Oncology Flashcards
complex group of diseases which starts when cells grow out of control and damage the DNA of that cell
cancer
increase in number of cells (calluses)
hyperplasia
abnormal cells proliferating (benign or malignant)
neoplasia
immature cell abnormality, irregular, disorganized and undifferentiated
dysplasia
mature cell type conversation (cells change)
metaplasia
malignant transformation
anaplasia
proto-oncogene
controls growth of cells
oncogene
uncontrolled cell growth
tumor suppressor gene
slows down cellular division, cause cell death
mutated tumor suppressor
uncontrolled cell growth
what are the 3 characters needed in order to have “well differentiated” cells
resemble normal cells
mature cells
function more like normal cells
if a cell is well differentiated how will it grow and what kind will it be
it will grow slower, be less aggressive and typically benign
if a cell is poorly differentiated how will it grow and what will it be
will grow faster, more aggressive, and malignant
grow only locally and cannot spread by invasion or metastasis
benign (not cancer)
invade neighboring tissues, enter blood vessels, and metastasize to different sites
malignant (cancer)
it is important to know where the _______ cancer began so they can _____ that
primary; treat
“fingers” of cancer cells invade surrounding tissue
locally invasive
malignant cells travel through blood or lymph system and invade other tissues or organs to form secondary tumor
metastasis
what are the 4 common sites of metastases
brain, lung, liver, bone
what are the 5 hallmark of hereditary cancer syndrome
- cancer in 2 or more relatives
- cancer in family member <50y/o
- same type of cancer in multiple family members
- rare type of cancer in 1 or more family members
- family members with more than 1 type of cancer
what can viruses cause in our body
long term inflammation which can suppress the immune system which directly affects the cells DNA
most common STD in the U.S.
HPV
primary prevention
health promotion and illness prevention (avoid carcinogen and get adequate nutrition)
secondary prevention
screenings, dx and tx of illness (goal is to halt the progress of cancer through early screening and diagnosis)
chemoprevention
use of substances to lower the risk of cancer (tamoxifen and raloxifine) also selenium
reduces risk of breast cancer
tamoxien and raloxifene
reduced risk of prostate cancer
selenium
tertiary prevention
disease tx and rehab, health restoration (goal is to prevent FURTHER deterioration)
what types of screenings are there
physical exam
lab tests
imaging procedures
genetic testing
when should a person get colorectal screening
men and women beginning at age 50 should follow either the fecal occult blood test, flexible sigmoidoscopy, or the colonoscopy
what are the age requirments for breast check ups
age 20
age 20-29
age 45-54
age 55
age 20+ (breast)
monthly SBEs
age 20-29 (breast)
breast exam by HCP every 3 years
age 45-54 (breast)
HCP breast exam and mammo yearly
age 55 (breast)
every 2 years
for women at high risk for breast CA what should be done
MRI and mammo yearly
what are the age requirements for cervical cancer screening
age 21 (or within 3 yrs of initiating vaginal intercourse)
age 30+
age 60+
age 21 or intercourse (cervical)
pap test every 2-3 years
age 30+ (cervical)
pap test and HPV every 5 years or every 3 years with pap test only
age 60+ (cervical)
not necessary if all previous tests are negative
if you get a hysterectomy continue _____ test to r/o _____ or ______cancer
pap; vaginal; vulvular
what are the 7 warning signs of cancer
change in bowel or bladder habits a sore that does not heal unusual bleeding or discharge thickening or lump in breast or else where indigestion or difficulty swallowing obvious change in a wart or mole nagging cough
pathologist compares the appearance of cancer cells to the normal surrounding cells
grading
classifying a malignancy by the extent of spread within the body
staging
what is the framework for determining prognosis and treatment and is done BEFORE treatment begins
staging
stage 1
small cancer found only in organ where it originated
stage 2
larger cancer that may/may not have spread to the lymph nodes
stage 3
larger cancer also in the lymph nodes
stage 4
cancer has spread from original site into other organs
what does TNM stand for
T= size of primary tumor N= number of lymph nodes involved M= extent of metastasis
in situ=
contained and very small
what is the most significant prognostic factor
depth of tumor invasion at time of dx
what does M1 mean
cancer has spread to one or more distant parts of the body
still in the original tissue layer
in situ
still in the original organ
localized
spread to nearby lymph nodes or organs
regional
spread to sdistant body parts
distant
what are tumor markers used for
to monitor for recurrence
after being dx and if the marker increases that means the regimen ______; if the marker lowers that means the regimen _______
is not working ; is working
carcinoembryonic antigen looks at what and is used to
looks at gastric, lung and breast
is used to determine benefits of tx
alfa-fetoprotein AFP is mainly for _____ cancer and is used to determine _______ of treatment
liver; effectiveness
cancer antigen 125 (CA-125) is used in
ovarian, breast and pancreas to monitor tx AND recurrence of disease
cancer antigen (CA-19-9) is used for
pancreatic and will look at it in cirrhosis pt but is NOT a good screening tool but tells you if treatment is working
what are the 6 types of dx surgery
shave, punch, incisional, excisional, fine needle, core needle
doen to extract a portion of the lesion for dx reasons when the tumor is TOO LARGE to excise
incisional biopsy
2nd most diagnosed cancer in women
breast cancer
what are s/s of breast cancer
often painless lump or mass
what are risk factors for breast cancer
obese, physical inactivity, alcohol consumption, family hx
what are tx for breast cancer
mastectomy, radiation chemo
begins in the pigmented cells (flat) and can occur on any surface of the skin
melanoma
begins in the basal layer of skin after repeated exposure to the sun and mostly occurs on the face (fair skin)
basal cell
most common skin cancer among people with darker skin and typically on the legs and feet
squamous cell
clarks stage 1
confined
clarks stage 2
in the dermis
clarks stage 3&4
deeper in the dermis but still contained in the skin
clarks stage 5
in an organ
risk factors of skin cancer
sunlight/UV severe sunburns tanning family hx fair pale skin medications or medical cond
what are 4 signs of skin CA
change in an existing mole (shape, color, size of feel)
hard or lumpy skin
surface of skin oozes or bleeds and no healing
itchy, tender, painful skin
what is the ABCDE method of skin cancer
Asymmetry Border Color Diameter Evolution
if skin cancer is present the diameter of the mole is typically
larger than 6mm
skin CA dx is usually done by ______ then staging is based on ______
biopsy ; TNM
a TNM of 0=
confined
a TNM of 1=
deeper into the dermis
a TNM of 2=
1-2mm, 2-4mm, >4mm)
a TNM of 3=
is in the lymph nodes but not in an organ
a TNM of 4=
everywhere
what are the different types of biopsys
shave, punch, incisional, excisional
depending on type and stage of skin CA, what treatment is done?
excision, surgery, chemo, radiation, biological therapy
why is chemo done a few weeks after surgery
because chemo makes a person more sick and unable to heal as fast so they want the person to heal first before starting chemo
what are a few ways to reduce the chance of getting skin cancer
limit sun exposure, sun screen (SPF 30), wear protective clothing, stay away from sun lamps or tanning booths, wear a hat with brim, regularly check skin for changes in moles
