Generic Part A & B Flashcards
1
Q
When do we not need a destination alternate?
A
Flight < 6 Hours. Visibility above 5km. Ceiling 2000ft or circling plus 500ft. Two separate runways. OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4
2
Q
When can we consider runways to be separated?
A
Separate approach procedures based on separate approach aids. If they cross a blockage on one does not prevent the planned operation on the other. OMA 8.1.2.2.2.4
3
Q
When do we require two destination alternates?
A
If destination weather is unavailable. If destination weather is below planning minimal for ETA +- 1 hour. Landing not assured as destination as landing depends on specific wind component/runway state. OMA 8.1.2.2.2.3
4
Q
When planning for an alternate, the TAF indicates in a PROB/TEMPO that the weather will be below limits. Can this alternate be used?
A
Yes. PROB/TEMPO can be disregarded.
5
Q
What is the planning minima for a Take-off alternate?
A
At or above the minimal for the expected instrument approach. Any limitation related to OEI or dispatch under the MEL shall be taken into consideration.
6
Q
Within what distance must a Take-off alternate be?
A
1 hour still air flight time at OEI cruising speed. 320nm.
7
Q
Within what distance must a cruise alternate be?
A
A319 - 380nm. A320 - 400nm.
8
Q
What is the planning minima for a destination alternate if only a non-precision approach is available?
A
MDA + 200ft RVR + 1000m
9
Q
How long is a tempo forecast expected to last?
A
Individually less than one hour each episode. In aggregate less than half of the period specified.
10
Q
How much extra fuel should be carried for LVP’s?
A
Half an hour. About 1000kgs.
11
Q
What is the final reserve?
A
30 minutes holding fuel. 1500ft above destination alternate aerodrome. ISA conditions. Expected weight overhead the destination alternate aerodrome.
12
Q
If planning to tanker maximum fuel, what are the maximum landing weight considerations to base your tanker figure around?
A
MLW - (1% of MLW) A320 LW = MLW - 660kg = 65,340 kg. A319 LW = MLW - 610kg = 60,390kg.
13
Q
When can you not tanker fuel?
A
When you expect to land on a contaminated or slippery runway. When expecting to land on a performance limited runway.
14
Q
For fuel planning, what is the associated fuel usage associated with – Engine Anti Ice, Engine + Wing Anti Ice, Taxi Fuel, APU Fuel, Trip fuel adjustment for increased track mileage, or reduced track mileage
A
Engine Anti Ice 1 kg/min or 2kg/min in the hold Engine + Wing Anti Ice 2 kg/min or 3 kg/min in the hold Taxi Fuel Single Engine: 7 kg/min Two Engines: 10 kg/min APU Fuel 2 kg/min (120 kg/hour) Trip fuel adjustment for increased track mileage, or reduced track mileage Reduction of mileage: 4 kg / nm Increase in mileage: 5 kg / nm
15
Q
What is contingency fuel?
A
5% of trip fuel, or 5 minutes holding at 1,500 feet above destination aerodrome, ISA conditions
16
Q
What is contingency fuel carried for?
A
Unforeseen adverse circumstances: Unfavourable Flight Level Unfavourable Track Unfavourable Unforecast Wind
17
Q
What is the minimum RFF category for departure, destination and alternates?
A
Departure/Destination - Normally 6, although can be reduced to 5 if low traffic. This can be reduced to 4 if temporary downgrade less than 72 hours. Alternates - Non-UK 4, UK 5
18
Q
What is the fuel for landing for Normal, Caution and Emergency phases? And what would your actions be?
A
Normal: CNR
Caution: May be below CNR at destination.
- Re-plan with a closer alternate
- Decrease speed (Cost Index Minimum) Obtain direct routes
- Fly optimum Flight Level
- Land & refuel.
Emergency: Below Final Reserve Fuel at destination.
- May land with less than final reserve fuel: Advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring “MINIMUM FUEL”. This tells ATC that all planned aerodrome options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome, and any change to the clearance will result in landing with less than planned final reserve.
- WILL land with less than final reserve fuel: “MAYDAY” call reporting fuel remaining in minutes.
19
Q
What are the limitations of LMC’s?
A
- New load sheet required if +10 or -20 Pax
- New Performance calculation if
- Positive LMC & TOGA Take-off planned
- Positive LMC > 250 kg
- MACTOW changed by more than 2%
20
Q
What is the minimum oil quantity?
A
9.5 quarts + 0.5 quart per hour of expected flight.
21
Q
What are the RVSM requirements?
A
- 2 ADRs
- 2 PFDs (Primary Altimeters must agree within 200 feet prior to & during RVSM flight.)
- 1 AP
- 1 FCU
- 1 FWC
- 1 Transponder with Mode S
22
Q
When does positioning count as a sector?
A
- If positioning within an FDP containing a split duty.
- Unless it is at the end of the FDP then it doesn’t count as a sector.
23
Q
When can we extend an FDP as part of a split duty?
A
- Two or more sectors separated by a period of time less than a minimum rest period.
- < 3hours rest: max. extension is NIL
- 3 to 10 hours rest: max extension is half of the consecutive hours of rest taken.
24
Q
What are the absolute limits on flying hours?
A
- 28 consecutive days: 100 hours
- 1 Year: 900 hours
25
What are the maximum duty hours?
* 7 consecutive days: 55 hours (can be extended to 60 due to unforeseen delays.)
* 14 consecutive days: 95 hours
* 28 consecutive days: 190 hours
26
How many hours can go into discretion to extend an FDP?
* 2 hours
* 3 hours immediately prior to final sector or on a single sector day.
27
When must a discretion report be filed?
* Discretion \> 2 hours
* Reduced Rest \> 1 hour
* Exceedance of cumulative limits on flying.
28
What is the order of priority of the easyJet suite of operating manuals?
1. Company NOTAMS, Crew Alerts and Crew Bulletins
2. Notices to crew (NTC) – Operational information, which are, specified as superseding Operating manuals
3. OEB's
4. Operations Manuals
5. FCOM
6. FCTM
Captains Now Obey Overtly Flying Forever
29
State a number of responsibilities of the commander
* Safe operation of the aircraft & for the safety of its occupants & cargo
* May offload any pax or cargo that in his opinion will represent a potential hazard to safety of the aircraft
* Will not allow any pax to be drunk to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or occupants is compromised
* In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision or action, take any action he deems necessary & in such an event he may deviate from the rules, operational procedures & methods in the interests of safety.
30
What are the First Officer handling limits?
* Cross Wind:
* SFO: 20 knots
* FO: 20 knots
* No planned tailwind for \*\*\* FO
* No Flaps 3 landings for \*\*\* FO (unless required by an emergency procedure.)
* No FO takeoff if VIS \< 400 m
* No Contaminated Runway
* No Windshear
* Minimum Runway width 45 m
* Minimum VIS for Circling 5,000 m
31
What is the procedure for reporting a bird strike?
* Inform ATC at the time of incident.
* Extra field to be completed on the SafetyNet on-line form.
32
When may flex not be used for takeoff?
* Contaminated Runway
* Windshear reported
33
What are the minimum take off climb gradients?
* Second Segment: 2.4% Gross
* Final Segment: 1.2% Gross
34
How would you calculate a landing and approach climb gradient?
Approach Climb: One engine inoperative, gear up & approach configuration. Landing Climb: All engines operating, gear down & approach configuration.
* Approach climb 2.1% gross (LPC LDG Perf. gives this, hence Single Engine Case considered by the LPC.)
* LOW VIS climb 2.5% gross (More stringent version of approach climb applied if DH \< 200 feet.)
* Landing Climb 3.2% gross (Less limiting for 2 eng aircraft than the Approach Climb, hence APPR CLB considered.)
* These gradients are calculated for certification purposes only & are thus academic.
* Practically, all LIDO Plates are designed with a 2.5% gradient in the Go-Around & if different the gradient will be stated on the plate.
* LPC takes into account the single engine case, thus this is the Approach Climb (more restrictive for 2 engine aircraft.)
35
What are the low visibility wind limits?
* Headwind - 30 knots
* Crosswind - 20 knots
* Tailwind - 10 knots
36
What is the minimum RVR for takeoff? What if you’re not LVO qualified? What visual segment is required?
* 125 metres
* 150 metres if not LVO qualified.
* 90 metre visual segment, this is an aircraft design requirement, A320 family compliant.
37
Is the third segment RVR required for takeoff or landing?
Only if relevant, ie
* Less than 60 knots expected after an RTO at V1 in the Take-off case (ADS \< ⅔ TODR to be certain.)
* Less than 60 knots during the landing roll. (LDR Vs LDA should give you an indication of this.)
38
Do you need RVR’s for takeoff in LVP’s or is met visibility OK?
* Yes.
* RVR required as conversion from Met VIS only allowed for landing & if RVR required is \> 800m.
39
When do LVP’s come in force?
* RVR \< 600 m
* Ceiling \< 200 fee
40
How many infants may be carried on board?
2 per accompanying adult.
41
Circling approach, when must you disconnect the autopilot?
100 feet below the MDA.
42
The dispatcher informs you human remains are being carried. Can you carry them? What about ashes?
* No
* Unless Ashes:
* Suitable container
* Death Certificate
* Cremation Certificate
* Hand Baggage Only.
43
Tell me about the carriage of musical instruments, specifically cellos?
* Small instruments to fit into overhead locker.
* Where not practical to combine instrument with another item of hand luggage, one small extra item allowed
* Larger instruments eg Cellos:
* Seat to be purchased
* Window seat
* Not a restricted seat
* Centre of mass \< 30 cm above the top of seat cushion
* Standard weight 10 kg (subject to local assessment) [GHM]
44
A passenger arrives on a stretcher, can we carry him?
No
45
Which seats on the airbus are restricted?
* Row 1, A B C D
* Overwing Rows
* Last Row, C D
46
Who may not sit in restricted seats?
* C - Children \< 16 years
* H - Hearing, Sight or other disability
* I - Infants on Laps
* P - Pregnant, Prisoners
* P - Physical Size
* E - Elderly if frail
* D - Deportee
47
Where would you find a list of dangerous goods, and which can we carry?
* OMA 9.1.3
* Exceptions are:
* Items for airworthiness or operating reasons
* To provide, during flight, medical aid to a patient.
48
What if someone turned up on board carrying dangerous goods, what would you do if: a) on the ground, b) in flight?
Response in both cases would depend very much on the nature of the dangerous goods in question.
49
What does the REC MAX altitude mean?
* Displayed on the MCDU PROG PAGE
* Provides a 0.3g Buffet Margin
* Aircraft will climb at 300 fpm at Max CLB Thrust
* Aircraft will cruise in level flight at Max CRZ Thrust
* Aircraft will maintain a speed above green dot & below VMO/MMO
* A higher FL can be selected up to a point where a 0.2g buffet margin is reached.
* Maximum FL selectable is FL398
50
What does the OPT ALT mean and how is it calculated?
* Based on Cost Index,
* Weight and FMGC Wind Data
* Compromise between Time and Fuel Saving
* Requires a 15 minute CRZ time
51
What is the minimum number of cabin crew?
3
52
Can you operate with three cabin crew? What if the senior goes sick down route? What are the considerations/actions?
* Yes
* Uprank next most senior crew member (1 year experience, 20 sectors on type) Duty Pilot Authorisation Required
* 150 Pax maximum
* Consider the number of \*\*\* crew
* Cannot leave or transit a Crew Base.
53
Can you board the aircraft with only 3 cabin crew? What are the considerations?
* Yes
* SCCM must be present
* No refuelling
* 1 pilot must be present & on the flight deck
* 150 pax maximum
54
What levels of bomb warnings are there?
* RED - Specific & credible – Requires immediate action ie diversion/disembarkation.
* AMBER (Ground Only) doubtful credibility - Discuss with Network Duty Manager course of action.
* GREEN - Not specific, not credible – No action required.
55
You receive a RED bomb warning. What would you do?
* On stand
* Disembark Pax & Crew
* Hand Baggage to be taken off with them.
* Give a ‘Security Problem’ as the reason.
* Pax to be taken to location separate from other passengers
* Advise ground crews to vacate the area
* Remove aircraft to a remote location & search if time exists.
* After Police give “All Clear”
* Full search of aircraft including catering, etc.
* All Passengers, cabin & hold baggage to be screened again
* Pax to be reconciled with their luggage
* All of this before re-embarkation is permitted.
* During taxi
* Advise ATC & passengers of a “Security Problem.”
* Request details of remote parking requirements
* Request immediate availability of steps to the aircraft
* Advise ATC of a need to locate passengers 200 m upwind of the aircraft as quickly as possible.
* Disembark Pax & Crew o Hand Baggage to be taken with them
* Only use slides if steps are not available (normal evac procedures now apply)
* In flight
* Declare an emergency
* Divert to nearest suitable airfield
* Fly as normally as possible, in accordance with checklist, etc. (turbulence penetration speed good compromise)
* Brief Cabin Crew to conduct a discrete search of toilets & galleys for suspicious articles.
* Do not raise cabin altitude, maintain or reduce if possible, Level off & descend to FL100 when possible.
* PA: Should state that threat is against the airline & although most likely a hoax, must be treated seriously.
* On landing same as for threat on taxi.
56
What is the difference between a precautionary and emergency landing?
A precautionary landing is one in which under normal circumstances there will be no requirement to evacuate.
57
What calls would you make for an unplanned and planned emergency landing?
* Unplanned: “ATTENTION CREW, BRACE BRACE.”
* Planned:
* 2,000 feet “CABIN CREW TAKE UP LANDING POSITIONS.”
* 500 feet “BRACE, BRACE.”
58
When may a cabin crew member initiate an evacuation?
Obvious, Immediate & life threatening situation, ie catastrophic, any crew member may initiate the evacuation.
59
What is the definition of catastrophic?
* Serious Structural Damage (hole in the fuselage)
* Death or injury of the occupants.
* Examples:
* Ditching
* Uncontrolled cabin fire / smoke
* Severe structural damage, eg hole in the fuselage, abnormal attitude severe scraping sound as aircraft came to a stop.
60
What are the wake vortex separation minima for take-off?
* Heavy
* Full Length - 2 mins
* Intersection - 3 mins
* A380
* Full Length - 3 mins
* Intersection - 4 mins
61
What is the wake vortex separation minima for approach?
* Upper Medium (B757) - 4 miles
* Heavy - 5 miles
* A380 - 7 miles
62
What level does RVSM start and what is the separation? Where would you find the list of required equipment?
* FL290
* 1,000 feet vertically
* QRH SI-70
63
Tell me about allowable frost and icing on the airframe? When should you deice?
* 3mm of frost allowed on lower wing surfaces in area cold soaked by fuel.
* Thin hoarfrost is acceptable, provided surface features can still be seen, on the:
* Fuselage
* Radome
* Engine Cowl
64
How do you remove contamination forward of the aircraft windscreens?
By mechanical methods only, ie a brush.
65
When should Engine Anti-ice ON be selected in the LPC for take-off performance considerations?
* OAT ≤ 10⁰C and visible moisture present
* If you plan to use anti-ice before one engine out acceleration altitude, ie cloud ceiling ≤ 1 engine out accel’n alt.
66
Above what speed will the auto-brake take effect if a take-off is rejected?
72 knots
67
What angle should the weather radar be set to for takeoff?
≈ 4⁰ Nose Up
68
When should crosswind be taken into account for a crosswind take-off technique? And what is the technique?
* Crosswind \> 20 knots
* Sidestick Fully Forward
* Set Thrust to 50% N1, allow it to stabilise.
* Rapidly set 70% N1
* Then smoothly increase power to T/o Power detent (FLEX or TOGA as appropriate) by 40 knots GS.
* At 80 knots slowly release the Sidestick to be neutral by 100 knots.
69
What speed on take-off does nose wheel steering stop?
130 knots
70
At what height can you engage the auto pilot after takeoff?
100 feet aal
71
How many miles from the route centreline is MORA calculated?
10nm
72
How much vertical clearance is provided with a MORA for obstacles up to 5000ft and above 5000ft?
* 1,000 feet clearance for obstacles up to 5,000 feet
* 2,000 feet clearance for obstacles above 5,000 feet
73
Should you correct MSA’s for temperature and wind? Explain how?
* Not really anymore, now it just advises about the issue. It would be prudent to do so.
* Using the tables provided in OMA 8.1.1.3 & QRH SI-20
74
Which category of airports require a visit as part of an operating crew or through simulator training?
Cat C
75
Which category requires self briefing? How is this self briefing recorded by the commander?
* Cat B
* Cat B Restricted
* By signing the OFP.
76
When can Wing Anti-ice be used? (Hot air from Pneumatic system heats 3 outboard slats.) Can it be used on the ground?
* If severe ice accretion expected or if any indication of icing on the airframe.
* If switched on whilst on the ground, it runs a 30 second test sequence then closes for as long as the aircraft is on the ground.
77
What is the difference between SAT and TAT?
* SAT: Static Air Temperature which is the ambient temperature of the air.
* TAT: Total Air Temperature which is the temperature measured in the pitot tube. This is higher than SAT due to friction & adiabatic increase due to air compression, called ‘Ram Rise.’
78
Which hydraulic system runs the normal brakes?
Green
79
Do we manually have to select alternate brakes?
No
80
Is anti-skid available on the alternate brakes?
* Normally yes, but it depends on the nature of the failure that put you onto the Alternate Braking System.
* Anti-skid may be either deactivated:
* Electrically: A/SKID NW STRG sw off, Power Supply Failure or BSCU Failure
* Hydraulically: G+Y LO PR, or brakes supplied by accumulator pressure only.
81
When does antiskid become available (eg above what ground speed)?
Above 20 knots ground speed, it is deactivated below this speed.
82
Name the 4 levels of braking depending on failures?
* Normal Brakes
* Alternate Brakes with Anti-skid
* Alternate Brakes without Anti-skid
* Park Brake
83
How is anti-skid downgraded on the alternate braking system?
If it’s available it is not downgraded. The BSCU still operates it, albeit via different valves.
84
Is auto-brake available on the alternate braking system?
No
85
If ATC tell you on approach that braking actions are poor/poor/poor what would you do?
* If this is a temporary state due to passing Wx, possibly hold until conditions improve.
* Check Landing performance in the LPC.
* Consider crosswind by checking QRH-IFL
* Perhaps consider a diversion to a more suitable airfield if safest option.
86
Double engine failure – what are your initial actions, where would you go, how far could you reach?
* ENG MODE SEL - IGN
* THRUST LEVERS - IDLE
* SPEED - 300 knots (Optimum Relight Speed)
* PITCH - 3⁰ Nose Down is a good initial starting point
* LANDING STRATEGY Determine (Choose an airfield set up approach & extend cerntreline)
* At 300 knots, the aircraft can fly 2 nm per 1,000 feet (no wind)
* During final approach 6⁰ Glideslope is realistic.
* Don’t worry if you need to bust Flap Speeds to configure
* Yellow electric pump may help to lower the gear if Yellow Hydraulics Available (Check HYD Page)
87
What’s the difference between OPEN CLB and CLB?
* OPEN CLB mode disregards all altitude constraints up to the FCU selected altitude.
* CLB mode meets all constraints defined in the FMGC (will not adjust speed to meet a missed constraint though)
88
When is the PTU inhibited?
* Aircraft is on GROUND, and
* Either: Park Brake is set, or NWS is in the Towing Position, and
* One Engine Master is ON and the other is OFF
* Also, it will not run within 40 seconds of Cargo Door operation.
89
Which systems have hydraulic priority and why?
Flight Controls, obvious really!!
90
What are the turbulence penetration speeds? Is there a difference between the A319 and the A320?
* Above FL320 - M0.76
* FL200 – FL320 - 275 knots
* Below FL200 - 250 knots
* No Difference between A319 & A320.
91
What would your actions be if experiencing severe turbulence (think cabin as well)?
* SIGNS - ON
* AP - KEEP ON
* A/THR - OFF (if thrust changes become excessive)
* DESCENT - CONSIDER
* Brief CC - NITS style brief
* N - Flight Conditions & expected severity
* I - Whether crew should be seated/acceptable level of service
* T - Expected duration of turbulence
* S - Any other relevant information.
92
You are in CLB/ALT\* then new FL given, what happens?
* You select the new FL on the FCU
* Vertical Mode reverts to V/S
* Lateral Mode remains unchanged.
93
What are the potential problems with using V/S at high levels?
* V/S guidance has priority over the speed guidance.
* So the FMGC may decelerate to achieve the selected V/S, potentially causing a Low Speed Event.
94
Can you burn your contingency fuel on the ground?
* Yes
* Being held at the holding point is one of the unforeseen events that contingency fuel is loaded to protect against.
95
What is the VHF monitoring policy for VHF1 and VHF2? What about clearance and digital clearance?
* VHF1 - Both Pilots to monitor at all times
* VHF2 - If using VHF2, continue to monitor VHF1 to ensure continued SA During CRZ both pilots monitor VHF2 at an audible volume.
* DCL - Preferred method of obtaining clearance. Both pilots to verify the printed clearance & confirmation
* R/T Clearance - Both pilots must hear, understand & verify the clearance. Headsets must be worn.
96
What are the memory items?
* Crew Incap
* EGPWS
* EMER DESCENT - Immediate Actions
* Unreliable Speed - Immediate Actions
* Loss of Braking
* Stall Recovery
* Stall Warning at Lift-off
* TCAS
* Windshear
* Windshear Ahead
97
Do we correct VAPP for gusts? What is the maximum VAPP you can set?
* Yes,
* In case of strong or gusty crosswind greater than 20 knots, VAPP should be at least VLS + 5 knots.
* The 5 knot increment above VLS may be increased up to 15 knots at the flight crew’s discretion.
98
Can you re-engage a C/B in flight which has tripped by itself?
* No, unless as a last resort Captain considers it necessary to do so for the safe continuation of the flight.
* Only one re-engagement should be attempted.
99
Which C/Bs can you never re-engage?
Fuel Pumps of any tank
100
When should you select IGN on?
* Take-Off:
* Standing Water
* Heavy Rain
* Heavy Rain or severe turbulence expected after Take-off
* Descent:
* Heavy Precipitation encountered or expected
* Standing water on Landing Runway
101
What levels of RNAV navigation do easyJet have certification for? And explain when those levels apply?
OMA 8.3.2.6
* RNAV 1 P-RNAV Terminal Airspace including below MFA 1.0 nm
* RNAV 5 B-RNAV Enroute and terminal airspace above MFA 5.0 nm
* RNP APCH RNAV (GNSS) or (GPS) Approach RNAV final approach with straight segments only 0.3 nm
102
What is the limit for 2 primary altimeters to be within before entering RVSM airspace and within it?
200 ft
103
A pilot should inform ATC when entering what level of turbulence?
OMA, just states: o “When encountering turbulence, pilots are urgently requested to report such conditions to ATC ASAP.”
104
On what 3 occasions should a Nav Accuracy check be required?
* No check required if GPS PRIMARY is available.
* Otherwise:
* IRS only navigation
* PROG PAGE: LOW ACCURACY
* NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on MCDU
105
What is the limit for a pass/fail of the nav accuracy check?
* Error \<= 3 nm, FM Position is reliable
* Error \> 3 nm, FM Position not reliable
106
Where do you find out the effect of failed or downgraded equipment at an airfield?
OMA 8.1.3.11
107
Can you start an approach with the RVRs below limits?
Yes, but you may not continue below 1,000 feet above TDZE unless RVR \> applicable minima.
108
Can you tell me about the validity of your JAR licence?
* Issued in the UK, complies with the new EASA rules & will be revalidated as an EASA licence once it expires. Has to be revalidated every 5 years.
* Contains a valid Type Rating which is valid for 1 year. I’m required to pass a proficiency check each year to keep this current (LPC) & this also satisfies the requirements for a valid IR.
* The check can be carried out within the 3 month period preceding the expiry of the rating.
* A valid Class 1 medical is required in order to exercise the privileges of the license, the medical is also renewable every year.
109
What is the maximum crosswind limits for take-off and landing? What about from a narrow runway?
* 38 knots including gusts
* Narrow Runway:
* DRY: 38 knots
* WET: 33 knots
* Contaminated 10 knots
110
Can the aircraft autoland on a narrow runway?
No
111
Can the aircraft autoland on runway which has been cleared but the width is still less than 45 meters?
Yes, as this is not considered to be a Narrow Runway, see flowchart in QRH CW-30
112
What are the wind limits for the passenger and cargo doors?
* Passenger Doors - 65 knots
* Cargo Doors - 40 knots
* Increasing to 50 knots if aircraft into wind or Cargo Door on Leeward Side.
* Cargo Doors must be closed before wind reaches 65 knots.
113
What are the speed limits and maximum tiller deflection for:
* 1 deflated tire, on 1 or more gear, limit 3 - 7 knots when turning
* 2 deflated tires, on same gear - 3 knots 30⁰
* Damaged tires - Do Not Taxi
114
Autopilot minimum disconnects for –
* Non precision approach - MDA
* Cat 1 ILS - 160 feet
* Cat 2 ILS - 80 feet
* Circling approach - MDA – 100 feet
115
What is the maximum brake temperature for take-off?
* Brake Fans Off - 300⁰C
* Brake Fans On - 150⁰C
116
Where would you find the minimum flight crew oxygen requirement?
FCOM LIM-35
117
Starter cycle limitations for the APU?
* 3 starter motor cycles
* Wait 60 minutes
* Attempt 3 more
118
Starter cycle limitations for the Engines?
* 4 consecutive cycles (max 2 minutes each)
* Pause between start attempts 20 seconds
* 15 minute cooling period after 4 starts attempts
* No running engagement of the starter when N2 above 20%
119
Max altitude for flaps and gear?
* FLAPS - 20,000 feet
* GEAR - 25,000 feet
120
What are the gear operating speeds?
* Extended - 280 knots
* Extend - 250 knots
* Retract - 220 knots
121
Maximum speeds for all flap configurations?
* FLAPS 1 - 230 knots
* FLAPS 1+F - 215 knots
* FLAPS 2 - 200 knots
* FLAPS 3 - 185 knots
* FLAPS FULL - 177 knots
122
Crew health, what time is required after:
* Local Anaesthetic - 24 hours
* General Anaesthetic - 48 hours
* Alcohol - 10 hours minimum (less than 5 units in 14 hours preceding the 10 hr ban)
* Deep sea diving (\>10m) - 48 hours
* Blood donation - 24 hours
123
Explain landing minima if RVR’s are unserviceable?
Met Vis can be converted to RVR using the table at OMA 8.1.3.10 Provided:
* Only used for landing
* Only used to calculate a required RVR \> 800m
* Not used if RVR is reported
124
Firearms in the cabin, can you carry them? If so under what circumstances? What about carrying firearms in the cargo hold, what are the limitations?
* In the Cabin under certain circumstances;
* UK Police & Protection Officers if escorting a protected person
* Italian & Spanish Domestic Flights – Police Officers
* Certain requirements apply. OMA 9.2 refers.
* In the hold:
* Sporting Firearms & ammunition
* Ammunition not loose & maximum 5 kg.
* Again, OMA 9.2 refers.
125
What is IRS drift? Where do you find the tolerances?
* Position error of the IRS position
* OMB 2.3.22.2 Shutdown
126
When do you do a rapid align/full alignment of the IRS’s? When do you consider the IRS to unserviceable?
* Rapid Align - residual ground speed \> 5 knots
* Failed if - residual ground speed \> 15 knots after 2 consecutive flights
* Failed if - residual ground speed \> 21 knots
* Full Align if:
* First Flight of the Day
* Flight crew change
* GPS not available & long flights in poor nav aid coverage airspace expected
127
What are the flight instrument tolerances?
* PFDs within 20 feet of each other
* PFDs within 25 feet of airfield elevation
* PFDs within 100 feet of ISIS
128
Why when following an RA do you turn off the flight directors?
* To ensure auto-thrust SPEED mode
* To avoid possible confusion between FD bar orders & TCAS aural & VSI orders
129
What is the mode reversion if NAV is lost?
HDG
130
When do you need to make cold temperature corrections?
Surface temperature is -10⁰C or below.
131
You are flying an approach in LVP’s, you have some kind of failure at 2000ft. Can you continue? When must you go around?
Continue if, by 1,000 feet:
* ECAM (check-list items) complete
* RVR at least equal to that required for downgrade
* Briefing updated to include new procedure & DH ref. the downgrade
* Decision to downgrade is completed by 1,000 feet above TDZE.
132
What must you go around for below 1,000ft in LVPs?
* **C**avalry Charge – Loss of AP
* **A**LPHA FLOOR activation.
* **T**riple Click – Downgrade of Capability
* **S**ingle Chime – Amber Caution
* **E**ngine failure
133
Do we carry children under the age of 14? What are the requirements?
* Yes
* Must be accompanied by a passenger of age 16 years or above.
* Max ten under 14 year olds to each passenger of over 16 years.
134
What are the stabilities when in alternate law?
* Load Factor Limitation - Similar to that in Normal Law
* Low Speed Stability - Gentle nose down signal from 5 to 10 knots above VSW, replaces α protection.
* High Speed Stability - Nose Up demand introduced above VMO/MMO
135
When in alternate law, why is the aircraft put into direct law when the gear is extended?
* This is the only way to introduce a simplified Flare Mode. I
* nstead of the nose down demand below 50 feet, you just get the Direct stick-to-elevator relationship.
136
On an LVP approach below 1000ft explain what happens to the aircraft?
800 feet - Landing Inhibit
700 feet - FMGC Data Lock (ILS CRS, FREQ & Performance Data)
500 feet - “Stable/check” or “Not Stable Go-Around / Go-Around Flaps”
400 feet - LAND on FMA (Displayed if LOC & GS modes active & at least one RA available.) PF Checks Inbound Course
350 feet - If no LAND seen on FCU, Go-Around
200 feet - Autoland Light becomes Active, Go-Around if it comes on.
100 feet - ALERT HEIGHT, based on Fail Operational Auto-land System Below Alert height continue for single failures unless Autoland Light Comes ON.
40 feet - FLARE on FCU, if not seen Go-Around unless visual refs allow manual landing.
30 feet - THRUST IDLE
10 feet - “Retard”
Touchdown - ROLLOUT on FMA
137
Which slats have anti-ice?
3 outboard slats (3, 4 & 5)
138
Cabin search/tidy? When does a search apply?
* Cold Aircraft (regardless of location) - On boarding a search musrt be completed prior to deperature even if aircraft has been left with authorised ground staff
* Turnaround in the UK, Jersey, Russia and GIB OR after flights inbound from NON-EU countries OR prior to deperature to Tel Aviv - Tidy / Search
* Turnarounds outside the UK (except arrivals from NON-EU countries and in GIB) - Tidy
* End of duty - Tidy
139
When does crew inexperience end?
* First Officers:
* 100 flying hours & 50 sectors within consolidation period of 120 days from FLC.
* Captains:
* 100 flying hours & 50 sectors within consolidation period of 120 days from FLC.
* Successful completion of the first recurrent Simulator Check.
140
What are the pitch limits for landing on an A319 and A320 and when should Pitch be called?
A Tail Scrape will occur:
* A319: - 15.5⁰ (13.9⁰ LDG Gear Compressed)
* A320: - 13.5⁰ (11.7⁰ LDG Gear Compressed)
“PITCH” should be called at 10⁰ nose up.
141
Landing distance procedures –
* When should you use “without reverser”?
* What multiple failures are you allowed to combine?
* When calculating the IFLD on the LPC as it defaults to MAX reverse for both WET & DRY runways.
* None if using the QRH. Apply as many as required using the LPC.
142
IFLD using the LPC for a DAMP runway. What selection do you apply in the LPC for Takeoff, Landing-Dispatch & Landing-InFlight?
* Take-off: DRY
* Landing (Dispatch) WET
* Landing (In-Flight) GOOD
143
IFLD using the LPC for a SLIPPERY WHEN WET runway. What selection do you apply in the LPC for Takeoff, Landing-Dispatch & Landing-InFlight?
* Take-off: ICY
* Landing (Dispatch) STANDING WATER
* Landing (In-Flight) MEDIUM
144
Vapp – What would you set for?
* Normal Operations - VAPP
* Gusty Winds - VAPP + 5 to VAPP + 15 knots
* Ice Accretion - VAPP + 5 knots in CONF FULL
* Ice Accretions - VAPP + 10 knots in CONF 3
145
When can you continue with an EGPWS warning?
During Daylight VMC conditions with terrain & obstacles clearly in sight, alert may be considered cautionary.
146
What is the maximum engine restart altitude?
FL250
147
What is the easy ops frequency?
131.4
148
What is the minimum RVR for a straight in visual approach?
800m
149
If doing a visual approach, what is the minimum VIS and Ceiling requirements?
* VIS: 5 km
* Ceiling: 2,500 feet
150
Talk me through a visual approach from a downwind position.
* Manually ACTIVATE APPR
* Select FDs to OFF
* Select the BIRD
* From abeam threshold time 45 seconds ± wind for a 1,500 foot circuit
* Turn Base max bank 30⁰
* Descend FLAPS 2, ‘S’ Speed
* Configure & turn final as normal.
151
When does the landing gear safety valve operate?
* \> 260 knots
* Safety Valve automatically cuts off hydraulic supply to the landing gear system.
152
Explain the max FDP considerations for a delayed report, up to and over 4 hours?
* \< 4 hours: FDP based on time band of original report time, FDP & DP begin at actual report time.
* ≥ 4 hours: Max FDP based on most limiting time band & FDP & DP start 4 hours after original report time.
153
What distance and height should thunderstorms be avoided by?
* 20 nm
* 5,000 feet minimum but avoid if possible.
154
What are the standard passenger weights including hand luggage?
* Male 93 kg
* Female 75 kg
* Child 35 kg
* Infant nil
155
What are the standard weights for baggage?
* Domestic 11 kg
* European 13 kg
* Intercontinental 15 kg
156
How many successive approaches are allowed according to easyJet’s policy?
* 2 (unless significant improvement in Wx, or a state of emergency exists)
* 3 if go-around flown for non-weather related reasons provided landing assured.
157
What are the fuel imbalance limitations?
* See LIM-28
* 1,500 kg is a good guide figure, albeit for Take-off
* some of the newer aircraft are more restrictive (500 kg)
158
What is the obstacle separation during a circling approach?
4.2nm
159
What is the timing during a procedure turn for a Cat C aircraft?
1:15
160
What would you do if electrical power supply is interrupted during the engine start process (indicated by loss of DU’s)?
Abort the start by switching OFF the master switch, then perform a 30 second dry crank. OMB 2.3.8.1
161
What is the order of priority of the easyJet suite of the operating manuals?
Company NOTAMS
NTC's
OEB's
Company Manuals
FCOM
FCTM
Captain Now Obey Overtly Company Forever Flying
162
How often are the manuals updated?
Every 6 months.
163
What would you highlight if low cloud base and crosswind with new FO flying?
* To resist the nature urge to turn towards the runway when visual & to keep the drift on that he has.
* I may also review the cross wind landing technique.
164
What additional things would you brief a new FO with regard to an LVP approach?
* Extra FMA calls
* Task sharing
* Items that may constitute a go-around (Auto-land light, etc.)
* Possible downgrades & how we would action them.
165
What would you brief to a new FO if it was gusty or if windshear was a possibility on approach?
* Windshear actions
* Go-around actions
* Ask him if he is comfortable flying the approach (unless WS possible then I’d be flying it – see FO limitations)
166
When can a predictive windshear warning be ignored? What about a reactive windshear warning?
* Predictive may be considered cautionary if positive verification made that no hazard exists.
* You must always react to a reactionary Windshear Warning.
167
Describe how the aircraft windshear systems work and what is required for them to work?
* The FAC generates the Windshear warning whenever the predicted energy level for the aircraft falls below a predetermined threshold.
* FAC uses data from; ADIRS amongst other sources.
* Predictive Windshear is a function of the Weather Radar (operates below 2,300 feet) o Requires: Wx Radar set to AUTO & Transponder set to ON or AUTO.
168
How many seconds does it take for the RAT to deploy?
8 seconds
169
Maximum Speed of the aircraft?
350kts / 0.82
170
Max aerodrome altitude?
9200 ft
171
In which sequence do the fuel tanks feed?
Centre tanks
Inner Tanks (Up to 750kgs, then fuel xfer valves open)
Outer Tanks - Fuel xfers into inner tanks
