OM PART A BOM Need to know (Word for word) Flashcards

1
Q

Meaning of: ’Must/Shall’ (0.1.4)

A

The application of an instruction or procedure is mandatory.

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2
Q

Meaning of: ‘Should’ (0.1.4)

A

The application of an instruction or procedure is recommended.

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3
Q

Meaning of: ‘May’ (0.1.4)

A

The application of an instruction or procedure is at the discretion of the responsible person.

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4
Q
Commander:
General responsibility (1.4)
A

-The commander shall, whether manipulating the controls or not, be responsible for the operation of the aeroplane in accordance with the rules, methods and
procedures prescribed in the Operations Manual.
-Because operational limitations require the exercise of operational judgement in interpretation, the authority for the release of all flights, in so far as operating conditions are concerned, is vested exclusively in the commander.

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5
Q
Company Communication Protocol (2.4)
Fleet Control (SPL/ZZ) is the primary contact for..?
A
  • Any operational disturbance
  • Any event that may cause a deviation from standard operation and/or flight schedule.
  • Any serious incident, accident, airprox or other possible safety and security events.
  • Information any discrepancy related to flight execution.
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6
Q
Company Communication Protocol (2.4)
Flight Watch (SPL/ZZ) is the primary contact for..?
A

-information and inflight relay to other departments

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7
Q
Company Communication Protocol (2.4)
Crew Coordination (SPL/ZG) is the primary contact for..?
A

-crew rostering issues on the day of operation

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8
Q
Company Communication Protocol (2.4)
Maintenance Specialist (RJC) is the primary contact for..?
A
  • Reporting technical issues.

- Technical/dispatch information.

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9
Q

Company Communication Protocol (2.4)

The primary means of communication in order of preference are:

A
  • RUBRI-TEXT ACARS or FREE TEXT option.
  • Phone (especially for company/media sensitive information).
  • VHF (relay through Flight Watch or Maintenance Control).
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10
Q

Order of rank on board is: (4.2)

A
  • Commander
  • First Officer
  • Senior CA
  • Cabin Crew Member
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11
Q

Qualification Requirements Commander (5.1):

A
  1. ATPL + IR + TR
  2. Paspoort
  3. Medical
  4. LPE 4+
  5. Conversion course (OM Part D)
  6. Command course (OM Part D)
  7. License requirments (OM BOM 2.1)
  8. 3x T/O/LDG past 90 days
  9. Aerodrome and route competence qualifications
  10. Completed CRM Training
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12
Q

MFA’s (8.1)

Define “Route MORA”

A

The Route MORA is based on an area extending 10 NM on either side of the route centre line and is calculated by rounding up the highest terrain or obstruction elevation within this area to the next higher 100 ft and then adding:

  • 1,000 ft for terrain or obstruction up to 6,000 ft, or
  • 2,000 ft for terrain or obstruction above 6,000 ft.
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13
Q

MFA’s (8.1)

Define Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA)

A

The MEA is normally the lowest officially published altitude on a route segment that covers adequate NAVAID signal reception and minimum obstacle clearance:

  • 1,000 ft for terrain or obstruction up to 6,000 ft, or
  • 2,000 ft for terrain or obstruction above 6,000 ft.
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14
Q

MFA’s (8.1)

Define Minimum Terrain Clearance Altitude (MTCA)

A

-For Route segments, same as Route MORA
-For SIDs & STARs, the MTCA is based on an area extending 5 NM on either side of the route centre line. This MTCA is published for all STARs up to IAF or
equivalent end point, and as exception for selected airports on SIDs (for segments lying outside the coverage of the MSA). The following minimum obstacle clearance applies:
1,000 ft for terrain or obstruction up to 6,000 ft, or
2,000 ft for terrain or obstruction above 6,000 ft.
-An MTCA is not provided on open end procedure legs, e.g. radar vectoring legs.

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15
Q

MFA’s (8.1)

Define Minimum Grid Altitude (MGA)

A

The MGA is the lowest safe altitude to be flown off-track. The MGA is calculated by rounding up the elevation of the highest obstruction within the respective grid area to the next 100 ft and adding an increment of:
-1,000 ft for terrain or obstruction up to 6,000 ft, or
-2,000 ft for terrain or obstruction above 6,000 ft.
The lowest indicated MGA is 2,000 ft. This value is also provided for terrain and obstacles that would result in an MGA below 2,000 ft. Exception is overwater areas,
where the MGA can be omitted.

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16
Q

MFA’s (8.1)

Define Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA)

A

The lowest altitude which may be used and will provide a minimum clearance of 1,000 ft above all objects located in an area contained within a sector of a circle of 25 NM radius centered on the reference NAVAID or the Aerodrome Reference Point (ARP). The MSA is shown for each sector. The sectors and altitudes are officially published by State authorities

17
Q

MFA’s (8.1)

Define Terminal Arrival Altitude (TAA)

A

TAA sectors and altitudes are officially published by State authorities and are only shown for RNAV approaches, replacing the MSA. Similar to the MSA, a TAA inset is shown if the full sector information is not clearly visible on the chart plan view.

18
Q

MFA’s (8.1)

Define Driftdown Minimum Crossing Altitude (D-MCA)

A

(KLC Policy) The D-MCA is the required minimum altitude determined for the aeroplane type and route segment concerned in order to satisfy terrain clearance requirements in case of an N-1 situation.

19
Q

What are the ALTEA Tolerance margins on the Loadsheet (8.1)

A

50kg and 0,1 % MAC

20
Q

Fuel (8.1)

Pre-flight calculation of usable fuel required for a flight includes

A
  • Taxi fuel;
  • Trip fuel;
  • Contingency fuel;
  • Alternate fuel, if a destination alternate aerodrome is required;
  • Final reserve fuel;
  • Additional fuel, if required by the type of operation (e.g. planning without a destination alternate);
  • Extra fuel if required by the commander.
21
Q

Fuel (8.1)

What is required to use CONT 90%

A
  • More then one usable runway
  • Visibility 1500m ceiling 500ft
  • Congestion Class Standard or Predictable
22
Q

The ‘Loadsheet ACCEPT’ response message includes also (8.1):

A
  1. Acceptance of the final NOTOC, and

2. Confirms the flight deck and cabin security check/search.

23
Q

What Items need to be checked on the Load Sheet? (8.1)

A
  1. aeroplane registration
  2. aeroplane variant
  3. flight number
  4. date
  5. crew complement
  6. fuel figures
24
Q

What Items need to be checked on the OFP? (8.1)

A
  1. the correct flight number;
  2. date;
  3. aeroplane registration;
  4. departure and arrival airports;
  5. zero fuel weight;
  6. correct alternate aerodromes,
  7. that the contingency fuel calculation is based on the correct coverage.
25
Q

What components make up the Aircraft technical log? (8.1)

A

-Aircraft Maintenance Log (AML):
-Aircraft Briefing Card (ABC)
-Deferred Defect List (DDL)
-Certificate of Release to Service (CRS)
-Structure Damage List/Buckle and Damage Chart .
Aircraft Flight Log (AFL).

26
Q

The final responsibility for accepting the aeroplane after de-icing/anti-icing rest with? (BOM 8.2.4.4)

A

The commander.

27
Q

Hold over Time is influenced by: (BOM 8.2.4.4)

A
  • heavy precipitation and high air moisture content
  • high wind velocity
  • jet blasts
  • aeroplane skin significantly lower than OAT
28
Q

Fuel phases : (8.3)

Define the Normal phase

A

FOB = More than Alternate fuel plus Final Reserve fuel; or when planned without destination alternate, more than 15 min Holding fuel plus Final Reserve fuel.

29
Q

Fuel phases : (8.3)

Define the ab-Normal phase

A

FOB = Less than Alternate fuel plus Final Reserve fuel, but more than Final Reserve fuel; or when planned without destination alternate, less than 15 min Holding fuel plus Final Reserve fuel, but more than Final Reserve fuel.

30
Q

Fuel phases : (8.3)

Define the Emergency phase

A

FOB = Usable fuel on landing is less than Final Reserve fuel (not restricted to the destination aerodrome).

31
Q

Minimum required EFBs (BOM 8.9.2):

I case there are less than required EFB available:

A

KLM Cityhopper Operations Control (SPL/ZZ) should be contacted for alternate means to be used.

32
Q

Minimum required EFBs (BOM 8.9.2):

The commander shall not commence a flight unless:

A

he is satisfied 2 EFB’s are available for flights from Amsterdam or at least 1 EFB for flights from other stations.