Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

Nationally standardized recommendations for healthcare developed for the purpose of improving the quality of patient care and treatment outcomes are called ____

A

Clinical practice guidelines

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2
Q

The most comprehensive and most frequently updated and used clinical practice guidelines are developed by the ______

A

National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN)

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3
Q

Which organization’s guidelines are focused on a single question or group of questions around an important topic?

A

The American Society of Clinical Oncology (ASCO)

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4
Q

Which organization created guidelines related to nursing care, symptom management, and other aspects of patient care to help nurses make proper decisions in the education and management of their patients?

A

The Oncology Nursing Society

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5
Q

The Joint Commission requires that clinical practice guidelines are fully integrated into a facility’s cancer program.

True or False?

A

True

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6
Q

A set of technical specifications that define how to calculate and rate an important indicator of quality is called a ______ measure.

A

Performance

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7
Q

Clinical practice guidelines are not required by CoC accredited facilities.

True or False?

A

False. Clinical practice guidelines are required for CoC accreditation.

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8
Q

The CoC recommends but does not require clinical patient guidelines to be used when discussing treatment options at Cancer Conferences.

True or False?

A

True

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9
Q

An emerging movement in healthcare insurance that rewards providers for meeting pre-established targets for delivering healthcare services is called _____

A

Pay for performance

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10
Q

The most common route of chemotherapeutic administration is

A. Intravenously.

B. Orally.

C. Intra-arterially.

D. Topically.

A

A. Intravenously.

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11
Q

What contributes to the initial development of clinical practice guidelines (CPG)?

A.Clinical trial results

B. Fee-for-service payment analyses

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

A.Clinical trial results

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12
Q

What practice(s) is included in Clinical Practice Guidelines (CPG)?

A. An assessment of the benefits and harms of alternative care options

B. Recommendations intended to optimize patient care that involve evidence-based medicine

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. Neither (a) nor (b)

A

C. Both (a) and (b)

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13
Q

Herceptin is an example of a/an ____ drug.

A. Immunotherapy

B. Hormone

C. Chemotherapy

D. Ancillary

A

A. Immunotherapy

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14
Q

Autologous stem cell transplant is frequently a recommended treatment option for

A. Breast cancer in younger patients

B. Refractory anemia

C. Multiple myeloma

D. Recurrent lung cancer

A

C. Multiple myeloma

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT a treatment for prostate carcinoma?

A. Estrogen

B. Orchiectomy

C. Corticosteroids

D. Prostatoseminal vesiculectomy

A

C. Corticosteroids

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16
Q

Which of the following is a malignant tumor of the smooth muscle?

A. Adenocarcinoma

B. Leiomyosarcoma

C. Teratocarcinoma

D. Rhabdomyosarcoma

A

B. Leiomyosarcoma

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17
Q

Malignant teratoma arises from

A. Embryonal tissue

B. Connective tissue

C. Epithelial tissue

D. Vascular tissue

A

A. Embryonal tissue

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18
Q

The presence of Reed-Sternburg cells is diagnostic of

A. Pancoast tumor

B. Bowen’s disease

C. Hodgkin’s disease

D. Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

C. Hodgkin’s disease

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19
Q

Mycosis fungoides is

A. A malignant neoplasm arising only in striated muscle

B. A virulent fungus

C. A malignant lymphoreticular neoplasm primarily in the skin

D. A tumor of smooth muscle

A

C. A malignant lymphoreticular neoplasm primarily in the skin

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20
Q

The most common histology of carcinoma of the esophagus is

A. Undifferentiated carcinoma

B. Squamous cell carcinoma

C. Spindle cell carcinoma

D. Adenocarcinoma

A

B. Squamous cell carcinoma

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21
Q

An anaplastic tumor is

A. Well differentiated

B. Undifferentiated

C. Low grade

D. Stage II

A

B. Undifferentiated

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22
Q

The most common metastatic site from adenocarcinoma of the prostate is

A. Bone

B. Bladder

C. Brain

D. Rectum

A

A. Bone

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23
Q

What are three major pathways for metastasis to occur?

A

Blood stream, Lymphatic system, Fluid exudates

24
Q

A solid tumor derived from epithelial tissue

A. Sarcoma

B. Carcinoma

C. Adenocarcinoma

D. Melanoma

A

B. Carcinoma

25
Q

A type of cancer derived from supportive and connective tissue such as bone, fat, muscle, and cartilage.

A. Carcinoma

B. Adenocarcinoma

C. Sarcoma

D. Melanoma

A

C. Sarcoma

26
Q

A type of cancer that develops from melanocytes

A. Melanoma

B. Sarcoma

C. Carcinoma

D. Leukemia

A

A. Melanoma

27
Q

A cancer that originates in the bone marrow

A. Adenocarcinoma

B. Lymphoma

C. Leukemia

D. Sarcoma

A

C. Leukemia

28
Q

A type of cancer that forms in glandular cells

A. Carcinoma

B. Sarcoma

C. Lymphoma

D. Adenocarcinoma

A

D. Adenocarcinoma

29
Q

A type of cancer that arises in lymphoid tissue

A. Adenoma

B. Lymphoma

C. Sarcoma

D. Carcinoma

A

B. Lymphoma

30
Q

A term that refers to large, soft, fleshy tumors; common in thyroid and breast

A. Follicular

B. Medullary

C. Nodular

D. Pleomorphic

A

B. Medullary

31
Q

What structures make up the boundaries of the anatomic triangle for an axillary lymph node dissection?

A. Chest wall, intercostobrachial nerves and latissimus dorsi

B. Axillary vein, serratus anterior and intercostobrachial nerves

C. Axillary vein, chest wall and intercostobrachial nerves

D. Axillary vein, serratus anterior, and latissimus dorsi

A

D. Axillary vein, serratus anterior, and latissimus dorsi

32
Q

A type of glioma (brain tumor) noted for its star like extensions into surrounding tissue.

A

Astrocytoma

33
Q

Chemoembolization, a procedure in which the blood supply to a tumor is blocked after anti cancer drugs are given in blood vessels near the tumor, is also referred to as

A

TACE (Transarterial chemoembolization)

34
Q

What term refers to measuring the amount of DNA in malignant cells?

A

DNA Ploidy

35
Q

What term refers to measuring a specific stage of cell division to assess how aggressive the tumor is?

A. Ploidy status

B. S Phase

C. Flow cytometry

A

B. S Phase

36
Q

Most tumor markers are sensitive and specific enough to be used in screening programs.

True or False?

A

False.

37
Q

Tumor markers are most useful in detecting early relapse of a malignancy and monitoring the response to therapy.

True or False?

A

True.

38
Q

What treatment modality is used to achieve bone marrow ablation?

A. Radiation

B. High dose chemotherapy

C. Immunotherapy

D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

39
Q

A tumor that shrinks greater than 50% in size after treatment is considered a ______ response.

A

Partial

40
Q

What is the patient’s disease status when a tumor decreases by less than 50%?

A. Active disease

B. Partial response to treatment

C. Stable disease

A

C. Stable disease

41
Q

What staging system is designed to meet the needs of all three staging systems: TNM, Extent of Disease, and Summary Stage?

A

Collaborative stage

42
Q

Duke’s alphabetic staging system is used to stage what kind of cancer?

A

Colon cancer

43
Q

Which staging system for melanoma is based on depth of tumor invasion, and ranges from level I through V

A

Clark Level

44
Q

Which staging system for melanoma is based on the measurement of tumor thickness in millimeters?

A

Breslow Depth of Invasion

45
Q

Which staging system is a modification of the Ann Arbor system and is used by the AJCC to stage Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Lugano

46
Q

Which staging system is used as the basis for the AJCC staging GYN chapters?

A

FIGO

47
Q

If a patient has an adverse reaction to a chemotherapy drug in a combination regimen, and the replacement drug is from another group, the replacement drug

A. Is still considered First Course of Treatment.

B. Is considered Subsequent Treatment.

C. Is considered Palliative Treatment.

A

B. Is considered Subsequent Treatment

48
Q

All therapy administered after a relapse of leukemia is

A. First Course of Treatment

B. Subsequent Treatment

C. Palliative Treatment

A

B. Subsequent Treatment

49
Q

If a patient has an adverse reaction to a chemotherapy drug in a combination regimen and the replacement drug is from the same group as the original drug, the replacement drug

A. Is still considered First Course of Treatment

B. Is considered Subsequent Treatment

C. Is considered Palliative Treatment

A

A. Is still considered First Course of Treatment

50
Q

Methotrexate is what kind of systemic therapy?

A

Chemotherapy

51
Q

Leucovorin is what kind of systemic therapy?

A

Chemotherapy

52
Q

5-FU or 5-Fluorouracil is what kind of systemic therapy?

A

Chemotherapy

53
Q

Fludarabine and other drugs ending in -ine are what kind of systemic therapy?

A

Chemotherapy

54
Q

Taxanes such as Taxol, Taxotere, and paclitaxel are forms of

A

Chemotherapy

55
Q

Cisplatin, carboplatin, doxorubicin, and other drugs ending in -in are forms of

A

Chemotherapy

56
Q

Lupron, Tamoxifen, Arimidex, and Faslodex are forms of

A

Hormone therapy

57
Q

Cimetidine, BCG, interferon, and Herceptin are forms of

A

Immunotherapy