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1. OM-A > OM-A > Flashcards

OM-A Flashcards

1
Q

What are the MFAs on the OFP based on?

A

Route MORA

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2
Q

What clearance does the MFAs depicted on the OFP provide?

A

1000ft for terrain up to 5000ft and 2000ft for terrain above 5000ft within 20nm of the route segment centerline.

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3
Q

When should low temperature corrections be applied?

A

Temperatures -10 and below.

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4
Q

What is the required RFFS category?

A

6

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5
Q

What is the lowest RVR for take off with runway edge lights, runway end lights or runway centerline lights and runway end lights in night time with no LVP in force?

A

400R/400V

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6
Q

What is the lowest RVR for take off with LVPs in force (additional criteria)?

A

TDZ MID ROLLOUT 125R

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7
Q

What DH and RVR for CAT1?

A

DH not lower than 200ft

RVR not less 500m

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8
Q

What are the requirements for a LTS CAT1?

A

Autoland
Runway must be approved
Applicable minima must be promulgated

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9
Q

What is the DH and RVR for CAT II?

A

DH below 200ft not lower than 100f

RVR not less than 300m

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10
Q

What is the DH and RVR for CAT IIIA?

A

DH lower than 100ft

RVR not less than 200m

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11
Q

What is the DH and RVR for CAT IIIB?

A

DH lower than 100ft or NO DH
RVR lower than 200m but not less than 75m

om-a 8.1.3.8

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12
Q

What is defined as RVSM?

A

Any airspace between FL290 and FL410 where the separation between aircraft is 1000ft instead of 2000ft.

Om-a 8.3.2.12

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13
Q

What equipment should be operating normally when entering RVSM airspace?

A
  1. Two primary altimeters
  2. One automatic altitude-control system
  3. One altitude alerting system
  4. A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder

Om-a 8.3.2.12

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14
Q

What is the maximum allowable difference between two altimeters when entering and operating within RVSM airspace?

A

200ft

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15
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation following a A380 from the same position on departure?

A

3 minutes.

Om-a 8.3.9.2

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16
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation following a Heavy from the same position on departure?

A

2 minutes

Om-A 8.3.9.2

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17
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation following a A380 from an intermediate position on departure?

A

4 minutes

Om-a 8.3.9.2

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18
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation following a heavy from an intermediate position on departure?

A

3 minutes

Om-A 8.3.9.2

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19
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation following a A380 on arrival?

A

7nm

Om-a 8.3.9.2

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20
Q

What is the wake turbulence separation following a heavy on final?

A

5nm

Om-a 8.3.9.2

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21
Q

What time frame shall the weather forecast be considered for the destination and alternate aerodrome?

A

A period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the ETA.

Om-a 8.1.2.2.2.1

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22
Q

What time frame of weather conditions shall be considered for the departure aerodrome?

A

Actual weather conditions.

Om-a 8.1.2.2.2.1

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23
Q

When are two destination alternates required?

A
  • The weather reports or forecasts at destination are below the applicable minima.
  • No meteorological information is available.
  • The landing performance requirements cannot be assured at a destination aerodrome due to dependence on a specific wind component or runway state.

Om-a 8.1.2.2.2.3

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24
Q

What is the penalty for carrying extra fuel?

A

3% of extra fuel per hour

Om a 8.1.7.3.1

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25
Q

What is the typical weight for guidance dogs?

A

35kg

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26
Q

What is the typical weight for a cello?

A

10kg

Oma 8.1.8.5

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27
Q

What is the specific gravity for Jet A-1 fuel?

A

0.8

Oma 8.1.8.8

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28
Q

What is the minimum fuel temperature for Jet A-1?

A

-47 degrees.

Oma 8.3.7.3

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29
Q

What are the standard calls for low fuel state and describe.

A

MINIMUM FUEL:
Having committed to land at a aerodrome, the pilot calculates any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than planned final reserve.

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL:
When the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less then the planned final reserve.

Oma 8.3.7.2

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30
Q

When may the commander decide to continue to destination if a downgrade in RFFS happens in flight?

A

If it is considered safer to do so than to divert.

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31
Q

What does Just Culture mean?

A

A culture in which front line operators or others are not punished for actions, omissions or decisions taken by them that are commensurate with their experience and training, but where gross negligence, willful violations and destructive acts are not tolerated.

Oma 3.2.2.

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32
Q

Up to when are flight crew members considered inexperienced?

A

100 flight hours and flown 10 sectors within 120 consecutive days from final line check

Or

150 flight hours and 20 sectors since final line check (no time limit)

Oma 4.1.1.3

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33
Q

How many flight crew members are required for boarding?

A

At least one.

Oma 4.1.1.5

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34
Q

.

A

150

Oma 4.1.2

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35
Q

What is the maximum number of inexperienced cabin crew?

A

2- the assigned positions must be at opposite ends.

Oma 4.1.3

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36
Q

Who has to authorize the reduction of cabin crew? And to whom may this be delegated?

A

The duty pilot. He may delegate this to the Network Duty Manager

Oma 4.1.4

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37
Q

What is the maximum number of passenger that may be carried per cabin crew?

A

50

Oma 4.1.4

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38
Q

If a cabin crew member is offloaded and positioning back to home base on the same flight. Is the cabin crew member included in the passenger count?

A

No

Oma 4.1.4

39
Q

If the SCCM becomes unfit, who will take over the SCCM duties?

A
  • a qualified SCCM
  • the most experienced cabin crew member

This has to be agreed by the commander.

Oma 4.1.4.2

40
Q

With how many cabin crew less can boarding commence?

A

1

Oma 4.1.4.3

41
Q

When must alcohol no longer be consumed prior to reporting for duty?

A

10 hours

Oma 6.1

42
Q

How long after general anesthetic must a crew member not operate?

A

48 hours

Oma 6.4

43
Q

How long after any local, including dental, anastethic must a crew member not fly?

A

24 hours

Oma 6.4

44
Q

Following a dive exceeding 10 meters, how long shall a crew member not fly?

A

48 hours

Oma 6.7

45
Q

What does RNP stand for?

A

Required Navigation Performance

Oma 8.3.2.5

46
Q

What is the equivalence of P-RNAV?

A

RNAV 1

Oma 8.3.2.6

47
Q

What is the equivalence of B-RNAV?

A

RNAV 5

Oma 8.3.2.6

48
Q

What is the equivalence of GNSS?

A

RNP APCH

OMA8.3.2.6

49
Q

What is the required navigation accuracy (RNP) for an P-RNAV approach?

A

1.0 nm

Oma 8.3.2.6

50
Q

What is the required navigation accuracy (RNP) for an B-RNAV?

A

5.0nm

Oma 8.3.2.6

51
Q

What is the required navigation accuracy (RNP) for an GNSS approach?

A

0.3nm

Oma 8.3.2.6

52
Q

Within what range can VOR/DME be used to determine the aircraft position in B-RNAV ?

A

62NM

Oma 8.3.2.8

53
Q

Which warnings have precedence over TCAS warnings?

A

Stall warning, windshear and GPWS.

Oma 8.3.6

54
Q

For which dangerous goods is no approval required?

A
  • items for airworthiness or operating reasons (batteries, fire extinguishers, potable oxygen)
  • items used for sale (such as alcoholic beverages, perfumes etc)
  • dry ice for use in food and beverages
  • electronic devices (EFB’s, EPOS etc)

Oma 9.1.3.1

55
Q

Is approval required for Dangerous goods which are carried in flight for medical aid for a patient?

A

No, few provisions.

Oma 9.1.3.2

56
Q

Where can you find an overview of dangerous goods which are allowed to be carried by passengers and crew?

A

Oma 9.1.5

57
Q

Where can you find emergency procedures for responding to emergency situations?

A

FCOM
QRH
OM B
CSPM

Oma 9.5

58
Q

What are the procedures when dealing with a dangerous goods incident?

A
  • keep flight deck door locked
  • refer to QRH ABN 26
  • seatbelt sign on
  • consider landing asap
  • refer to cabin crew checklist
  • after landing, disembark pax and crew before opening cargo door hold is source is in the hold

Oma 9.5.1

59
Q

When and to whom must dangerous goods incidents be reported?

A

Within 72hours to the national authority and caa

Oma 9.6

60
Q

Does Easyjet have approval to operate to an isolated aerodrome?

A

No

Oma 8.1.2.1.1

61
Q

What is the required visibility and MDH for visual approach?

A

2500ft cloud base or circling minima if higher

5000m visibility

Oma 8.1.3.6

62
Q

To which flights is the use of alternate flight planning procedures normally limited?

A

Flights that are payload or performance restricted.

Oma 8.1.7.1

63
Q

What is the commanders responsibility regarding the amount of fuel and oil?

A

The commander shall not commence a flight unless he is satisfied that the aircraft carries at least the planned amount of fuel and oil to complete the flight safely, taking into account the expected operating conditions.

Oma 8.1.7.2

64
Q

What is easyjet’s fuel policy?

A

To carry the minimum amount of fuel required to safely and efficiently complete the flight while meeting regulatory requirements and maintaining operational flexibility.

Oma 8.1.7.3

65
Q

The minimum fuel required consists of:

A
  1. Taxi fuel
  2. Trip fuel
  3. Contingency fuel
  4. Alternate fuel
  5. Additional fuel
  6. Final reserve fuel
  7. Extra fuel

Oma 8.1.7.5.1

66
Q

Which weight requirement may not be exceeded with taxi fuel?

A

Maximum ramp weight.

Oma 8.1.7.5.2

67
Q

What is taxi fuel?

A

Fuel expected to be used prior to take off including:

  • APU consumption
  • engine start
  • taxi

Oma 8.1.7.5.2

68
Q

Is it allowed to reduce taxi fuel?

A

Yes, to the expected taxi times on the day of operation.

Oma 8.1.7.5.3

69
Q

What is trip fuel?

A

Fuel for:

Take off, climb, descent, approach and landing, taking into account the expected routings and step climbs

Oma 8.1.7.5.4

70
Q

What is contingency fuel?

A

Fuel to cover for deviations from planned operating conditions.

I.e. unfavorable cruise altitude or track, deviations in forecasted wind etc

Oma 8.1.7.5.5

71
Q

How much should contingency fuel be?

A

The higher of

  • 5% of the trip fuel (or inflight replanting 5% remaining flight trip fuel)
  • 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above destination in standard conditions.

Oma 8.1.7.5.5

72
Q

What is alternate fuel?

A

Fuel to reach the alternate.

Oma 8.1.7.5.6

73
Q

When two destination alternates are required, how much should the alternate fuel be?

A

Fuel to proceed to the alternate which requires the greater amount.

Oma 8.1.7.5.6

74
Q

What does alternate fuel take into account?

A
  • fuel from missed approach from MDA/DH to the missed approach altitude taking into account the complete procedure.
  • fuel from missed approach altitude to climb cruise and descent to the alternate using the expected arrival
  • fuel for approach and landing at alternate.

Oma 8.1.7.5.6

75
Q

Which weight is used in the final reserve fuel calculation?

A

Estimated weight on arrival.

Oma 8.1.7.5.7

76
Q

What is final reserve fuel?

A

Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.

Oma 8.1.7.5.7

77
Q

Over which time frame is the CONT95 calculated?

A

2 years

NTC OPS 1/15

78
Q

What does CONT95 mean on the OFP?

A

The maximum amount of contingency fuel 95% of all flights on that city pair would require in order to ensure landing with all final reserve and alternate fuel intact.

NTC OP 1/15

79
Q

Additional fuel for engine failure or loss of pressurization is when required?

A

When the calculated fuel (from trip up to final reserve) is not sufficient for such an event.

Oma 8.1.7.5.8

80
Q

What are the criteria used to determine the additional fuel in the event of a engine failure of depressurization?

A
  • descent as necessary and proceed to adequate aerodrome.
  • hold there for 15 minutes AAL in ISA conditions.
  • make an approach and landing

Oma 8.1.7.5.8

81
Q

At who’s discretion is extra fuel carried?

A

At the discretion of the commander.

Oma 8.1.7.5.9

82
Q

In which should extra fuel be considered?

A

Endurance (not quantity)

Oma 8.1.7.5.9

83
Q

What is the minimum contingency fuel when using a fuel ERA?

A

Not less than 3% or 5 minutes (which ever is greater.

Oma 8.1.7.6.4

84
Q

Within what circle radius must an enroute alternate be when using reduced contingency fuel?

A

Radius 20% of total flight plan distance.

Oma 8.1.7.6.4

85
Q

Where must the center be of the en route alternate circle when using reduced contingency fuel?

A

On the planned route, at a distance from destination of 25% of total flight plan distance or at 20% of total flight plan distance plus 50nm, whichever is greater.

Oma 8.1.7.6.4

86
Q

What is the minimum fuel required when starting the engines?

A

The quantity defined by the fuel policy.

Oma 8.3.8.1.1

87
Q

When is a landing “assured”?

A

When in the judgement of the commander it could be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in the weather and plausible single failures of ground and/ or airborne facilities.

Oma 8.3.8.1.3

88
Q

When shall a commander advise atc of MINIMUM FUEL?

A

When having committed to land at an airport the pilot calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that airport may result in landing with less than planned final reserve.

Oma 8.3.8.2

89
Q

What is the relevant RVR distance for the take off?

A

RVR used to accelerate to V1 followed by a rejected take off and decelerate to approximately 60kts

90
Q

What is the relevant Runway distance for the landing RVR?

A

Landing run down to appeoximately 60kts

91
Q

What are the minima for a circling Approach?

A

MDA 600ft Vis 2400m

92
Q

What is the min RVR for a straight in visual approach?

A

800m

93
Q

What is the minimum visibility and ceiling for a visual circuit?

A

5km vis

2500ft ceiling

94
Q

How much clearance and down to which point does the MSA provide?

A

1000ft obstacle clearance down to the intermediate approach segment.

1. OM-A (9 decks)

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