Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Internal Medicine > Oncology > Flashcards

Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Malignancy with greatest propensity for brain metastasis, found in 80% of patients at autopsy

A

MELANOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Malignancies with propensity to metastasize to the dura and can mimic meningioma

A

PROSTATE AND BREAST CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Arises in prostate and breast cancer, which have strong propensity to metastasize to axial skeleton

A

SPINAL CORD COMPRESSION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Braion metastases are best visualized on

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3 Cancers with greatest propensity to bleed

A

MELANOMA, THYROID, KIDNEY CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most common cause of hemorrhagic metastasis

A

LUNG CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most common among hematologic malignancies ti metastasize to the subarachnoid space

A

ACUTE LEUKEMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3 Solid tumors that most frequently cause leptomeningeal metastases

A

BREAST, LUNG, MELANOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Definitive method and often considered the gold standard to diagnose leptomeningeal metastases

A

DEMONSTRATION OF TUMOR CELLS IN CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CSF cytologic examination is most useful in what malignancies

A

HEMATOLOGIC MALIGNANCIES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Part of the spine affected most commonly in epidural metastasis

A

THORACIC SPIN > LUMBAR > CERVICAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Presenting symptom of epidural metastasis in virtually all patients

A

BACK PAIN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Best test for epidural metastasis

A

MRI OF THE COMPLETE SPINE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Surgical procedure of choice for epidural metastasis

A

COMPLETE REMOVAL OF THE MASS, TYPICALLY ANTERIOR TO THE SPINAL CANAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Standard treatment for brain metastases

A

WHOLE-BRAIN RADIOTHERAPY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Most serious toxicity from radiotherapy as they are often irreversible

A

LATE DELAYED TOXICITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Complication seen most commonly after whole-brain radiotherapy

A

LEUKOENCEPHALOPATHY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Second only to myelosuppression as dose-limiting toxicity of chemotherapeutic agents

A

NEUROTOXICITY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most significant risk factor for cancer overall

A

AGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Most common cancer worldwide

A

LUNG CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Second most common cancer worldwide

A

BREAST CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Genes involved in restraining cell growth wherein mutation of one allele may lead to tumorigenesis

A

ONCOGENES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most effective means of treating cancer

A

SURGERY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Delivery of radiation therapy from a distance

A

TELETHERAPY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Encapsulated sealed sources of radiation implanted directly or adjacent to tumor

A

BRACHYTHERAPY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Radionuclides targeted to the site of the tumor

A

SYSTEMIC RADIATION THERAPY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Most significant risk factor for head and neck cancer

A

ALCOHOL AND SMOKING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most commonly used treatment for head and neck cancer

A

CHEMORADIOTHERAPY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Most effective drugs against highly emetogenic agents

A

SEROTONIN RECEPTOR ANTAGONISTS (i.e ondansetron)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Frequency of sigmoidoscopy as a screening test for adults >/= 50 years old

A

EVERY 5 YEARS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Frequency of FOBT as a screening test for adults >/= 50 years old

A

ANNUALLY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Frequency of colonoscopy as a screening test for adults >/= 50 years old

A

EVERY 10 YEARS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

3 Cancers associated with BRAF oncogene

A

MELANOMA, LUNG, COLORECTAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

2 Cancers associated with bcr-abl oncogene

A

CML, ALL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cancer associated with bcl-2 oncogene

A

FOLLICULAR LYMPHOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cancer associated with C-myc oncogene

A

BURKITT’S LYMPHOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

2 Cancers associated with L-myc oncogene

A

LUNG AND BLADDER CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

2 Cancers associated with N-myc oncogene

A

NEUROBLASTOMA, LUNG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

3 Cancers associated with ras oncogene

A

COLON, LUNG, PANCREATIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cancer associated with RET oncogene

A

MEN 2A AND 2B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Cancer associated with APC tumor suppressor gene

A

COLON CANCER (FAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cancer associated with DCC gene mutation

A

COLON CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Malignancy associated with alkylating agents and benzene

A

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Malignancy associated with aromatic dyes and Schistosoma hematobium

A

BLADDER CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

2 Malignancies associated with asbestos and arsenic

A

LUNG CANCER AND MESOTHELIOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Malignancy associated with HTLV-1

A

ADULT T-CELL LEUKEMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Malignancy associated with vinyl chloride

A

LIVER ANGIOSARCOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Primary cause of lung cancer worldwide

A

SMOKING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

2 Types of lung cancer implicated with smoking which tend to present centrally

A

SQUAMOUS CELL AND SMALL CELL CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Most prevalent type of lung cancer among women, young adults and non-smokers presenting peripherally

A

ADENOCARCINOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Subtype of lung adenocarcinoma that grows along the aveoli without invasion (lepidic growth), may present with classic ground glass appearance on CT

A

BRONCHIOALVEOLAR CARCINOMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Results from local extension of tumor growing in the apex involving C8 and T1 and T2 nerve roots with shoulder pan radiating to the ulnar distribution and Horner’s syndrome

A

PANCOAST SYNDROME OR SUPERIOR SULCUS TUMOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Most common life threatening metabolic complication of malignancy associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

A

HYPERCALCEMIA FROM ECTOPIC PTH/PTH-RELATED PROTEIN PRODUCTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

2 Paraneoplastic syndromes associated with small cell lung carcinoma

A

SIADH, CUSHING’S SYNDROME, LAMBERT EATON SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Treatment of choice for small cell lung carcinoma

A

CHEMOTHERAPY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Treatment of choice for early stage non-small cell lung cancer

A

SURGICAL RESECTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Location of majority of hamartomas

A

LUNGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Best time for breast examination

A

DAYS 5-7 OF THE MENSTRUAL CYCLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Most important prognostic variable in breast cancer

A

TUMOR STAGE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Hormonal treatment for breast cancer which increases the risk of endometrial cancer

A

SELECTIVE ESTROGEN RECEPTOR MODULATOR (SERM)

61
Q

Treatment that increases breast cancer risk but decreases ovarian and endometrial cancer risk

A

ORAL CONTRACEPTIVE PILLS

62
Q

Monoclonal antibody directed against the erb/her2-neu receptor used for breast cancers

A

TRASTUZUMAB

63
Q

Premalignant lesion that suggests elevated risk of breast cancer

A

LOBULAR NEOPLASIA

64
Q

Esophageal cancer related to smoking, and alcohol, arising in the middle 1/3

A

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

65
Q

Esophageal cancer related to acid reflux and Barrett’s esophagus arising in the distal 1/3

A

ADENOCARCINOMA

66
Q

Initial symptoms of esophageal cancer in majority of the patients

A

PROGRESSIVE DYSPHAGIA AND WEIGHT LOSS

67
Q

Type of gastric carcinoma with loss of cell cohesion developing throughout the stomach resulting to loss of distensibility

A

DIFFUSE TYPE

68
Q

Type of gastric carcinoma frequently ulcerative and involving the antrum and lesser curvature, often initiated by H. pylori

A

INTESTINAL type

69
Q

Gastric cancer metastatic to the periumbilical region

A

SISTER MARY JOSEPH NODES

70
Q

Gastric cancer metastatic to the peritoneal cul-de-sac

A

BLUMER’S NODES

71
Q

Most common site for hematogenous spread of gastric cancer

72
Q

Only chance of cure for gastric cancer

A

COMPLETE SURGICAL REMOVAL OF THE TUMOR WITH RESECTION OF ADJACENT LYMPH NODES

73
Q

Most frequent site of extra nodal lymphoma

74
Q

Primary treatment of gastric lymphoma

A

ERADICATION OF H. PYLORI

75
Q

Characteristic of colonic polyps most associated with malignancy

A

VILLOUS SESSILE ADENOMATOUS POLYPS; > 2.5 CM IN SIZE

76
Q

Multiple polyps in the small and large intestines with osteomas, fibromas, and congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium

A

GARDNER’S SYNDROME

77
Q

Multiple polyps in the large intestine with brain tumors

A

TURCOT’S SYNDROME

78
Q

Multiple small and large intestinal polyps (hamartomatous/juvenile), mucocutaneous pigmentation, tumors of the ovary, breast, and pancreas

A

PEUTZ-JEGHERS SYNDROME

79
Q

Other term for hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer

A

LYNCH SYNDROME

80
Q

Hereditary autosomal dominant predisposition to colon, ovarian, and endometrial cancers caused by defects in DNA mismatch repair

A

HEREDITARY NONPOLYPOSIS COLON CANCER (LYNCH SYNDROME)

81
Q

Most effective class of agents to reduce the risk of colon cancer adenomas and carcinomas

A

ASPIRIN AND NSAIDS

82
Q

Colon cancer that is usually non-obstructive, discovered late, with iron-deficiency anemia

A

RIGHT-SDED COLON CANCERS

83
Q

Colon cancer that are usually with obstructive symptoms and apple-core or napkin ring deformity on barium studies

A

LEFT-SIDED COLON CANCERS

84
Q

Hematochezia, tenesmus, and narrowing of stool caliber are symptoms of

A

RECTOSIGMOID CANCER

85
Q

Period of time when most recurrences after surgical resection of large bowel cancer occur

A

WITHIN THE FIRST 4 YEARS

86
Q

Number of sampled lymph nodes necessary to accurately define tumor stage during surgery

A

MINIMUM OF 12 NODES

87
Q

Most frequent visceral site of metastasis of colon cancer

88
Q

Backbone chemotherapeutic agent for colon cancer and acts as a radiosensitizer for treatment of rectal cancer

A

5-FLUOROURACIL

89
Q

Major side effect of irinotecan used in FOLFIRI regimen for colon cancer

90
Q

Common side effect of oxaliplatin used in FOLFOX regimen for colon cancer

A

DOSE-DEPENDENT SENSORY NEUROPATHY

91
Q

Most common location of pancreatic cancer

A

PANCREATIC HEAD

92
Q

Most common environmental risk factor for pancreatic cancer

93
Q

Most common physical sign of hepatocellular carcinoma

A

HEPATOMEGALY

94
Q

Criteria for orthotropic liver transplant based on Milan criteria

A

SINGLE LESION = 5 CM OR = 3 NODULES EACH = 3 CM; NO GROSS VASCULAR INVASION

95
Q

Variant of HCC associated with younger females, elevated blood neurotensin levels, no cirrhosis

A

FIBROLAMELLAR HCC

96
Q

Most common benign liver tuimor among women

A

HEMANGIOMA

97
Q

Benign liver mass associated with contraceptive use, with low potential for malignant change and risk of bleeding

98
Q

Benign liver mass with characteristic central scar, hypovascular on arterial phase and hypervascular on delayed phase CT

A

FOCAL NODULAR HYPERPLASIA

99
Q

Most useful diagnostic tool in differentiating between benign and malignant liver masses

A

TRIPHASIC CT SCAN

100
Q

Mucin-producing adenocarcinoma that arise from the bille ducts, majority of which are located in the hilar or central area

A

CHOLANGIOCARCINOMA

101
Q

Nodular tumors arising from the bifurcation of the common bile duct

A

KLATSKIN TUMOR

102
Q

Adenocarcinoma arising within 2 cm of the distal end of the common bile duct

A

AMPULLARY CARCINOMA

103
Q

Palpable gallbladder associated with obstructive biliary malignancy

A

COURVOISIER’S SIGN

104
Q

Standard surgical procedure for pancreatic head and uncinate tumors

A

PYLORUS PRESERVING PANCREATICODUODENECTOMY (MODIFIED WHIPPLE’S PROCEDURE)

105
Q

Most common site of malignancy in the urinary tract

A

URINARY BLADDER

106
Q

Most common source of gross hematuria

A

URINARY BLADDER

107
Q

Most common presentation of bladder, renal pelvis, and ureteric cancer

A

PAINLESS HEMATURIA

108
Q

Vaccine component used as intravesiculart therapy in bladder cancer

109
Q

Most common environmental risk factor for bladder and renal cell carcinoma

110
Q

Most common histopathologic type of renal cell carcinoma

A

CLEAR CELL CARCINOMA

111
Q

Classic triad of renal cell carcinoma

A

HEMATURIA, ABDOMINAL PAIN, FLANK OR ABDOMINAL MASS

112
Q

Site where most prostate cancers develop

A

PERIPHERAL ZONE

113
Q

Predominant therapy to reduce future risk of prostate cancer diagnosis

A

5-ALPHA REDUCTASE INHIBITORS (FINASTERIDE)

114
Q

Test to establish prostate cancer diagnosis

A

TRANSRECTAL ULTRASOUND-GUIDED BIOPSY

115
Q

Scoring used to measure histologic aggressiveness of the dominant and secondary glandular histology of prostate cancer

A

GLEASON SCORING

116
Q

Most common site of metastasis of tissue sarcoma

117
Q

Mainstay of treatment for Ewing’s sarcoma, PNET, and rhabdomyosarcoma

A

CHEMOTHERAPY

118
Q

Most common malignant tumor of the bone

A

PLASMA CELL TUMORS

119
Q

Account for majoriuty of bone sarcomas, predominant in young males, usuallyu occuring on the metaphysis of long bones, distal femur, proximal tibia and humerus

A

OSTEOSARCOMA

120
Q

Moth-eaten appearance, spiculated periosteal reaction (sunburst appearance), cuff of periosteal new bone formation (Codman’s triangle) are radiographic hallmarks of

A

OSTEOSARCOMA

121
Q

Most important prognostic factor for long-term survival in osteosarcoma

A

RESPONSE TO CHEMOTHERAPY

122
Q

Site most commonly involved in bone metastasis

123
Q

Lack of endonuclease necessary for thymidine dimer repair –> increased susceptibility to skin cancers of all types

A

XERODERMA PIGMENTOSA

124
Q

One or few small waxy, semitranslucent nodules forming around a central depression that may be ulcerated, crusted or bleeding, edge is rolled or pearly with rodent ulcer, rarely metastasizes

A

BASAL CELL CARCINOMA

125
Q

Most common site of basal cell carcinoma

A

FACE/HEAD AND NECK AREA

126
Q

Most common type of basal cell carcinoma

A

CLASSICAL OR NODULAR TYPE

127
Q

Dome-shaped, elevated, hard infiltrating lesion (deeply nodular), may eventually develop an ulcer, occurs on sun-exposed areas

A

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA

128
Q

In situ form of squamous cell carcinoma

A

BOWEN’S DISEASE

129
Q

Major risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma of the skin

A

CHRONIC LONG TERM SUN EXPOSURE

130
Q

Known precursor lesion of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin

A

ACTINIC KERATOSIS

131
Q

Most common type of melanoma

A

SUPERFICIAL SPREADING

132
Q

Single greatest risk factor for melanoma

A

PERSONAL HISTORY OF MELANOMA

133
Q

Most common type of melanoma in dark-skinned individuals and Asians

A

ACRAL-LENTIGINOUS MELANOMA

134
Q

Single most important prognostic factor for melanoma

A

REGIONAL LYMPH NODE METASTASIS

135
Q

Most important determinant of outcome in melanoma

A

EARLY EXCISION

136
Q

Primary lesion erythematous edematous evanescent rash

137
Q

Thickening of the skin with accentuation of skin fold markings

A

LICHENIFICATION

138
Q

Loss of epidermis without loss of dermis

139
Q

Loss of both epidermis and dermis

140
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome common to renal, hepatocellular cancer, and cerebellar hemangioblastomas

A

ERYTHROCYTOSIS

141
Q

Trousseau’s syndrome or migratory thrombophlebitis is paraneoplastic syndrome of

A

PANCREATIC CANCER

142
Q

Myasthenia gravis and pure red cell aplasia are paraneoplastic syndrome of

143
Q

Lambert-eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is a paraneoplastic syndrome of

A

SMALL CELL CARCINOMA OF THE LUNG

144
Q

ADR of nitrosurea

A

NEUROTOXICITY

145
Q

ADR of oxaliplatin

A

NEUROTOXICITY

146
Q

ADR of procarbazine

A

DISULFIRAM-LIKE REACTION

147
Q

ADR of Bleomycin

A

PULMONARY FIBROSIS

148
Q

ADR of actinomycin D

A

MYELOSUPPRESSION

Internal Medicine (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions