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1. OM-A > Generic Part A & B > Flashcards

Generic Part A & B Flashcards

1
Q

When do we not need a destination alternate?

A

Flight < 6 Hours. Visibility above 5km. Ceiling 2000ft or circling plus 500ft. Two separate runways. OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4

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2
Q

When can we consider runways to be separated?

A

Separate approach procedures based on separate approach aids. If they cross a blockage on one does not prevent the planned operation on the other. OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4

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3
Q

When do we require two destination alternates?

A

If destination weather is unavailable. If destination weather is below planning minimal for ETA +- 1 hour. Landing not assured as destination as landing depends on specific wind component/runway state. OMA 8.1.2.2.2.3

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4
Q

When planning for an alternate, the TAF indicates in a PROB/TEMPO that the weather will be below limits. Can this alternate be used?

A

Yes. PROB/TEMPO can be disregarded.

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5
Q

What is the planning minima for a Take-off alternate?

A

At or above the minimal for the expected instrument approach. Any limitation related to OEI or dispatch under the MEL shall be taken into consideration.

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6
Q

Within what distance must a Take-off alternate be?

A

1 hour still air flight time at OEI cruising speed. 320nm.

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7
Q

Within what distance must a cruise alternate be?

A

A319 - 380nm. A320 - 400nm.

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8
Q

What is the planning minima for a destination alternate if only a non-precision approach is available?

A

MDA + 200ft RVR + 1000m

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9
Q

How long is a tempo forecast expected to last?

A

Individually less than one hour each episode. In aggregate less than half of the period specified.

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10
Q

How much extra fuel should be carried for LVP’s?

A

Half an hour. About 1000kgs.

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11
Q

What is the final reserve?

A

30 minutes holding fuel. 1500ft above destination alternate aerodrome. ISA conditions. Expected weight overhead the destination alternate aerodrome.

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12
Q

If planning to tanker maximum fuel, what are the maximum landing weight considerations to base your tanker figure around?

A

MLW - (1% of MLW) A320 LW = MLW - 660kg = 65,340 kg. A319 LW = MLW - 610kg = 60,390kg.

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13
Q

When can you not tanker fuel?

A

When you expect to land on a contaminated or slippery runway. When expecting to land on a performance limited runway.

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14
Q

For fuel planning, what is the associated fuel usage associated with – Engine Anti Ice, Engine + Wing Anti Ice, Taxi Fuel, APU Fuel, Trip fuel adjustment for increased track mileage, or reduced track mileage

A

Engine Anti Ice 1 kg/min or 2kg/min in the hold  Engine + Wing Anti Ice 2 kg/min or 3 kg/min in the hold Taxi Fuel Single Engine: 7 kg/min Two Engines: 10 kg/min APU Fuel 2 kg/min (120 kg/hour)  Trip fuel adjustment for increased track mileage, or reduced track mileage Reduction of mileage: 4 kg / nm Increase in mileage: 5 kg / nm

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15
Q

What is contingency fuel?

A

5% of trip fuel, or 5 minutes holding at 1,500 feet above destination aerodrome, ISA conditions

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16
Q

What is contingency fuel carried for?

A

Unforeseen adverse circumstances: Unfavourable Flight Level Unfavourable Track Unfavourable Unforecast Wind

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17
Q

What is the minimum RFF category for departure, destination and alternates?

A

Departure/Destination - Normally 6, although can be reduced to 5 if low traffic. This can be reduced to 4 if temporary downgrade less than 72 hours. Alternates - Non-UK 4, UK 5

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18
Q

What is the fuel for landing for Normal, Caution and Emergency phases? And what would your actions be?

A

Normal: CNR

Caution: May be below CNR at destination. 

  • Re-plan with a closer alternate
  • Decrease speed (Cost Index Minimum)  Obtain direct routes 
  • Fly optimum Flight Level 
  • Land & refuel.

Emergency: Below Final Reserve Fuel at destination.

  • May land with less than final reserve fuel: Advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring “MINIMUM FUEL”. This tells ATC that all planned aerodrome options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome, and any change to the clearance will result in landing with less than planned final reserve.
  • WILL land with less than final reserve fuel: “MAYDAY” call reporting fuel remaining in minutes.
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19
Q

What are the limitations of LMC’s?

A
  • New load sheet required if +10 or -20 Pax
  • New Performance calculation if
    • Positive LMC & TOGA Take-off planned 
    • Positive LMC > 250 kg 
    • MACTOW changed by more than 2%
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20
Q

What is the minimum oil quantity?

A

9.5 quarts + 0.5 quart per hour of expected flight.

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21
Q

What are the RVSM requirements?

A
  • 2 ADRs
  • 2 PFDs (Primary Altimeters must agree within 200 feet prior to & during RVSM flight.)
  • 1 AP
  • 1 FCU
  • 1 FWC
  • 1 Transponder with Mode S
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22
Q

When does positioning count as a sector?

A
  • If positioning within an FDP containing a split duty.
  • Unless it is at the end of the FDP then it doesn’t count as a sector.
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23
Q

When can we extend an FDP as part of a split duty?

A
  • Two or more sectors separated by a period of time less than a minimum rest period.
  • < 3hours rest: max. extension is NIL
  • 3 to 10 hours rest: max extension is half of the consecutive hours of rest taken.
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24
Q

What are the absolute limits on flying hours?

A
  • 28 consecutive days: 100 hours
  • 1 Year: 900 hours
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25
Q

What are the maximum duty hours?

A
  • 7 consecutive days: 55 hours (can be extended to 60 due to unforeseen delays.)
  • 14 consecutive days: 95 hours
  • 28 consecutive days: 190 hours
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26
Q

How many hours can go into discretion to extend an FDP?

A
  • 2 hours
  • 3 hours immediately prior to final sector or on a single sector day.
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27
Q

When must a discretion report be filed?

A
  • Discretion > 2 hours
  • Reduced Rest > 1 hour
  • Exceedance of cumulative limits on flying.
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28
Q

What is the order of priority of the easyJet suite of operating manuals?

A
  1. Company NOTAMS, Crew Alerts and Crew Bulletins
  2. Notices to crew (NTC) – Operational information, which are, specified as superseding Operating manuals
  3. OEB’s
  4. Operations Manuals
  5. FCOM
  6. FCTM

Captains Now Obey Overtly Flying Forever

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29
Q

State a number of responsibilities of the commander

A
  • Safe operation of the aircraft & for the safety of its occupants & cargo
  • May offload any pax or cargo that in his opinion will represent a potential hazard to safety of the aircraft
  • Will not allow any pax to be drunk to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or occupants is compromised
  • In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision or action, take any action he deems necessary & in such an event he may deviate from the rules, operational procedures & methods in the interests of safety.
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30
Q

What are the First Officer handling limits?

A
  • Cross Wind:
    • SFO: 20 knots 
    • FO: 20 knots
  • No planned tailwind for *** FO
  • No Flaps 3 landings for *** FO (unless required by an emergency procedure.)
  • No FO takeoff if VIS < 400 m
  • No Contaminated Runway
  • No Windshear
  • Minimum Runway width 45 m
  • Minimum VIS for Circling 5,000 m
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31
Q

What is the procedure for reporting a bird strike?

A
  • Inform ATC at the time of incident.
  • Extra field to be completed on the SafetyNet on-line form.
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32
Q

When may flex not be used for takeoff?

A
  • Contaminated Runway
  • Windshear reported
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33
Q

What are the minimum take off climb gradients?

A
  • Second Segment: 2.4% Gross
  • Final Segment: 1.2% Gross
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34
Q

How would you calculate a landing and approach climb gradient?

A

Approach Climb: One engine inoperative, gear up & approach configuration. Landing Climb: All engines operating, gear down & approach configuration.

  • Approach climb 2.1% gross (LPC LDG Perf. gives this, hence Single Engine Case considered by the LPC.) 
  • LOW VIS climb 2.5% gross (More stringent version of approach climb applied if DH < 200 feet.) 
  • Landing Climb 3.2% gross (Less limiting for 2 eng aircraft than the Approach Climb, hence APPR CLB considered.)
  • These gradients are calculated for certification purposes only & are thus academic. 
  • Practically, all LIDO Plates are designed with a 2.5% gradient in the Go-Around & if different the gradient will be stated on the plate. 
  • LPC takes into account the single engine case, thus this is the Approach Climb (more restrictive for 2 engine aircraft.)
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35
Q

What are the low visibility wind limits?

A
  • Headwind - 30 knots 
  • Crosswind - 20 knots 
  • Tailwind - 10 knots
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36
Q

What is the minimum RVR for takeoff? What if you’re not LVO qualified? What visual segment is required? 

A
  • 125 metres 
  • 150 metres if not LVO qualified. 
  • 90 metre visual segment, this is an aircraft design requirement, A320 family compliant.
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37
Q

Is the third segment RVR required for takeoff or landing?

A

Only if relevant, ie

  • Less than 60 knots expected after an RTO at V1 in the Take-off case (ADS < ⅔ TODR to be certain.)
  • Less than 60 knots during the landing roll. (LDR Vs LDA should give you an indication of this.)
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38
Q

Do you need RVR’s for takeoff in LVP’s or is met visibility OK?

A
  • Yes. 
  • RVR required as conversion from Met VIS only allowed for landing & if RVR required is > 800m.
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39
Q

When do LVP’s come in force?

A
  • RVR < 600 m 
  • Ceiling < 200 fee
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40
Q

How many infants may be carried on board?

A

2 per accompanying adult.

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41
Q

Circling approach, when must you disconnect the autopilot?

A

100 feet below the MDA.

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42
Q

The dispatcher informs you human remains are being carried. Can you carry them? What about ashes?

A
  • No 
  • Unless Ashes:
    • Suitable container
    • Death Certificate
    • Cremation Certificate
    • Hand Baggage Only.
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43
Q

Tell me about the carriage of musical instruments, specifically cellos?

A
  • Small instruments to fit into overhead locker. 
  • Where not practical to combine instrument with another item of hand luggage, one small extra item allowed 
  • Larger instruments eg Cellos:
    • Seat to be purchased
    • Window seat
    • Not a restricted seat
    • Centre of mass < 30 cm above the top of seat cushion
    • Standard weight 10 kg (subject to local assessment) [GHM]
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44
Q

A passenger arrives on a stretcher, can we carry him?

A

No

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45
Q

Which seats on the airbus are restricted?

A
  • Row 1, A B C D 
  • Overwing Rows 
  • Last Row, C D
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46
Q

Who may not sit in restricted seats?

A
  • C - Children < 16 years 
  • H - Hearing, Sight or other disability 
  • I - Infants on Laps 
  • P - Pregnant, Prisoners 
  • P - Physical Size 
  • E - Elderly if frail 
  • D - Deportee
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47
Q

Where would you find a list of dangerous goods, and which can we carry?

A
  • OMA 9.1.3 
  • Exceptions are:
    • Items for airworthiness or operating reasons
    • To provide, during flight, medical aid to a patient.
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48
Q

What if someone turned up on board carrying dangerous goods, what would you do if: a) on the ground, b) in flight? 

A

Response in both cases would depend very much on the nature of the dangerous goods in question.

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49
Q

What does the REC MAX altitude mean?

A
  • Displayed on the MCDU PROG PAGE 
  • Provides a 0.3g Buffet Margin 
  • Aircraft will climb at 300 fpm at Max CLB Thrust 
  • Aircraft will cruise in level flight at Max CRZ Thrust 
  • Aircraft will maintain a speed above green dot & below VMO/MMO 
  • A higher FL can be selected up to a point where a 0.2g buffet margin is reached.
  • Maximum FL selectable is FL398
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50
Q

What does the OPT ALT mean and how is it calculated?

A
  • Based on Cost Index,
  • Weight and FMGC Wind Data 
  • Compromise between Time and Fuel Saving 
  • Requires a 15 minute CRZ time
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51
Q

What is the minimum number of cabin crew?

A

3

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52
Q

Can you operate with three cabin crew? What if the senior goes sick down route? What are the considerations/actions?

A
  • Yes 
  • Uprank next most senior crew member (1 year experience, 20 sectors on type)  Duty Pilot Authorisation Required 
  • 150 Pax maximum 
  • Consider the number of *** crew 
  • Cannot leave or transit a Crew Base.
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53
Q

Can you board the aircraft with only 3 cabin crew? What are the considerations?

A
  • Yes 
  • SCCM must be present 
  • No refuelling 
  • 1 pilot must be present & on the flight deck 
  • 150 pax maximum
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54
Q

What levels of bomb warnings are there?

A
  • RED - Specific & credible – Requires immediate action ie diversion/disembarkation. 
  • AMBER (Ground Only) doubtful credibility - Discuss with Network Duty Manager course of action. 
  • GREEN - Not specific, not credible – No action required.
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55
Q

You receive a RED bomb warning. What would you do?

A
  • On stand
    • Disembark Pax & Crew
    • Hand Baggage to be taken off with them.
    • Give a ‘Security Problem’ as the reason.
    • Pax to be taken to location separate from other passengers
    • Advise ground crews to vacate the area
    • Remove aircraft to a remote location & search if time exists.
    • After Police give “All Clear” 
    • Full search of aircraft including catering, etc. 
    • All Passengers, cabin & hold baggage to be screened again 
    • Pax to be reconciled with their luggage 
    • All of this before re-embarkation is permitted. 
  • During taxi
    • Advise ATC & passengers of a “Security Problem.”
    • Request details of remote parking requirements
    • Request immediate availability of steps to the aircraft
    • Advise ATC of a need to locate passengers 200 m upwind of the aircraft as quickly as possible.
    • Disembark Pax & Crew o Hand Baggage to be taken with them
    • Only use slides if steps are not available (normal evac procedures now apply)
  • In flight
    • Declare an emergency
    • Divert to nearest suitable airfield
    • Fly as normally as possible, in accordance with checklist, etc. (turbulence penetration speed good compromise)
    • Brief Cabin Crew to conduct a discrete search of toilets & galleys for suspicious articles.
    • Do not raise cabin altitude, maintain or reduce if possible, Level off & descend to FL100 when possible.
    • PA: Should state that threat is against the airline & although most likely a hoax, must be treated seriously.
    • On landing same as for threat on taxi.
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56
Q

What is the difference between a precautionary and emergency landing?

A

A precautionary landing is one in which under normal circumstances there will be no requirement to evacuate.

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57
Q

What calls would you make for an unplanned and planned emergency landing?

A
  • Unplanned: “ATTENTION CREW, BRACE BRACE.”
  • Planned:
    • 2,000 feet “CABIN CREW TAKE UP LANDING POSITIONS.”
    • 500 feet “BRACE, BRACE.”
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58
Q

When may a cabin crew member initiate an evacuation?

A

Obvious, Immediate & life threatening situation, ie catastrophic, any crew member may initiate the evacuation.

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59
Q

What is the definition of catastrophic?

A
  • Serious Structural Damage (hole in the fuselage) 
  • Death or injury of the occupants. 
  • Examples: 
    • Ditching 
    • Uncontrolled cabin fire / smoke 
    • Severe structural damage, eg hole in the fuselage, abnormal attitude severe scraping sound as aircraft came to a stop.
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60
Q

What are the wake vortex separation minima for take-off?

A
  • Heavy
    • Full Length - 2 mins
    • Intersection - 3 mins
  • A380
    • Full Length - 3 mins
    • Intersection - 4 mins
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61
Q

What is the wake vortex separation minima for approach?

A
  • Upper Medium (B757) - 4 miles
  • Heavy - 5 miles
  • A380 - 7 miles
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62
Q

What level does RVSM start and what is the separation? Where would you find the list of required equipment? 

A
  • FL290 
  • 1,000 feet vertically 
  • QRH SI-70
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63
Q

Tell me about allowable frost and icing on the airframe? When should you deice?

A
  • 3mm of frost allowed on lower wing surfaces in area cold soaked by fuel.
  • Thin hoarfrost is acceptable, provided surface features can still be seen, on the: 
    • Fuselage 
    • Radome 
    • Engine Cowl
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64
Q

How do you remove contamination forward of the aircraft windscreens?

A

By mechanical methods only, ie a brush.

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65
Q

When should Engine Anti-ice ON be selected in the LPC for take-off performance considerations?

A
  • OAT ≤ 10⁰C and visible moisture present 
  • If you plan to use anti-ice before one engine out acceleration altitude, ie cloud ceiling ≤ 1 engine out accel’n alt.
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66
Q

Above what speed will the auto-brake take effect if a take-off is rejected?

A

72 knots

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67
Q

What angle should the weather radar be set to for takeoff?

A

≈ 4⁰ Nose Up

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68
Q

When should crosswind be taken into account for a crosswind take-off technique? And what is the technique?

A
  • Crosswind > 20 knots
    • Sidestick Fully Forward
    • Set Thrust to 50% N1, allow it to stabilise.
    • Rapidly set 70% N1
    • Then smoothly increase power to T/o Power detent (FLEX or TOGA as appropriate) by 40 knots GS.
    • At 80 knots slowly release the Sidestick to be neutral by 100 knots.
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69
Q

What speed on take-off does nose wheel steering stop?

A

130 knots

70
Q

At what height can you engage the auto pilot after takeoff?

A

100 feet aal

71
Q

How many miles from the route centreline is MORA calculated?

A

10nm

72
Q

How much vertical clearance is provided with a MORA for obstacles up to 5000ft and above 5000ft?

A
  • 1,000 feet clearance for obstacles up to 5,000 feet
  • 2,000 feet clearance for obstacles above 5,000 feet
73
Q

Should you correct MSA’s for temperature and wind? Explain how?

A
  • Not really anymore, now it just advises about the issue. It would be prudent to do so. 
  • Using the tables provided in OMA 8.1.1.3 & QRH SI-20
74
Q

Which category of airports require a visit as part of an operating crew or through simulator training?

A

Cat C

75
Q

Which category requires self briefing? How is this self briefing recorded by the commander?

A
  • Cat B 
  • Cat B Restricted 
  • By signing the OFP.
76
Q

When can Wing Anti-ice be used? (Hot air from Pneumatic system heats 3 outboard slats.) Can it be used on the ground? 

A
  • If severe ice accretion expected or if any indication of icing on the airframe. 
  • If switched on whilst on the ground, it runs a 30 second test sequence then closes for as long as the aircraft is on the ground.
77
Q

What is the difference between SAT and TAT?

A
  • SAT: Static Air Temperature which is the ambient temperature of the air. 
  • TAT: Total Air Temperature which is the temperature measured in the pitot tube. This is higher than SAT due to friction & adiabatic increase due to air compression, called ‘Ram Rise.’
78
Q

Which hydraulic system runs the normal brakes?

A

Green

79
Q

Do we manually have to select alternate brakes?

A

No

80
Q

Is anti-skid available on the alternate brakes?

A
  • Normally yes, but it depends on the nature of the failure that put you onto the Alternate Braking System.
  • Anti-skid may be either deactivated:
    • Electrically: A/SKID NW STRG sw off, Power Supply Failure or BSCU Failure
    • Hydraulically: G+Y LO PR, or brakes supplied by accumulator pressure only.
81
Q

When does antiskid become available (eg above what ground speed)?

A

Above 20 knots ground speed, it is deactivated below this speed.

82
Q

Name the 4 levels of braking depending on failures?

A
  • Normal Brakes 
  • Alternate Brakes with Anti-skid 
  • Alternate Brakes without Anti-skid 
  • Park Brake
83
Q

How is anti-skid downgraded on the alternate braking system?

A

If it’s available it is not downgraded. The BSCU still operates it, albeit via different valves.

84
Q

Is auto-brake available on the alternate braking system?

A

No

85
Q

If ATC tell you on approach that braking actions are poor/poor/poor what would you do?

A
  • If this is a temporary state due to passing Wx, possibly hold until conditions improve. 
  • Check Landing performance in the LPC. 
  • Consider crosswind by checking QRH-IFL 
  • Perhaps consider a diversion to a more suitable airfield if safest option.
86
Q

Double engine failure – what are your initial actions, where would you go, how far could you reach?

A
  • ENG MODE SEL - IGN 
  • THRUST LEVERS - IDLE 
  • SPEED - 300 knots (Optimum Relight Speed) 
  • PITCH - 3⁰ Nose Down is a good initial starting point 
  • LANDING STRATEGY Determine (Choose an airfield set up approach & extend cerntreline)  
  • At 300 knots, the aircraft can fly 2 nm per 1,000 feet (no wind) 
  • During final approach 6⁰ Glideslope is realistic. 
  • Don’t worry if you need to bust Flap Speeds to configure 
  • Yellow electric pump may help to lower the gear if Yellow Hydraulics Available (Check HYD Page)
87
Q

What’s the difference between OPEN CLB and CLB?

A
  • OPEN CLB mode disregards all altitude constraints up to the FCU selected altitude. 
  • CLB mode meets all constraints defined in the FMGC (will not adjust speed to meet a missed constraint though)
88
Q

When is the PTU inhibited?

A
  • Aircraft is on GROUND, and 
    • Either: Park Brake is set, or NWS is in the Towing Position, and 
    • One Engine Master is ON and the other is OFF 
  • Also, it will not run within 40 seconds of Cargo Door operation.
89
Q

Which systems have hydraulic priority and why?

A

Flight Controls, obvious really!!

90
Q

What are the turbulence penetration speeds? Is there a difference between the A319 and the A320? 

A
  • Above FL320 - M0.76 
  • FL200 – FL320 - 275 knots 
  • Below FL200 - 250 knots 
  • No Difference between A319 & A320.
91
Q

What would your actions be if experiencing severe turbulence (think cabin as well)?

A
  • SIGNS - ON 
  • AP - KEEP ON 
  • A/THR - OFF (if thrust changes become excessive) 
  • DESCENT - CONSIDER 
  • Brief CC - NITS style brief 
    • N - Flight Conditions & expected severity 
    • I - Whether crew should be seated/acceptable level of service 
    • T - Expected duration of turbulence 
    • S - Any other relevant information.
92
Q

You are in CLB/ALT* then new FL given, what happens?

A
  • You select the new FL on the FCU 
  • Vertical Mode reverts to V/S 
  • Lateral Mode remains unchanged.
93
Q

What are the potential problems with using V/S at high levels?

A
  • V/S guidance has priority over the speed guidance. 
  • So the FMGC may decelerate to achieve the selected V/S, potentially causing a Low Speed Event.
94
Q

Can you burn your contingency fuel on the ground?

A
  • Yes 
  • Being held at the holding point is one of the unforeseen events that contingency fuel is loaded to protect against.
95
Q

What is the VHF monitoring policy for VHF1 and VHF2? What about clearance and digital clearance?

A
  • VHF1 - Both Pilots to monitor at all times 
  • VHF2 - If using VHF2, continue to monitor VHF1 to ensure continued SA During CRZ both pilots monitor VHF2 at an audible volume. 
  • DCL - Preferred method of obtaining clearance. Both pilots to verify the printed clearance & confirmation 
  • R/T Clearance - Both pilots must hear, understand & verify the clearance. Headsets must be worn.
96
Q

What are the memory items?

A
  • Crew Incap 
  • EGPWS 
  • EMER DESCENT - Immediate Actions 
  • Unreliable Speed - Immediate Actions 
  • Loss of Braking 
  • Stall Recovery 
  • Stall Warning at Lift-off 
  • TCAS 
  • Windshear 
  • Windshear Ahead
97
Q

Do we correct VAPP for gusts? What is the maximum VAPP you can set?

A
  • Yes, 
  • In case of strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 knots, VAPP should be at least VLS + 5 knots. 
  • The 5 knot increment above VLS may be increased up to 15 knots at the flight crew’s discretion.
98
Q

Can you re-engage a C/B in flight which has tripped by itself?

A
  • No, unless as a last resort Captain considers it necessary to do so for the safe continuation of the flight. 
  • Only one re-engagement should be attempted.
99
Q

Which C/Bs can you never re-engage?

A

Fuel Pumps of any tank

100
Q

When should you select IGN on?

A
  • Take-Off:
    • Standing Water 
    • Heavy Rain 
    • Heavy Rain or severe turbulence expected after Take-off
  • Descent:
    • Heavy Precipitation encountered or expected 
    • Standing water on Landing Runway
101
Q

What levels of RNAV navigation do easyJet have certification for? And explain when those levels apply?

A

OMA 8.3.2.6

  • RNAV 1 P-RNAV Terminal Airspace including below MFA 1.0 nm
  • RNAV 5 B-RNAV Enroute and terminal airspace above MFA 5.0 nm
  • RNP APCH RNAV (GNSS) or (GPS) Approach RNAV final approach with straight segments only 0.3 nm
102
Q

What is the limit for 2 primary altimeters to be within before entering RVSM airspace and within it?

A

200 ft

103
Q

A pilot should inform ATC when entering what level of turbulence?

A

OMA, just states: o “When encountering turbulence, pilots are urgently requested to report such conditions to ATC ASAP.”

104
Q

On what 3 occasions should a Nav Accuracy check be required?

A
  • No check required if GPS PRIMARY is available.
  • Otherwise:
    • IRS only navigation
    • PROG PAGE: LOW ACCURACY
    • NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on MCDU
105
Q

What is the limit for a pass/fail of the nav accuracy check?

A
  • Error <= 3 nm, FM Position is reliable 
  • Error > 3 nm, FM Position not reliable
106
Q

Where do you find out the effect of failed or downgraded equipment at an airfield?

A

OMA 8.1.3.11

107
Q

Can you start an approach with the RVRs below limits?

A

Yes, but you may not continue below 1,000 feet above TDZE unless RVR > applicable minima.

108
Q

Can you tell me about the validity of your JAR licence?

A
  • Issued in the UK, complies with the new EASA rules & will be revalidated as an EASA licence once it expires. Has to be revalidated every 5 years. 
  • Contains a valid Type Rating which is valid for 1 year. I’m required to pass a proficiency check each year to keep this current (LPC) & this also satisfies the requirements for a valid IR.
    • The check can be carried out within the 3 month period preceding the expiry of the rating. 
  • A valid Class 1 medical is required in order to exercise the privileges of the license, the medical is also renewable every year.
109
Q

What is the maximum crosswind limits for take-off and landing? What about from a narrow runway?

A
  • 38 knots including gusts 
  • Narrow Runway: 
    • DRY: 38 knots 
    • WET: 33 knots 
    • Contaminated 10 knots
110
Q

Can the aircraft autoland on a narrow runway?

A

No

111
Q

Can the aircraft autoland on runway which has been cleared but the width is still less than 45 meters?

A

Yes, as this is not considered to be a Narrow Runway, see flowchart in QRH CW-30

112
Q

What are the wind limits for the passenger and cargo doors?

A
  • Passenger Doors - 65 knots 
  • Cargo Doors - 40 knots
    • Increasing to 50 knots if aircraft into wind or Cargo Door on Leeward Side.
  • Cargo Doors must be closed before wind reaches 65 knots.
113
Q

What are the speed limits and maximum tiller deflection for:

A
  • 1 deflated tire, on 1 or more gear, limit 3 - 7 knots when turning
  • 2 deflated tires, on same gear - 3 knots 30⁰ 
  • Damaged tires - Do Not Taxi
114
Q

Autopilot minimum disconnects for –

A
  • Non precision approach - MDA 
  • Cat 1 ILS - 160 feet 
  • Cat 2 ILS - 80 feet 
  • Circling approach - MDA – 100 feet
115
Q

What is the maximum brake temperature for take-off?

A
  • Brake Fans Off - 300⁰C 
  • Brake Fans On - 150⁰C
116
Q

Where would you find the minimum flight crew oxygen requirement?

A

FCOM LIM-35

117
Q

Starter cycle limitations for the APU?

A
  • 3 starter motor cycles 
  • Wait 60 minutes 
  • Attempt 3 more
118
Q

Starter cycle limitations for the Engines?

A
  • 4 consecutive cycles (max 2 minutes each) 
  • Pause between start attempts 20 seconds 
  • 15 minute cooling period after 4 starts attempts 
  • No running engagement of the starter when N2 above 20%
119
Q

Max altitude for flaps and gear?

A
  • FLAPS - 20,000 feet 
  • GEAR - 25,000 feet
120
Q

What are the gear operating speeds?

A
  • Extended - 280 knots 
  • Extend - 250 knots 
  • Retract - 220 knots
121
Q

Maximum speeds for all flap configurations?

A
  • FLAPS 1 - 230 knots 
  • FLAPS 1+F - 215 knots 
  • FLAPS 2 - 200 knots 
  • FLAPS 3 - 185 knots 
  • FLAPS FULL - 177 knots
122
Q

Crew health, what time is required after:

A
  • Local Anaesthetic - 24 hours 
  • General Anaesthetic - 48 hours 
  • Alcohol - 10 hours minimum (less than 5 units in 14 hours preceding the 10 hr ban) 
  • Deep sea diving (>10m) - 48 hours 
  • Blood donation - 24 hours
123
Q

Explain landing minima if RVR’s are unserviceable?

A

Met Vis can be converted to RVR using the table at OMA 8.1.3.10 Provided:

  • Only used for landing
  • Only used to calculate a required RVR > 800m
  • Not used if RVR is reported
124
Q

Firearms in the cabin, can you carry them? If so under what circumstances? What about carrying firearms in the cargo hold, what are the limitations?

A
  • In the Cabin under certain circumstances;
    • UK Police & Protection Officers if escorting a protected person
    • Italian & Spanish Domestic Flights – Police Officers
    • Certain requirements apply. OMA 9.2 refers. 
  • In the hold:
    • Sporting Firearms & ammunition
    • Ammunition not loose & maximum 5 kg.
    • Again, OMA 9.2 refers.
125
Q

What is IRS drift? Where do you find the tolerances? 

A
  • Position error of the IRS position 
  • OMB 2.3.22.2 Shutdown
126
Q

When do you do a rapid align/full alignment of the IRS’s? When do you consider the IRS to unserviceable?

A
  • Rapid Align - residual ground speed > 5 knots 
  • Failed if - residual ground speed > 15 knots after 2 consecutive flights 
  • Failed if - residual ground speed > 21 knots 
  • Full Align if: 
    • First Flight of the Day 
    • Flight crew change
    • GPS not available & long flights in poor nav aid coverage airspace expected
127
Q

What are the flight instrument tolerances?

A
  • PFDs within 20 feet of each other 
  • PFDs within 25 feet of airfield elevation 
  • PFDs within 100 feet of ISIS
128
Q

Why when following an RA do you turn off the flight directors?

A
  • To ensure auto-thrust SPEED mode 
  • To avoid possible confusion between FD bar orders & TCAS aural & VSI orders
129
Q

What is the mode reversion if NAV is lost?

A

HDG

130
Q

When do you need to make cold temperature corrections?

A

Surface temperature is -10⁰C or below.

131
Q

You are flying an approach in LVP’s, you have some kind of failure at 2000ft. Can you continue? When must you go around?

A

Continue if, by 1,000 feet: 

  • ECAM (check-list items) complete 
  • RVR at least equal to that required for downgrade 
  • Briefing updated to include new procedure & DH ref. the downgrade 
  • Decision to downgrade is completed by 1,000 feet above TDZE.
132
Q

What must you go around for below 1,000ft in LVPs?

A
  • Cavalry Charge – Loss of AP 
  • ALPHA FLOOR activation. 
  • Triple Click – Downgrade of Capability 
  • Single Chime – Amber Caution 
  • Engine failure
133
Q

Do we carry children under the age of 14? What are the requirements?

A
  • Yes 
  • Must be accompanied by a passenger of age 16 years or above. 
  • Max ten under 14 year olds to each passenger of over 16 years.
134
Q

What are the stabilities when in alternate law?

A
  • Load Factor Limitation - Similar to that in Normal Law 
  • Low Speed Stability - Gentle nose down signal from 5 to 10 knots above VSW, replaces α protection. 
  • High Speed Stability - Nose Up demand introduced above VMO/MMO
135
Q

When in alternate law, why is the aircraft put into direct law when the gear is extended?

A
  • This is the only way to introduce a simplified Flare Mode.  I
  • nstead of the nose down demand below 50 feet, you just get the Direct stick-to-elevator relationship.
136
Q

On an LVP approach below 1000ft explain what happens to the aircraft? 

A

800 feet - Landing Inhibit 

700 feet - FMGC Data Lock (ILS CRS, FREQ & Performance Data) 

500 feet - “Stable/check” or “Not Stable Go-Around / Go-Around Flaps” 

400 feet - LAND on FMA (Displayed if LOC & GS modes active & at least one RA available.) PF Checks Inbound Course 

350 feet - If no LAND seen on FCU, Go-Around 

200 feet - Autoland Light becomes Active, Go-Around if it comes on. 

100 feet - ALERT HEIGHT, based on Fail Operational Auto-land System Below Alert height continue for single failures unless Autoland Light Comes ON. 

40 feet - FLARE on FCU, if not seen Go-Around unless visual refs allow manual landing. 

30 feet - THRUST IDLE 

10 feet - “Retard” 

Touchdown - ROLLOUT on FMA

137
Q

Which slats have anti-ice?

A

3 outboard slats (3, 4 & 5)

138
Q

Cabin search/tidy? When does a search apply?

A
  • Cold Aircraft (regardless of location) - On boarding a search musrt be completed prior to deperature even if aircraft has been left with authorised ground staff
  • Turnaround in the UK, Jersey, Russia and GIB OR after flights inbound from NON-EU countries OR prior to deperature to Tel Aviv - Tidy / Search
  • Turnarounds outside the UK (except arrivals from NON-EU countries and in GIB) - Tidy
  • End of duty - Tidy
139
Q

When does crew inexperience end?

A
  • First Officers:
    • 100 flying hours & 50 sectors within consolidation period of 120 days from FLC. 
  • Captains:
    • 100 flying hours & 50 sectors within consolidation period of 120 days from FLC.
    • Successful completion of the first recurrent Simulator Check.
140
Q

What are the pitch limits for landing on an A319 and A320 and when should Pitch be called?

A

A Tail Scrape will occur:

  • A319: - 15.5⁰ (13.9⁰ LDG Gear Compressed)
  • A320: - 13.5⁰ (11.7⁰ LDG Gear Compressed) 

“PITCH” should be called at 10⁰ nose up.

141
Q

Landing distance procedures –

  • When should you use “without reverser”?
  • What multiple failures are you allowed to combine?
A
  • When calculating the IFLD on the LPC as it defaults to MAX reverse for both WET & DRY runways.
  • None if using the QRH. Apply as many as required using the LPC.
142
Q

IFLD using the LPC for a DAMP runway. What selection do you apply in the LPC for Takeoff, Landing-Dispatch & Landing-InFlight?

A
  • Take-off: DRY 
  • Landing (Dispatch) WET 
  • Landing (In-Flight) GOOD
143
Q

IFLD using the LPC for a SLIPPERY WHEN WET runway. What selection do you apply in the LPC for Takeoff, Landing-Dispatch & Landing-InFlight?

A
  • Take-off: ICY 
  • Landing (Dispatch) STANDING WATER 
  • Landing (In-Flight) MEDIUM
144
Q

Vapp – What would you set for?

A
  • Normal Operations - VAPP 
  • Gusty Winds - VAPP + 5 to VAPP + 15 knots 
  • Ice Accretion - VAPP + 5 knots in CONF FULL 
  • Ice Accretions - VAPP + 10 knots in CONF 3
145
Q

When can you continue with an EGPWS warning?

A

During Daylight VMC conditions with terrain & obstacles clearly in sight, alert may be considered cautionary.

146
Q

What is the maximum engine restart altitude?

A

FL250

147
Q

What is the easy ops frequency?

A

131.4

148
Q

What is the minimum RVR for a straight in visual approach?

A

800m

149
Q

If doing a visual approach, what is the minimum VIS and Ceiling requirements?

A
  • VIS: 5 km 
  • Ceiling: 2,500 feet
150
Q

Talk me through a visual approach from a downwind position.

A
  • Manually ACTIVATE APPR 
  • Select FDs to OFF 
  • Select the BIRD 
  • From abeam threshold time 45 seconds ± wind for a 1,500 foot circuit
  • Turn Base max bank 30⁰ 
  • Descend FLAPS 2, ‘S’ Speed 
  • Configure & turn final as normal.
151
Q

When does the landing gear safety valve operate?

A
  • > 260 knots 
  • Safety Valve automatically cuts off hydraulic supply to the landing gear system.
152
Q

Explain the max FDP considerations for a delayed report, up to and over 4 hours?

A
  • < 4 hours: FDP based on time band of original report time, FDP & DP begin at actual report time. 
  • ≥ 4 hours: Max FDP based on most limiting time band & FDP & DP start 4 hours after original report time.
153
Q

What distance and height should thunderstorms be avoided by?

A
  • 20 nm 
  • 5,000 feet minimum but avoid if possible.
154
Q

What are the standard passenger weights including hand luggage?

A
  • Male 93 kg 
  • Female 75 kg 
  • Child 35 kg 
  • Infant nil
155
Q

What are the standard weights for baggage?

A
  • Domestic 11 kg 
  • European 13 kg 
  • Intercontinental 15 kg
156
Q

How many successive approaches are allowed according to easyJet’s policy?

A
  • 2 (unless significant improvement in Wx, or a state of emergency exists) 
  • 3 if go-around flown for non-weather related reasons provided landing assured.
157
Q

What are the fuel imbalance limitations?

A
  • See LIM-28 
  • 1,500 kg is a good guide figure, albeit for Take-off 
  • some of the newer aircraft are more restrictive (500 kg)
158
Q

What is the obstacle separation during a circling approach?

A

4.2nm

159
Q

What is the timing during a procedure turn for a Cat C aircraft?

A

1:15

160
Q

What would you do if electrical power supply is interrupted during the engine start process (indicated by loss of DU’s)?

A

Abort the start by switching OFF the master switch, then perform a 30 second dry crank. OMB 2.3.8.1

161
Q

What is the order of priority of the easyJet suite of the operating manuals?

A

Company NOTAMS

NTC’s

OEB’s

Company Manuals

FCOM

FCTM

Captain Now Obey Overtly Company Forever Flying

162
Q

How often are the manuals updated?

A

Every 6 months.

163
Q

What would you highlight if low cloud base and crosswind with new FO flying?

A
  • To resist the nature urge to turn towards the runway when visual & to keep the drift on that he has. 
  • I may also review the cross wind landing technique.
164
Q

What additional things would you brief a new FO with regard to an LVP approach?

A
  • Extra FMA calls 
  • Task sharing 
  • Items that may constitute a go-around (Auto-land light, etc.) 
  • Possible downgrades & how we would action them.
165
Q

What would you brief to a new FO if it was gusty or if windshear was a possibility on approach?

A
  • Windshear actions 
  • Go-around actions 
  • Ask him if he is comfortable flying the approach (unless WS possible then I’d be flying it – see FO limitations)
166
Q

When can a predictive windshear warning be ignored? What about a reactive windshear warning? 

A
  • Predictive may be considered cautionary if positive verification made that no hazard exists.
  • You must always react to a reactionary Windshear Warning.
167
Q

Describe how the aircraft windshear systems work and what is required for them to work?

A
  • The FAC generates the Windshear warning whenever the predicted energy level for the aircraft falls below a predetermined threshold. 
  • FAC uses data from; ADIRS amongst other sources.
  • Predictive Windshear is a function of the Weather Radar (operates below 2,300 feet) o Requires: Wx Radar set to AUTO & Transponder set to ON or AUTO.
168
Q

How many seconds does it take for the RAT to deploy?

A

8 seconds

169
Q

Maximum Speed of the aircraft?

A

350kts / 0.82

170
Q

Max aerodrome altitude?

A

9200 ft

171
Q

In which sequence do the fuel tanks feed?

A

Centre tanks

Inner Tanks (Up to 750kgs, then fuel xfer valves open)

Outer Tanks - Fuel xfers into inner tanks

1. OM-A (9 decks)

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