OMA / OMB Flashcards

1
Q

When do we not need a destination alternate

A

o Flight < 6 hours
o Vis 5 km +
o Ceiling 2,000 feet or Circling + 500 feet if greater.
o Two Separate Runways

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2
Q

When can we consider runways to be separated?

A

o Separate Approach Procedures based on Separate Approach Aids
o If they cross a blockage on one does not prevent the planned operation on the other.

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3
Q

When do we require two destination alternates?

A

o If destination weather is unavailable.
o If destination weather is below planning minima for ETA ±1 hour
o Landing not assured at destination as Landing depends on Specific Wind Component / runway state.

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4
Q

When planning for an alternate, the TAF indicates in a prob/tempo that the weather will be below limits.
Can this alternate be used?

A

SAM EDIT: I’M NOT SURE THIS IS SO SIMPLE.
OMA TABLE 8.1.6.1 shows the applicability criteria.

For me it means:
Tempo / Prob which shows improvement AT DEST ALT should be disregard
If deterioration and transient / showery / short-lived then mean wind and dust exceeding limits may be disregard

If it is a persistent (haze, mist, fog) then mean wind should be within required limits.

. o Yes
o Prob/tempo can be disregarded

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5
Q

What is the planning minima for a Take-off alternate?

A

o At or above the minima for the expected instrument approach.
o Any limitation related to one engine inop or dispatch under MEL shall be taken into consideration.

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6
Q

Within what distance must a Take-off alternate be?

A

o 1 hour still air flight time at 1 eng inop cruise speed

o 320 nm

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7
Q

Within what distance must a cruise alternate be?

A

o A319 - 380 nm

o A320 - 400 nm

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8
Q

What is the planning minima for a destination alternate if only a non-precision approach is available?

A

o MDA + 200 feet

o RVR + 1,000 m

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9
Q

How long is a tempo forecast expected to last?

A

o Individually less than one hour each episode

o In aggregate less than half of the period specified.

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10
Q

How much extra fuel should be carried for LVPs?

A

o Half an hour

o About 1,000 kg

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11
Q

What is the final reserve?

A

o 30 minutes holding fuel
o 1,500 feet above Destination Alternate Aerodrome
o ISA Conditions
o Expected weight overhead the Destination Alternate Aerodrome.

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12
Q

If planning to tanker maximum fuel, what are the maximum landing weight considerations to base your tanker figure around?

A

o MLW – (1% of MLW)
o A320 LW = MLW – 660 kg = 65,340 kg
o A319 LW = MLW – 610 kg = 60,390 kg

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13
Q

When can you not tanker fuel?

A

o When you expect to land on a contaminated or slippery runway.
o When expecting to land on a performance limited runway.

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14
Q

For fuel planning, what is the associated fuel usage associated with –
 Engine Anti Ice

A

o 1 kg/min or 2kg/min in the hold

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15
Q

For fuel planning, what is the associated fuel usage associated with –
 Engine + Wing Anti Ice

A

o 2 kg/min or 3 kg/min in the hold

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16
Q

For fuel planning, what is the associated fuel usage associated with –
 Taxi Fuel

A

o Single Engine: 7 kg/min

o Two Engines: 10 kg/min.

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17
Q

For fuel planning, what is the associated fuel usage associated with –
 APU Fuel

A

o 2 kg/min (120 kg/hour)

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18
Q

For fuel planning, what is the associated fuel usage associated with –
 Trip fuel adjustment for increased track mileage, or reduced track mileage

A

o Reduction of mileage: 4 kg / nm

o Increase in mileage: 5 kg / nm

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19
Q

What is contingency fuel?

A

o 5% of trip fuel, or

o 5 minutes holding at 1,500 feet above destination aerodrome, ISA conditions

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20
Q

What is contingency fuel carried for?

A

o Unforeseen adverse circumstances:
o Unfavourable Flight Level
o Unfavourable Track
o Unfavourable Unforecast Wind

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21
Q

What is the minimum RFF category for departure, destination and alternates?

A

o Departure/Destination: 4 (temporary downgrade <72 hours)
o Alternates: Non UK: 4
UK: 5

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22
Q

When can we continue to fly to destination knowing we will get there below CNR?

A

o Landing at destination assured

o EAT or Maximum Delay Known

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23
Q

What is the fuel for landing for Normal, Caution and Emergency phases? And what would your actions be?

A

o Normal: CNR
o Caution: May be below CNR at destination.
 Re-plan with a closer alternate
 Decrease speed (Cost Index Minimum)
 Obtain direct routes
 Fly optimum Flight Level
 Land & refuel.
o Emergency: Below Final Reserve Fuel at destination.
o May land with less than final reserve fuel: “PAN” call reporting fuel remaining in minutes
o WILL land with less than final reserve fuel: “MAYDAY” call reporting fuel remaining in minutes.

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24
Q

What are the limitations of LMC’s?

Eg max changes, when should a new load sheet be required, new perf calculations be done?

A
o New load sheet required if +10 or -20 Pax
o New Performance calculation if;
 Positive LMC & TOGA Take-off planned
 Positive LMC > 250 kg
 MACTOW changed by more than 2%
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25
What is the minimum oil quantity?
o 9.5 quarts + 0.5 quart per hour of expected flight.
26
What are the RVSM requirements?
``` o 2 ADRs o 2 PFDs (Primary Altimeters must agree within 200 feet prior to & during RVSM flight.) o 1 AP o 1 FCU o 1 FWC o 1 Transponder with Mode S ```
27
When does positioning count as a sector?
o If positioning within an FDP containing a split duty. | o Unless it is at the end of the FDP then it doesn’t count as a sector.
28
When can we extend an FDP as part of a split duty?
o Two or more sectors separated by a period of time less than a minimum rest period o < 3hours rest: max. extension is NIL o 3 to 10 hours rest: max extension is half of the consecutive hours of rest taken.
29
What are the absolute limits on flying hours?
o 28 consecutive days: 100 hours | o 1 Year: 900 hours
30
What are the maximum duty hours?
o 7 consecutive days: 55 hours (can be extended to 60 due to unforeseen delays.) o 14 consecutive days: 95 hours o 28 consecutive days: 190 hours
31
How many hours can go into discretion to extend an FDP?
3 hours except in cases of emergency
32
When must a discretion report be filed?
o Discretion > 2 hours o Reduced Rest > 1 hour o Exceedance of cumulative limits on flying.
33
By how much can you reduce a rest period?
o Home base: maximum of 1 hour, but not less than 12 hours Flight Deck / 11 hours Cabin Crew. o Away from Base: minimum requirement is that allocated room must be available for minimum of 10 hours.
34
State a number of responsibilities of the commander?
o Safe operation of the aircraft & for the safety of its occupants & cargo o May offload any pax or cargo that in his opinion will represent a potential hazard to safety of the aircraft o Will not allow any pax to be drunk to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or occupants is compromised o In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision or action, take any action he deems necessary & in such an event he may deviate from the rules, operational procedures & methods in the interests of safety.
35
What are the First Officer handling limits?
``` o Cross Wind: 20 knots o No planned tailwind for *** FO o No Flaps 3 landings for *** FO (unless required by an emergency procedure.) o No FO takeoff if VIS < 400 m o No Contaminated Runway o No Windshear o Minimum Runway width 45 m o Minimum VIS for Circling 5,000 m ```
36
What is the procedure for reporting a bird strike?
o Inform ATC at the time of incident. | o Extra field to be completed on the SafetyNet on-line form.
37
When may flex not be used for takeoff?
CORRECTION: (reference: OMB 4.5.6) o Contaminated Runway o Dispatch planned with landing gear extended NOT CORRECT: o Windshear reported Or is it? FCOM PER TOF THR FLX 40
38
What are the minimum take off climb gradients?
o Second Segment: 2.4% Gross o Final Segment: 1.2% Gross Ref OMB 4.4.2
39
How would you calculate a landing and approach climb gradient? Approach Climb: One engine inoperative, gear up & approach configuration. Landing Climb: All engines operating, gear down & approach configuration.
 Approach climb 2.1% gross (LPC LDG Perf. gives this, hence Single Engine Case considered by the LPC.)  LOW VIS climb 2.5% gross (More stringent version of approach climb applied if DH
40
What are the low visibility wind limits?
 Headwind - 30 knots  Crosswind - 20 knots  Tailwind - 10 knots
41
What is the minimum RVR for takeoff? What if you’re not LVO qualified? What visual segment is required?
 125 metres  150 metres if not LVO qualified.  90 metre visual segment, this is an aircraft design requirement, A320 family compliant.
42
Is the third segment RVR required for takeoff or landing?
 Only if relevant, ie o Less than 60 knots expected after an RTO at V1 in the Take-off case (ADS < ⅔ TODR to be certain.) o Less than 60 knots during the landing roll. (LDR Vs LDA should give you an indication of this.)
43
Do you need RVR’s for takeoff in LVP’s or is met visibility OK?
 Yes. |  RVR required as conversion from Met VIS only allowed for landing & if RVR required is > 800m.
44
Do you need RVR’s for takeoff in LVP’s or is met visibility OK?
 Yes. |  RVR required as conversion from Met VIS only allowed for landing & if RVR required is > 800m.
45
When do LVP’s come in force?
 RVR < 600 m |  Ceiling < 200 feet
46
How many infants may be carried on board?
 2 per accompanying adult. (8 life jackets on 319, 10 on 320, 8 life cots)
47
Circling approach, when must you disconnect the autopilot?
 100 feet below the MDA.
48
The dispatcher informs you human remains are being carried. Can you carry them? What about ashes?
```  No  Unless Ashes: o Suitable container o Death Certificate o Cremation Certificate o Hand Baggage Only. ```
49
Tell me about the carriage of musical instruments, specifically cellos?
 Small instruments to fit into overhead locker.  Where not practical to combine instrument with another item of hand luggage, one small extra item allowed  Larger instruments eg Cellos: o Seat to be purchased o Window seat o Not a restricted seat o Centre of mass < 30 cm above the top of seat cushion o Standard weight 10 kg (subject to local assessment) [GHM]
50
A passenger arrives on a stretcher, can we carry him?
 No
51
Which seats on the airbus are restricted?
 Row 1, A B C D  Overwing Rows  Last Row, C D
52
Who may not sit in restricted seats?
```  C - Children < 16 years  H - Hearing, Sight or other disability  I - Infants on Laps  P - Pregnant, Prisoners  P - Physical Size  E - Elderly if frail  D - Deportees ```
53
Where would you find a list of dangerous goods, and which can we carry?
 OMA 9.1.3  Exceptions are: o Items for airworthiness or operating reasons o To provide, during flight, medical aid to a patient.
54
What if someone turned up on board carrying dangerous goods, what would you do if: a) on the ground, b) in flight?
 Response in both cases would depend very much on the nature of the dangerous goods in question.
55
What does the REC MAX altitude mean?
 Displayed on the MCDU PROG PAGE  Provides a 0.3g Buffet Margin  Aircraft will climb at 300 fpm at Max CLB Thrust  Aircraft will cruise in level flight at Max CRZ Thrust  Aircraft will maintain a speed above green dot & below VMO/MMO  A higher FL can be selected up to a point where a 0.2g buffet margin is reached.  Maximum FL selectable is FL398
56
What does the OPT ALT mean and how is it calculated?
 Based on Cost Index, Weight and FMGC Wind Data  Compromise between Time and Fuel Saving  Requires a 15 minute CRZ time
57
What is the minimum number of cabin crew?
3
58
Can you operate with three cabin crew? What if the senior goes sick down route? What are the considerations/actions?
```  Yes  Uprank next most senior crew member (1 year experience, 20 sectors on type)  Duty Pilot Authorisation Required  150 Pax maximum  Consider the number of *** crew  Cannot leave or transit a Crew Base. ```
59
Can you board the aircraft with only 3 cabin crew? What are the considerations?
```  Yes  SCCM must be present  No refuelling  1 pilot must be present & on the flight deck  150 pax maximum ```
60
What levels of bomb warnings are there?
 RED - Specific & credible – Requires immediate action ie diversion/disembarkation.  AMBER (Ground Only) doubtful credibility - Discuss with Network Duty Manager course of action.  GREEN - Not specific, not credible – No action required.
61
You receive a RED bomb warning. What would you do? | On Stand
o Disembark Pax & Crew o Hand Baggage to be taken off with them. o Give a ‘Security Problem’ as the reason. o Pax to be taken to location separate from other passengers o Advise ground crews to vacate the area o Remove aircraft to a remote location & search if time exists. o After Police give “All Clear”  Full search of aircraft including catering, etc.  All Passengers, cabin & hold baggage to be screened again  Pax to be reconciled with their luggage  All of this before re-embarkation is permitted.
62
You receive a RED bomb warning. What would you do? | During taxi
o Advise ATC & passengers of a “Security Problem.” o Request details of remote parking requirements o Request immediate availability of steps to the aircraft o Advise ATC of a need to locate passengers 200 m upwind of the aircraft as quickly as possible. o Disembark Pax & Crew o Hand Baggage to be taken with them o Only use slides if steps are not available (normal evac procedures now apply)
63
You receive a RED bomb warning. What would you do? | In Flight
o Declare an emergency o Divert to nearest suitable airfield o Fly as normally as possible, in accordance with checklist, etc. (turbulence penetration speed good compromise) o Brief Cabin Crew to conduct a discrete search of toilets & galleys for suspicious articles. o Do not raise cabin altitude, maintain or reduce if possible, Level off & descend to FL100 when possible. o PA: Should state that threat is against the airline & although most likely a hoax, must be treated seriously. o On landing same as for threat on taxi.
64
What is the difference between a precautionary and emergency landing?
 A precautionary landing is one in which under normal circumstances there will be no requirement to evacuate.
65
What calls would you make for an unplanned and planned emergency landing?
 Unplanned: “ATTENTION CREW, BRACE BRACE.”  Planned: 2,000 feet “CABIN CREW TAKE UP LANDING POSITIONS.” 500 feet “BRACE, BRACE.”
66
When may a cabin crew member initiate an evacuation?
 Obvious, Immediate & life threatening situation, ie catastrophic, any crew member may initiate the evacuation.
67
What is the definition of catastrophic?
 Serious Structural Damage (hole in the fuselage)  Death or injury of the occupants.  Examples:  Ditching  Uncontrolled cabin fire / smoke  Severe structural damage, eg hole in the fuselage, abnormal attitude severe scraping sound as aircraft came to a stop.
68
What are the wake vortex separation minima for take-off?
Full Length Intersection Heavy 2 mins 3 mins A380 3 mins 4 mins
69
What is the wake vortex separation minima for approach?
Upper Medium (B757) 4 miles Heavy 5 miles A380 7 miles
70
What level does RVSM start and what is the separation? Where would you find the list of required equipment?
 FL290  1,000 feet vertically  QRH SI-70
71
Tell me about allowable frost and icing on the airframe? When should you deice?
 3mm of frost allowed on lower wing surfaces in area cold soaked by fuel.  Thin hoarfrost is acceptable, provided surface features can still be seen, on the:  Fuselage  Radome  Engine Cowl
72
How do you remove contamination forward of the aircraft windscreens?
 By mechanical methods only, ie a brush.
73
When should Engine Anti-ice ON be selected in the LPC for take-off performance considerations?
 OAT ≤ 10⁰C and visible moisture present |  If you plan to use anti-ice before one engine out acceleration altitude, ie cloud ceiling ≤ 1 engine out accel’n alt.
74
Above what speed will the auto-brake take effect if a take-off is rejected?
 72 knots
75
What angle should the weather radar be set to for takeoff?
 ≈ 4⁰ Nose Up
76
When should crosswind be taken into account for a crosswind take-off technique? And what is the technique?
 Crosswind > 20 knots o Sidestick Fully Forward o Set Thrust to 50% N1, allow it to stabilise. o Rapidly set 70% N1 o Then smoothly increase power to T/o Power detent (FLEX or TOGA as appropriate) by 40 knots GS. o At 80 knots slowly release the Sidestick to be neutral by 100 knots.
77
What speed on take-off does nose wheel steering stop?
 130 knots
78
At what height can you engage the auto pilot after takeoff?
 100 feet aal
79
How many miles from the route centreline is MORA calculated?
 10 nm
80
How much vertical clearance is provided with a MORA for obstacles up to 5000ft and above 5000ft?
 1,000 feet clearance for obstacles up to 5,000 feet |  2,000 feet clearance for obstacles above 5,000 feet.
81
Should you correct MSA’s for temperature and wind? Explain how?
 Yes |  Using the tables provided in OMA 8.1.1.3 & QRH SI-20
82
Which category of airports require a visit as part of an operating crew or through simulator training?
 Cat C
83
Which category requires self briefing? How is this self briefing recorded by the commander?
 Cat B  Cat B Restricted  By signing the OFP.
84
When can Wing Anti-ice be used? (Hot air from Pneumatic system heats 3 outboard slats.) Can it be used on the ground?
 If severe ice accretion expected or if any indication of icing on the airframe.  If switched on whilst on the ground, it runs a 30 second test sequence then closes for as long as the aircraft is on the ground.
85
What is the difference between SAT and TAT?
 SAT: Static Air Temperature which is the ambient temperature of the air.  TAT: Total Air Temperature which is the temperature measured in the pitot tube. This is higher than SAT due to friction & adiabatic increase due to air compression, called ‘Ram Rise.’
86
Which hydraulic system runs the normal brakes?
Green
87
Do we manually have to select alternate brakes?
No
88
Is anti-skid available on the alternate brakes?
 Normally yes, but it depends on the nature of the failure that put you onto the Alternate Braking System. Anti-skid may be either deactivated: o Electrically: A/SKID NW STRG sw off, Power Supply Failure or BSCU Failure o Hydraulically: G+Y LO PR, or brakes supplied by accumulator pressure only.
89
When does antiskid become available (eg above what ground speed)?
 Above 20 knots ground speed, it is deactivated below this speed.
90
Name the 4 levels of braking depending on failures?
 Normal Brakes  Alternate Brakes with Anti-skid  Alternate Brakes without Anti-skid  Park Brake
91
How is anti-skid downgraded on the alternate braking system?
 If it’s available it is not downgraded. The BSCU still operates it, albeit via different valves.
92
Is auto-brake available on the alternate braking system?
No
93
If ATC tell you on approach that braking actions are poor/poor/poor what would you do?
 If this is a temporary state due to passing Wx, possibly hold until conditions improve.  Check Landing performance in the LPC.  Consider crosswind by checking QRH-IFL  Perhaps consider a diversion to a more suitable airfield if safest option.
94
Double engine failure – what are your initial actions, where would you go, how far could you reach?
 ENG MODE SEL - IGN  THRUST LEVERS - IDLE  SPEED - 300 knots (Optimum Relight Speed)  PITCH - 3⁰ Nose Down is a good initial starting point  LANDING STRATEGY Determine (Choose an airfield set up approach & extend cerntreline)   At 300 knots, the aircraft can fly 2 nm per 1,000 feet (no wind)  During final approach 6⁰ Glideslope is realistic.  Don’t worry if you need to bust Flap Speeds to configure  Yellow electric pump may help to lower the gear if Yellow Hydraulics Available (Check HYD Page)
95
What’s the difference between OPEN CLB and CLB?
 OPEN CLB mode disregards all altitude constraints up to the FCU selected altitude.  CLB mode meets all constraints defined in the FMGC (will not adjust speed to meet a missed constraint though)
96
When is the PTU inhibited?
 Aircraft is on GROUND, and  Either: Park Brake is set, or NWS is in the Towing Position, and  One Engine Master is ON and the other is OFF  Also, it will not run within 40 seconds of Cargo Door operation.
97
Which systems have hydraulic priority and why?
Flight controls (below priority valve)
98
What are the turbulence penetration speeds? Is there a difference between the A319 and the A320?
 Above FL320 - M0.76  FL200 – FL320 - 275 knots  Below FL200 - 250 knots  No Difference between A319 & A320.
99
What would your actions be if experiencing severe turbulence (think cabin as well)?
 SIGNS - ON  AP - KEEP ON  A/THR - OFF (if thrust changes become excessive)  DESCENT - CONSIDER  Brief CC - NITS style brief  N - Flight Conditions & expected severity  I - Whether crew should be seated/acceptable level of service  T - Expected duration of turbulence  S - Any other relevant information.
100
You are in CLB/ALT* then new FL given, what happens?
 You select the new FL on the FCU  Vertical Mode reverts to V/S  Lateral Mode remains unchanged.
101
What are the potential problems with using V/S at high levels?
 V/S guidance has priority over the speed guidance. |  So the FMGC may decelerate to achieve the selected V/S, potentially causing a Low Speed Event.
102
Can you burn your contingency fuel on the ground?
 Yes |  Being held at the holding point is one of the unforeseen events that contingency fuel is loaded to protect against.
103
What is the VHF monitoring policy for VHF1 and VHF2? What about clearance and digital clearance?
 VHF1 - Both Pilots to monitor at all times  VHF2 - If using VHF2, continue to monitor VHF1 to ensure continued SA During CRZ both pilots monitor VHF2 at an audible volume.  DCL - Preferred method of obtaining clearance. Both pilots to verify the printed clearance & confirmation  R/T Clearance - Both pilots must hear, understand & verify the clearance. Headsets must be worn.
104
Do we correct VAPP for gusts? What is the maximum VAPP you can set?
 Yes,  In case of strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 knots, VAPP should be at least VLS + 5 knots.  The 5 knot increment above VLS may be increased up to 15 knots at the flight crew’s discretion.
105
Can you re-engage a C/B in flight which has tripped by itself?
 No, unless as a last resort Captain considers it necessary to do so for the safe continuation of the flight.  Only one re-engagement should be attempted.
106
Which C/Bs can you never re-engage?
 Fuel Pumps of any tank.
107
When should you select IGN on?
 Take-Off:  Standing Water  Heavy Rain  Heavy Rain or severe turbulence expected after Take-off  Descent:  Heavy Precipitation encountered or expected  Standing water on Landing Runway
108
What levels of RNAV navigation do easyJet have certification for?
RNAV 1 - P-RNAV Terminal Air including below MFA 1.0 nm RNAV 5 - B-RNAV Enroute and airspace above MFA5.0 nm RNP APCH RNAV (GNSS) or (GPS) Approach RNAV final approach with straight segments only 0.3 nm RNP AR APCH: special authorisation required (specified in OMC & ABS) due to complexity of procedure. OMA 8.3.2.6
109
What is the limit for 2 primary altimeters to be within before entering RVSM airspace and within it?
 200 feet
110
A pilot should inform ATC when entering what level of turbulence?
 OMA, just states: | o “When encountering turbulence, pilots are urgently requested to report such conditions to ATC ASAP.”
111
On what 3 occasions should a Nav Accuracy check be required?
```  No check required if GPS PRIMARY is available.  Otherwise: o IRS only navigation o PROG PAGE: LOW ACCURACY o NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on MCDU OMB 2.3.15 ```
112
What is the limit for a pass/fail of the nav accuracy check?
 Error 3 nm, FM Position not reliable
113
Where do you find out the effect of failed or downgraded equipment at an airfield?
 OMA 8.1.3.11
114
Can you start an approach with the RVRs below limits?
 Yes, but you may not continue below 1,000 feet above TDZE unless RVR > applicable minima.
115
Can you tell me about the validity of your JAR licence?
 Issued in the UK, complies with the new EASA rules & will be revalidated as an EASA licence once it expires. Has to be revalidated every 5 years.  Contains a valid Type Rating which is valid for 1 year. I’m required to pass a proficiency check each year to keep this current (LPC) & this also satisfies the requirements for a valid IR. The check can be carried out within the 3 month period preceding the expiry of the rating.  A valid Class 1 medical is required in order to exercise the privileges of the license, the medical is also renewable every year.
116
What is the maximum crosswind limits for take-off and landing? What about from a narrow runway?
```  38 knots including gusts  Narrow Runway:  DRY: 38 knots  WET: 33 knots  Contaminated 10 knot ```
117
Can the aircraft autoland on a narrow runway?
No | OMB 4.8
118
Can the aircraft autoland on runway which has been cleared but the width is still less than 45 meters?
 Yes, as this is not considered to be a Narrow Runway, see flowchart in QRH CW-30
119
What are the wind limits for the passenger and cargo doors?
 Passenger Doors - 65 knots  Cargo Doors - 40 knots Increasing to 50 knots if aircraft into wind or Cargo Door on Leeward Side.  Cargo Doors must be closed before wind reaches 65 knots.
120
What are the speed limits and maximum tiller deflection for:
 1 deflated tire, on 1 or more gear, limit 3 - 7 knots when turning  2 deflated tires, on same gear - 3 knots 30⁰  Damaged tires - Do Not Taxi
121
Autopilot minimum disconnects for –
 Non precision approach - MDA  Cat 1 ILS - 160 feet  Cat 2 ILS - 80 feet  Circling approach - MDA – 100 feet
122
What is the maximum brake temperature for take-off?
 Brake Fans Off - 300⁰C |  Brake Fans On - 150⁰C
123
Where would you find the minimum flight crew oxygen requirement?
 FCOM LIM-35
124
Starter cycle limitations for the APU?
 3 starter motor cycles  Wait 60 minutes  Attempt 3 more
125
Starter cycle limitations for the Engines?
 4 consecutive cycles (max 2 minutes each)  Pause between start attempts 20 seconds  15 minute cooling period after 4 starts attempts  No running engagement of the starter when N2 above 20%
126
Max altitude for flaps and gear?
 FLAPS - 20,000 feet |  GEAR - 25,000 feet
127
What are the gear operating speeds?
 Extended - 280 knots  Extend - 250 knots  Retract - 220 knots
128
Maximum speeds for all flap configurations?
```  FLAPS 1 - 230 knots  FLAPS 1+F - 215 knots  FLAPS 2 - 200 knots  FLAPS 3 - 185 knots  FLAPS FULL - 177 knots ```
129
Crew health, what time is required after:
```  Local Anaesthetic - 24 hours  General Anaesthetic - 48 hours  Alcohol - 10 hours minimum (less than 5 units in 14 hours preceding the 10 hr ban)  Deep sea diving (>10m) - 48 hours  Blood donation - 24 hours ```
130
Explain landing minima if RVR’s are unserviceable?
 Met Vis can be converted to RVR using the table at OMA 8.1.3.10 Provided: o Only used for landing o Only used to calculate a required RVR > 800m o Not used if RVR is reported
131
Firearms in the cabin, can you carry them? If so under what circumstances? What about carrying firearms in the cargo hold, what are the limitations?
 In the Cabin under certain circumstances; o UK Police & Protection Officers if escorting a protected person o Italian & Spanish Domestic Flights – Police Officers o Certain requirements apply. OMA 9.2.  In the hold: o Sporting Firearms & ammunition o Ammunition not loose & maximum 5 kg. OMA 9.2 ref
132
What is IRS drift? Where do you find the tolerances?
 Position error of the IRS position |  OMB 2.3.25.2 Shutdown
133
When do you do a rapid align/full alignment of the IRS’s? When do you consider the IRS to unserviceable?
 Rapid Align - residual ground speed > 5 knots  Failed if - residual ground speed > 15 knots after 2 consecutive flights  Failed if - residual ground speed > 21 knots  Full Align if:  First Flight of the Day  GPS not available & long flights in poor nav aid coverage airspace expected (not sure if this is still true, table in part b 2.3.22 shutdown)
134
What are the flight instrument tolerances?
 PFDs within 20 feet of each other  PFDs within 25 feet of airfield elevation  PFDs within 100 feet of ISIS
135
Why when following an RA do you turn off the flight directors?
 To ensure auto-thrust SPEED mode |  To avoid possible confusion between FD bar orders & TCAS aural & VSI orders
136
What is the mode reversion if NAV is lost?
 HDG
137
When do you need to make cold temperature corrections?
 Surface temperature is -10⁰C or below.
138
Do you need to file and ASR if you go around?
Yes
139
You are flying an approach in LVP’s, you have some kind of failure at 2000ft. Can you continue? When must you go around?
 Continue if, by 1,000 feet:  ECAM (check-list items) complete  RVR at least equal to that required for downgrade  Briefing updated to include new procedure & DH ref. the downgrade  Decision to downgrade is completed by 1,000 feet above TDZE.
140
What must you go around for below 1,000ft in LVPs?
```  ALPHA FLOOR activation.  Cavalry Charge – Loss of AP  Triple Click – Downgrade of Capability  Single Chime – Amber Caution  Engine failure ```
141
EDITED: AGE WAS 14. THE OMA SAYS 13!!!!! Do we carry children under the age of 13? What are the requirements?
EDITED: THE AGE IS 13 NOT 14!!!!! OMA 8.2.2.5  Yes  Must be accompanied by a passenger of age 16 years or above.  Max ten under 13 year olds to each passenger of over 16 years.
142
What are the stabilities when in alternate law?
 Load Factor Limitation - Similar to that in Normal Law  Low Speed Stability - Gentle nose down signal from 5 to 10 knots above VSW, replaces α protection.  High Speed Stability - Nose Up demand introduced above VMO/MMO
143
When in alternate law, why is the aircraft put into direct law when the gear is extended?
 This is the only way to introduce a simplified Flare Mode. |  Instead of the nose down demand below 50 feet, you just get the Direct stick-to-elevator relationship
144
On an LVP approach below 1000ft explain what happens to the aircraft?
 800 feet - Landing Inhibit  700 feet - FMGC Data Lock (ILS CRS, FREQ & Performance Data)  500 feet - “Stable/check” or “Not Stable Go-Around / Go-Around Flaps”  400 feet - LAND on FMA (Displayed if LOC & GS modes active & at least one RA available.) PF Checks Inbound Course  350 feet - If no LAND seen on FCU, Go-Around  200 feet - Autoland Light becomes Active, Go-Around if it comes on.  100 feet - ALERT HEIGHT, based on Fail Operational Auto-land System Below Alert height continue for single failures unless Autoland Light Comes ON.  40 feet - FLARE on FCU, if not seen Go-Around unless visual refs allow manual landing.  30 feet - THRUST IDLE  10 feet - “Retard”  Touchdown - ROLLOUT on FMA
145
Which slats have anti-ice?
 3 outboard slats (3, 4 & 5)
146
Cabin search/tidy? When does a search apply?
```  On a Cold Aircraft  Turnarounds in the UK  Turnarounds in Amman  Turnarounds in Moscow  Prior to departure to Amman or Tel Aviv ```
147
When does crew inexperience end?
 First Officers: o 100 flying hours & 50 sectors within consolidation period of 120 days from FLC.  Captains: o 100 flying hours & 50 sectors within consolidation period of 120 days from FLC. o Successful completion of the first recurrent Simulator Check.
148
What are the pitch limits for landing on an A319 and A320 and when should Pitch be called?
 A Tail Scrape will occur: o A319: - 15.5⁰ (13.9⁰ LDG Gear Compressed) o A320: - 13.5⁰ (11.7⁰ LDG Gear Compressed)  “PITCH” should be called at 10⁰ nose up.
149
Landing distance procedures – |  When should you use “without reverser”
o When calculating the IFLD on the LPC as it defaults to MAX reverse for both WET & DRY runways Is this still true?
150
Landing distance procedures – |  What multiple failures are you allowed to combine?
o None if using the QRH. | o Apply as many as required using the LPC.
151
IFLD using the LPC for a DAMP runway. What selection do you apply in the LPC for Takeoff, Landing-Dispatch & Landing-InFlight?
 Take-off: DRY  Landing (Dispatch) WET  Landing (In-Flight) GOOD
152
IFLD using the LPC for a SLIPPERY WHEN WET runway. What selection do you apply in the LPC for Takeoff, Landing-Dispatch & Landing-InFlight?
 Take-off: ICY  Landing (Dispatch) STANDING WATER  Landing (In-Flight) MEDIUM
153
Vapp – What would you set for?
 Normal Operations - VAPP  Gusty Winds - VAPP + 5 to VAPP + 15 knots  Ice Accretion - VAPP + 5 knots in CONF FULL  Ice Accretions - VAPP + 10 knots in CONF 3
154
When can you continue with an EGPWS warning?
 During Daylight VMC conditions with terrain & obstacles clearly in sight, alert may be considered cautionary.
155
What is the maximum engine restart altitude?
 FL250
156
What is the easy ops frequency?
131.4
157
What is the minimum RVR for a straight in visual approach?
800m
158
If doing a visual approach, what is the minimum VIS and Ceiling requirements?
 VIS: 5 km |  Ceiling: 2,500 feet
159
Talk me through a visual approach from a downwind position.
```  Manually ACTIVATE APPR  Select FDs to OFF  Select the BIRD  From abeam threshold time 45 seconds ± wind for a 1,500 foot circuit  Turn Base max bank 30⁰  Descend FLAPS 2, ‘S’ Speed  Configure & turn final as normal. ```
160
When does the landing gear safety valve operate?
 > 260 knots |  Safety Valve automatically cuts off hydraulic supply to the landing gear system.
161
Explain the max FDP considerations for a delayed report, up to and over 4 hours?
 < 4 hours: FDP based on time band of original report time, FDP & DP begin at actual report time.  ≥ 4 hours: Max FDP based on most limiting time band & FDP & DP start 4 hours after original report time.
162
What distance and height should thunderstorms be avoided by?
 20 nm |  5,000 feet minimum but avoid if possible.
163
What are the standard passenger weights including hand luggage?
 Male 93 kg  Female 75 kg  Child 35 kg  Infant nil
164
What are the standard weights for baggage?
 Domestic 11 kg  European 13 kg  Intercontinental 15 kg
165
How many successive approaches are allowed according to easyJet’s policy?
 2 (unless significant improvement in Wx, or a state of emergency exists)  3 if go-around flown for non-weather related reasons provided landing assured.
166
What are the fuel imbalance limitations?
 See LIM-28  1,500 kg is a good guide figure, albeit for Take-off  some of the newer aircraft are more restrictive (500 kg) Lim - 28
167
What is the obstacle separation during a circling approach?
 4.2 nm
168
What is the timing during a procedure turn for a Cat C aircraft?
 1:15
169
What would you do if electrical power supply is interrupted during the engine start process (indicated by loss of DU’s)?
 Abort the start by switching OFF the master switch, then perform a 30 second dry crank. OMB 2.3.8.1
170
What is the order of priority of the easyJet suite of the operating manuals?
 Company Manuals A, B, C, etc.  FCOM  FCTM
171
What supersedes company manuals?
 OFP (Company NOTAMs, Crew Alerts) |  NTC
172
With regards to the FCOM, what can supersede this?
 OEBS.
173
How often are the manuals updated?
 Every 6 months.
174
What would you highlight if low cloud base and crosswind with new FO flying?
 To resist the nature urge to turn towards the runway when visual & to keep the drift on that he has.  I may also review the cross wind landing technique.
175
What additional things would you brief a new FO with regard to an LVP approach?
 Extra FMA calls  Task sharing  Items that may constitute a go-around (Auto-land light, etc.)  Possible downgrades & how we would action them.
176
What would you brief to a new FO if it was gusty or if windshear was a possibility on approach?
 Windshear actions  Go-around actions  Ask him if he is comfortable flying the approach (unless WS possible then I’d be flying it – see FO limitations)
177
When can a predictive windshear warning be ignored? What about a reactive windshear warning?
 Predictive may be considered cautionary if positive verification made that no hazard exists.  You must always react to a reactionary Windshear Warning.
178
Describe how the aircraft windshear systems work and what is required for them to work?
 The FAC generates the Windshear warning whenever the predicted energy level for the aircraft falls below a predetermined threshold.  FAC uses data from; ADIRS amongst other sources.  Predictive Windshear is a function of the Weather Radar (operates below 2,300 feet) o Requires: Wx Radar set to AUTO & Transponder set to ON or AUTO.
179
Reactive windshear | \Windshear,windshear,windshear"
``` 1.1 Before V1 Abort takeo for signicant airspeed variations if sucient runway re- mains. 1.2 On ground, above V1 Thrust levers . . TOGA Call \Windshear TOGA" Reaching VR . . . Rotate SRS orders . .Follow Conguration. . .Maintain 1.3 Airborne Thrust levers . TOGA Call \Windshear TOGA" AP (if engaged) . . Keep SRS orders . .Follow Conguration. . .Maintain Note: 1. AP will disengage if req > prot. 2. If FDs are not available, initial pitch attitude is 171/2 This should then be adjusted to minimise height loss. Full backstick can be used. ```
180
Predictive windshear
``` 2.1 Warning \Windshear ahead" or \Go around, windshear ahead" 2.1.1 During takeo run Abort takeo 2.1.2 Initial climb Thrust levers . . TOGA Call \Windshear TOGA" AP (if engaged) . . Keep SRS orders . .Follow Cong may be changed if not in windshear AP will disengage if req > prot. 2.1.3 During approach Thrust levers . . TOGA Call \Go around, aps" Carry out normal go-around If positive verification is made that no hazard exists, the warning may be downgraded to a caution 2.2 Caution \Monitor radar display" 2.2.1 During approach Consider Conf 3 landing Consider VAPP=VLS+10 ```
181
Emergency descent
``` Oxygen masks . .On Communications . . . Establish PF: { Call \Emergency descent" { Alt selector . . . . . . . . Set lower altitude, pull { Hdg selector . . . . Pull, consider turning { Spd selector. . . .Pull, consider VMO { If A/THR nor engaged: Thrust . . Idle { Once speed has increased: Speed brake . . . Full PNF: { Signs . .. . On { Eng mode sel . . . .Ign { Transponder . . . 7700 { ATC . . . . . Notify { If cabin altitude >14000ft: Pax oxy masks . . . . . . . .Man On ```
182
TCAS
4.1 TA \Trac, trac" Call \TCAS, I have control." Attempt to see reported traffic 4.2 RA \Climb",\Descend" etc. AP(if engaged) . . . . . . Off Call \TCAS, I have control. Flight directors o" FDs . . .Both o ATC. . . Notify \TCAS RA" Adjust V/S to maintain the green area on the V/S scale If \Climb" or \Increase climb" is triggered on final approach, a go around must be flown. Stall, EGPWS or windshear warnings should be respected. When clear of conflict: ATC . . . Notify \Clear of con ict, returning to . . . "
183
EGPWS
``` 5.1 Warning \Pull up"" or \Terrain, terrain pull up" or \Terrain ahead, pull up" or \Obstacle ahead, pull up" AP. . . .. . . . .Off Pitch . . . . Pull up - use full backstick Thrust levers . . . . TOGA Call \Pull up, TOGA" Speedbrake . .. . Check retracted Bank angle .. Wings level or adjust Note: 1. For \Terrain ahead" a turning maneuver may be initiated if it deemed the safest course of action. 2. If daylight VMC with all obstacles clearly in sight, the warning may be downgraded to a caution. 5.2 Caution Correct flight path and/or configuration to silence caution. ```
184
Unreliable airspeed
``` AP/FD . . . . Off A/Thr . . . . . . Off Pitch/Thrust: Below Thrust Red Alt 15/TOGA Below FL100 10/CLB Above FL100 5/CLB Flaps . . . . . Maintain current cong Speedbrake . . . . Retract Landing gear . .. . . Up When at or above MSA, level o for trouble shooting ```
185
Stall Recovery
``` Nose Down Pitch Control. .. .Apply Bank. . . .Wings Level When out of stall: { Thrust . .Increase smoothly { Speedbrakes . . . Check retracted { Flight Path. . ..Recover Smoothly { If in clean conguration and below 20,000ft: Flap 1. . . Select ```
186
Stall warning at lift-off
Thrust . . . TOGA Pitch Atitude . . . 15 Bank. . .Wings Level
187
Loss of braking
``` Call \Loss of braking" If autobrake selected: { Brake pedals . . Press If no braking available: { Rev . . . .Max { Brake pedals . . . Release { Anti skid/NWS . .. . Off { Brake pedals . . Maintain 1000psi If still no braking: { Parking brake . . . . Short applications ```
188
Crew incapacitation
Call \I have control" Priority button . . . . As required Cabin crew . . . Contact
189
Tinnelly
Is a god.
190
Absolute minima for NPA
250/ 750