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CTR Exam 2021 > NAACCR CTR Prep > Flashcards

NAACCR CTR Prep Flashcards

1
Q

Name the three types of cancer registries.

A
  1. Hospital registry.
  2. Central registry.
  3. Specialty registry.
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2
Q

What are the two types of central cancer registries?

A

Population based and Non-population based

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3
Q

The main purpose of a _____ registry is the evaluation and improvement of patient care, and the evaluation and improvement of the cancer program.

A

Hospital

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4
Q

The geographic area from which the population source of a central registry is drawn is called the _____ area

A

Catchment

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5
Q

The only type of registry that can calculate incidence and mortality rates.

A

Population-based registry

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6
Q

What are the two national population-based cancer registries?

A

NPCR and SEER

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7
Q

A non-population-based registry that focuses on one specific cancer, and often advocates for patients is called a _____ registry.

A

Specialty

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8
Q

A non-population-based registry has a catchment area.

True or False?

A

False. Only a population-based registry has a catchment area.

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9
Q

The NCDB, VA, and ACTUR are examples of what kind of registry?

A

Non-population based central registries

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10
Q

The CoC, NCDB, and AJCC all operate under the _______

A

American College of Surgeons

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11
Q

This professional consortium maintains the STORE manual, focuses on improving patient care, survival and quality of life; and provides accreditation for hospital-based cancer programs.

A

The Commission on Cancer (CoC)

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12
Q

This non-population-based central registry collects data from CoC-accredited facilities.

A

NCDB (National Cancer Database)

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13
Q

This association develops and implements the TNM staging system.

A

AJCC (American Joint Committee on Cancer)

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14
Q

This federal agency oversees the NPCR (National Program of Cancer Registries).

A

CDC (Centers for Disease Control)

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15
Q

This federal program funds state central registries, monitors cancer trends, advances research, and sets priorities for allocating health resources.

A

NPCR (National Program of Cancer Registries)

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16
Q

The specialized cancer agency of the World Health Organization whose objective is to promote international collaboration in cancer research; published the “blue books”, which later became the ICD-O-3.

A

IARC (International Agency for Research on Cancer)

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17
Q

This membership organization is not a standard setter, and does not collect cancer data, but represents, certifies, and educates cancer registrars.

A

NCRA (National Cancer Registrars Association)

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18
Q

The NCI (National Cancer Institute) over sees which national population-based registry program?

A

SEER (Surveillance Epidemiology and End Results)

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19
Q

This professional organization, which is run by a board of directors, develops and promotes uniform data standards, provides education and training, aggregates population-based data from the US and Canada, and is the lead agency for the SSDI manual.

A

NAACCR

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20
Q

A network that connects multiple computers and peripheral equipment within a single location.

A

LAN (Local Area Network)

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21
Q

A network that connects multiple computers and peripheral equipment from several distant locations.

A

WAN (Wide Area Network)

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22
Q

Software or hardware that restricts access between a protected network and an external network.

A

Firewall

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23
Q

A type of network connection that allows for secure remote access.

A

VPN (Virtual Private Network)

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24
Q

An information management system that stores various data elements in logical groupings known as records or tables.

A

Database

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25
Q

A type of database design that uses keys to link record types, and is commonly used for the cancer registry is called a _____

A

Relational database design

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26
Q

A logical grouping of database elements is called a

A

Record

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27
Q

An arrangement of data into rows and columns is called a

A

Table

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28
Q

NAACCR’s structured form that allows for interoperability of exported data is called a data exchange ______ ______

A

Record layout

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29
Q

The most important software used by a cancer registry; software that manages the registry database.

A

Data management system (DMS)

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30
Q

To protect the registry from catastrophic loss of data, it must be protected by a comprehensive _____ _____ plan

A

Disaster Recovery

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31
Q

This kind of budget is calculated as if it’s being done for the first time; it starts with a budget base of $0

A

Zero-based budget

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32
Q

This kind of budget is prepared by subdepartmental managers or supervisors, and is submitted to management for approval.

A

Bottom-up budget

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33
Q

This kind of budget is prepared by top management and is passed down to other departments. The majority of registries have this kind of budget.

A

Top-down budget

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34
Q

This budget is sometimes called a strategic budget, and allows for the costs associated with growth.

A

A 5-year budget

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35
Q

What expense category covers furniture, computers, printers, vendor fees, and any equipment with a life expectancy of more than a year?

A

Capital expenses

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36
Q

What expense category covers disposable items such as paper, ink, and paper towels?

A

Supplies

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37
Q

What expense category covers employee wages and health insurance?

A

Salaries and Benefits

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38
Q

What expense category covers recurring costs, such as rent, housekeeping, and utilities?

A

Fixed expenses

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39
Q

A study that shows how long it takes employees to do a particular task and how the work transitions from one task to another.

A

Time-motion study

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40
Q

This term refers to how work progresses through the registry, and can be documented in detail in chart form.

Bonus: Name the type of chart.

A

Workflow

Bonus: Workflow Chart

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41
Q

This term refers to the total amount of work.

A

Workload

42
Q

This form of time-motion study documents the tasks done by an employee throughout the day, but doesn’t list details or the steps of each specific task.

A

Daily productivity sheet

43
Q

Patient-specific data which includes patient identifiers is ______ data.

A

Confidential

44
Q

Aggregate data that does not contain patient identifiers is called _______ data; the kind of data used for research.

A

Non-confidential data

45
Q

The process of making data unintelligible to unauthorized parties.

A

Encryption

46
Q

One of the first federal laws to protect patient privacy was the ________ of 1974.

A

Privacy Act

47
Q

What establishes and describes the professional and ethical standards which a cancer registrar must uphold?

A

The NCRA Professional Practice Code of Ethics

48
Q

A legal consideration for registrars under HIPAA; a socially defined standard of care for the protection of others against unreasonable risks.

A

Duty of Care

49
Q

Restricting access, use and disclosure of confidential information is called _____

A

Privacy

50
Q

The method by which privacy or confidentiality is maintained.

A

Security

51
Q

_____ and ______ form a team of protection against unintended access, use, and disclosure of confidential information.

A

Privacy and security

52
Q

A multihospital organization using the same reporting registry software is considered what kind of registry?

A

Non-population-based central registry

53
Q

What process is essential to a central registry to prevent over-counting the same cases?

A

Record consolidation

54
Q

In which order are these tasks performed?

Record Consolidation

Patient Linkage

Tumor Linkage

A
  1. Patient linkage.
  2. Tumor linkage.
  3. Record consolidation.
55
Q

A unique 9-digit patient identifier consisting of the year a patient was first seen at the facility and an automatically assigned sequence number.

A

Accession number

56
Q

A patient’s accession number at a facility never changes, is never reassigned, and is not changed if the patient has additional primaries.

True or False?

A

True

57
Q

Sequence numbers 00-59 and 99 are assigned to what type of tumors?

A

Malignant

58
Q

Sequence numbers 60-88 are assigned to what type of tumors?

A

Non-malignant

59
Q

The patient typically has two addresses listed in the registry: the current address, and the address where the patient lived when diagnosed. Which address(s) should be updated if the patient moves?

A

Only the patient’s current address should be updated.

60
Q

If the race of the patient is unknown, what should be entered in all the race fields?

A

Unknown

61
Q

If the patient is only one race, code their race in field 1, and fill the remaining race fields with ___

A

88

62
Q

If the patient is Hawaiian and another race, which race should be coded first?

A

Hawaiian

63
Q

If the patient is white and another race, which race is entered in the first field?

A

The other race

64
Q

In what order are comorbidities added to the patient’s abstract?

A

In the order they appear on the discharge summary.

65
Q

Which Class of Case Codes are analytic?

A

00-22

66
Q

Which Class of Case Codes are nonanalytic?

A

30-49 and 99

67
Q

The Date of First Contact is the date the patient

A. Was first seen at your facility.

B. First became analytic at your facility.

C. The date of pathological diagnosis.

A

B. First became analytic at your facility.

68
Q

If the patient was NOT diagnosed at your facility, but received part or all of their first course of treatment at your facility, what is their Date of First Contact?

A. The date of initial diagnosis.

B. The date they were first seen at your facility.

C. The date they were first treated for cancer at your facility.

A

C. The date they were first treated for cancer at your facility.

69
Q

The date a cancer is first diagnosed either clinically or pathologically, regardless of where that diagnosis takes place, is the

A

Date of diagnosis

70
Q

Which manual is used first to code histology?

A

The Solid Tumor Rules

71
Q

If a histology is not located in the Solid Tumor Rules, which manual should be consulted next?

A

The ICD-O-3

72
Q

Kaposi’s Sarcoma should be coded to the site in which it arises. If it arises in the skin and another site at the same time, it should be coded to which site?

A

The skin, NOS (C44.9)

73
Q

If malignant melanoma is diagnosed from a metastatic site and no primary site is identified, what site should it be coded to?

A

The skin, NOS. (C44.9)

74
Q

What are the behavior codes for the following:

Benign

Borderline

In Situ

Malignant

A

0 - Benign

1 - Borderline

2 - In Situ

3 - Malignant

75
Q

Standardized treatment protocols created by doctors for doctors based on stage of disease.

A

NCCN Guidelines (National Comprehensive Cancer Network)

76
Q

All treatment given to a patient prior to disease progression or recurrence.

A

First Course of Treatment

77
Q

Active surveillance and the decision not to treat are both considered First Course of Treatment.

True or False?

A

True

78
Q

This kind of treatment is given to prevent the spread of cancer or prevent recurrence, and is only reportable if the patient was actually diagnosed with cancer.

A

Prophylactic treatment

79
Q

Any therapy that modifies, controls, removes, or destroys cancer qualifies as this kind of treatment.

A

First Course of Treatment

80
Q

What are the four types of treatment available to cancer patients?

A

Systemic, Radiation, Surgery, Other

81
Q

Chemotherapy, hormone therapy, immunotherapy, hemeatopoetic transplant, and endocrine therapy are all forms of _______ treatment.

A

Systemic

82
Q

In the Reason for No Radiation field, what’s the code if radiation WAS administered?

A

0

83
Q

In the Reason for No Radiation field, what’s the code if radiation was recommended but wasn’t given and there’s no documentation as to why it wasn’t given?

A

9

84
Q

In the Reason for No Radiation field, what’s the code if radiation wasn’t given because the patient expired?

A

5

85
Q

In the Reason for No Radiation field, what’s the code if radiation wasn’t given because it wasn’t in the plan.

A

1

86
Q

In the Reason for No Radiation field, what’s the code if radiation wasn’t given because it was contraindicated?

A

2

87
Q

In the Reason for No Surgery of the Primary Site field, what’s the code if surgery WAS performed?

A

0

88
Q

In the Reason for No Surgery of the Primary Site field, what’s the code if surgery wasn’t performed because it was contraindicated?

A

2

89
Q

In the Reason for No Surgery of the Primary Site field, what’s the code if surgery wasn’t performed because it wasn’t part of the plan?

A

1

90
Q

In the Reason for No Surgery of the Primary Site field, what’s the code if the patient expired before surgery could be performed?

A

5

91
Q

In the Reason for No Surgery of the Primary Site field, what’s the code if surgery was recommended but refused by the patient, patient’s family, or patient’s guardian?

A

6

92
Q

In the Reason for No Surgery of the Primary Site field, what’s the code if surgery was recommended but you do not know if surgery was performed?

A

8

93
Q

In the Reason for No Surgery of the Primary Site field, what’s the code if you don’t know whether surgery was recommended or performed?

A

9

94
Q

Radiation given to draining lymph nodes are coded in what field?

A

Radiation to Draining Lymph Nodes

95
Q

The most common form of external beam radiation uses

A

Photons

96
Q

This type of external beam radiation is commonly used as a boost treatment to the breast.

A

Electrons

97
Q

Cisplatin is what form of systemic therapy?

A

Chemotherapy

98
Q

Flutamide is what form of systemic therapy?

A

Hormone therapy

99
Q

Alfa-2b interferon is what form of systemic therapy?

A

Immunotherapy

100
Q

What is the purpose of text in an abstract?

A

To justify your coding choices

101
Q

Considering the Radiation/Surgery Sequence order, what qualifies as surgery?

A. Surgery of the primary site.

B. Scope of Lymph Node Surgery.

C. Surgery of other site.

D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

CTR Exam 2021 (13 decks)

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