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17
Q

ICAO Annex 17?

A

Security- safeguarding…

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18
Q

ICAO annex 18?

A

Safe transportation of dangerous goods by air

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19
Q

Which article requires each sovereign state to notify ICAO of any differences between national and international law?

A

Article 38

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20
Q

Regional structure of ICAO? (Number of Regions and regional offices)

A

7 regional offices.

9 regions.

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21
Q

Technical freedoms of the air?

A

First freedom- privilege to fly across territory of another state without landing.

Second freedom- privilege to land in another participating state for non-traffic purposes

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22
Q

Commercial freedoms of the air?

A

3rd- privilege to put down in another state traffic taken on in the state of registration

4th- privilege to take on traffic in another state destined for state of registration

5th- airline taking traffic from another state to a third state

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23
Q

Tokyo convention of 1963

A

Aims to restore and preserve control of A/C to lawful commander and ensures offences committed in the air are punished by state of registration.

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24
Q

Hague convention?

A

Terrorist hijackings should not go unpunished

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25
Q

Montreal convention 1971

A

Makes worse penalties for terrorists

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26
Q

Montreal convention 1999

A

Carrier is not liable for a passenger’s death of injury when the latter behaved stupidly. (Acts of recklessness of negligence like diving into a GE90-115B)

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27
Q

Rome Convention

A

Third parties on the ground damaged by foreign aircraft have the right of getting compensation.

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28
Q

IATA

A

Represents airlines and challenges politically limiting regulations to aid the growth of commercial aviation

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29
Q

ECAC

A

Intergovernmental organisation which promotes harmonisation of aviation regulation and a better understanding within the European territory. It gave birth to JAA of which it is now an associated body.

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30
Q

EASA

A

Taken over JAA, it is now, it ensures common safety and environmental standards at the European level. It is a legislative body.

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31
Q

Eurocontrol

A

Born to harmonise ATC services in Europe, now it has grown and represents air navigation and traffic management in Europe. It is responsible for the Air Traffic Flow Management through the CFMU

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32
Q

WTO ( world trade organisation)

A

Encourage growth and prosperity in global aviation economy and to allow competition to thrive.

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33
Q

Single European sky

A

An agreement to establish common requirements for air navigation services in the single European sky. (These include security,Human Resources, reporting systems etc.)

34
Q

Hour requirements for CPL modular

A

200 hours of which 100 must be PIC

35
Q

Cross country time required for CPL

A

20 hours of which 10 must be PIC and 10 PICUS. (At least one of these flights must be 300nm long with 2 full stops)

36
Q

CPL instrument time requirements

A

10 of which 5 can be instrument ground time

37
Q

CPL integrated requirements

A

150 hours of which 70 must be PIC.

38
Q

CPL night flying time?

A

5 hours with 3 hours of dual instruction. 5 T/Ls

39
Q

CPL+(IR) integrated requirements

A

Total 180 hours of which 70 PIC.

40
Q

CPL+ (IR) integrated X-country requirements

A

50 hours including one flight of 300 nm with 2 full stops

41
Q

CPL+IR integrated course instrument time required

A

100 hours of which 25 can be instrument ground time

42
Q

ATPL instrument time required

A

75 hours of which up to 30 can be instrument ground time

43
Q

ATPL night time requirements

A

100 hours as PIC or co-pilot

44
Q

To what level of accuracy must ATSU clocks be within?

A

+- 30 seconds of UTC

45
Q

What are the three subdivisions of the ATC service?

A

Area control service
Approach control service
Aerodrome control service

46
Q

What are the three subdivisions of Air Traffic Services

A

Air Traffic Control Service
Flight Information Service
Alerting Service

47
Q

at 15NM, what is the minimum radial seperation between two aircraft on a VOR

A

15 degrees

48
Q

at 15NM, what is the minimum radial seperation between two aircraft on a NDB

A

30 degrees

49
Q

at 15NM, what is the minimum radial seperation between two aircraft on a MDR radial from a location?

A

45 degrees

50
Q

What are the weights associated with a medium wake turbulence category?

A

7 -136 tons

51
Q

What is the radar seperation distance between a heavy WTC following a heavy WTC?

A

4nm

52
Q

What is the radar seperation distance between a light WTC following a medium WTC?

A

5nm

53
Q

Under time seperation, what is the seperation required between two aircraft with a speed differential of 0.01 mach?

A

10 minutes. -1 per additional .01 mach number differential up to 5 minutes

54
Q

What is the minimum seperation between two aircraft under RNAV with RNP 20?

A

80nm

55
Q

What is the minimum seperation between two aircraft under RNAV with RNP 10?

A

50nm

56
Q

What is the period of validity of an ASHTAM or SNOWTAM?

A

24 hours

57
Q

How much notice should a NOTAM be published with?

A

24 hours

58
Q

what is a NOTAM checklist and how iften is it issued?

A

A listing of active NOTAMS, released monthly

59
Q

What are the three parts of the AIP?

A

General, Enroute and Aerodromes

60
Q

What are the 4 types of procedural ATC

A

Radar Control
Radar Vectoring
Approach Radar
Precision Approach radar

61
Q

roughly what is the width of a stripe on a runway threshold?

A

3.75m (i.e. a runway with 12 threshold stripes is 12*3.75 = 45 m wide)

62
Q

What is the radius of an Obstacle Identification Surface?

A

15km

63
Q

Which obstacles should be marked with medium intensity lights?

A

those with a vertical extent over 45m

64
Q

Which obstacles should be marked with high intensity lights?

A

those with a vertical extent over 150m

65
Q

What colour are medium intensity obstacle lights?

A

flasing red

66
Q

What colour are high intensity obstacle lights?

A

flashing white

67
Q

At what height is an obstacle considered an en-route obstacle?

A

150m. These must be lit by day and night.

68
Q

What is the distance between ‘distance to go’ or ‘closed runway’ markings on a runway?

A

300m

69
Q

an aerodrome has 2 fire vehicles. What is the maximum fusilage width aircraft that it can accept?

A

5m. lower requires only 1 vehicle, higher requires 3 vehicles.

70
Q

What is the maximum allowable fire vehicle response time?

A

must not exceed 3 minutes from initial call to foaming.

71
Q

What colour are low intensity obstacle lights?

A

steady red

72
Q

What is a tall obstacle, and how should it be marked?

A

any obstacle over 45m, which should be marked with intermediate lights, spacing up to 45m

73
Q

How many copies of the cargo manifest can a state demand?

A

three

74
Q

How far in andvance should a state recieve a flight plan of an aircraft that intends to land at that state?

A

2 hours

75
Q

What is the maximun length of time that a passenger may remain in the transit lounge?

A

2 days

76
Q

ICAO must be notified of any accident involving an aircraft over a certain weight. what is this weight?

A

> 2250kg

77
Q

How often can snowtams & ashtams be released?

A

every 6 hours

78
Q

what is the legal alcohol limit for aircrew on flying duty?

A

0.2 promille (20mg/100ml)

79
Q

Who is responsible for producing a structural integrity/corrosion control program?

A

The state of design

80
Q

At what point is an injury considered serious?

A

if it leads to 2 days hospitalisation within 7 days

or if there are any injuries to internal organs