OM PART A BOM Describe in own words Flashcards

1
Q

What is the order of applicability of manuals in case of deviating instructions (0.1):

A
  • KLM Cityhopper OM overrules all other manuals
  • OM Part B will overrule OM Part A.
  • OM Part C instructions will overrule OM Part A and OM Part B regulations, unless specifically indicated otherwise. (For a particular route, country or region)
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2
Q

Chief Pilot:

Relevant duties and responsibilities (1.3)

A
  • Ensure that all flight crew members of his division are aware of mandatory compliance with all laws, regulations and procedures as applicable to the aeroplane of his division.
  • Ensure that all flight crew members of his division are instructed to complete the mandatory records applicable to aeroplane operations.
  • Ensure that flight crew members are efficiently scheduled in accordance with legal and company work and rest time limitations.
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3
Q

Commander:

Describe the commander’s Authority’s (BOM 1.4)

A

The commander has authority to:

  1. Take any action he considers necessary in an emergency situation
  2. Give all commands he deems necessary for the purpose of securing the safety
  3. Initiate, continue, terminate, delay or divert a flight
  4. Reject an aircraft prior to departure of a flight
  5. Exercise other powers of authority as given to him by law
  6. Grant persons access to any part of the aeroplane in the interest of safety:
  7. Refuse transportation of inadmissible passengers, deportees or persons in custody
  8. Disembark any person, or any part of the cargo
  9. Delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitable qualified pilot.
  10. Make the final decision for the amount of fuel to be carried on each flight.
  11. Obtain de-icing/anti-icing whenever he determines that it is necessary 
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4
Q

Commander:

Describe the Duties and responsibilities (1.4)

A
  1. Is responsible for the safety of all crew members, passengers and cargo onboard, as soon as he arrives on board, until he leaves the aeroplane at the end of the flight.
  2. Shall not allow a person to be carried in the aeroplane who appears to be under the influence of alcohol or drugs to the extent that the safety of the aeroplane is endangered.
  3. Shall establish a sterile flight deck when necessary.
  4. Is responsible for the operation and safety of the aeroplane from the moment the aeroplane is first ready to move until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight.
  5. Has the final responsibility for functions, duties or tasks associated with operational control of the flight.
  6. Must ensure that abnormal or emergency situations are not simulated during commercial air transportation flights.
  7. Must ensure that all operational procedures are complied with,
  8. Must ensure that all checklists are used and complied with,
  9. Must ensure that the pre-flight inspection has been carried out.
  10. Must ensure that all security measures 6 are properly fulfilled.
  11. Shall not permit any crew member to perform any activity not required for the safe operation of the aeroplane.
  12. Shall not permit a Flight Recorder to be disabled or switched off during flight.
  13. Apply Crew Resource Management principles
  14. Must make optimum use of the opportunities and facilities for rest provided and plan and use his rest period properly
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5
Q

Commander:

Must not commence a flight unless he is satisfied that (1.4)

A
  1. The aeroplane is airworthy;
  2. The Aircraft Technical Log (ATL) is completed and signed;
  3. The Certificate of Release to Service (CRS) is on board;
  4. The aeroplane is in accordance with the provision of the MEL/CDL
  5. The required manuals, documents and additional information are on board;
  6. Space-based facilities, Ground facilities and services required are available and adequate;
  7. The provisions specified below can be complied with for the planned flight:
    i. Minimum safe altitudes.
    ii. Aerodrome operating minima
    iii. Required fuel and oil.
    iv. Applicable de-icing and anti-icing
    v. Oxygen requirements.
  8. The load is properly distributed and safely secured
  9. The weight of the aeroplane, is such that the flight can be conducted in compliance with the applicable performance requirements;
  10. Any other operational limitation can be complied with.
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6
Q

Licence and qualification validity for crew members (2.1.1):

A
  1. Proficiency check (12M+ 3)
  2. Aeroplane / FSTD training (Type recurrent) (12M+ 3)
  3. Line check (24M+6)
  4. Line Oriented Evaluation (12M+3)
  5. Route and aerodrome competence qualification (12M+3)
  6. Emergency and Safety Equipment training (24M+6)
  7. Ground and Refresher training (12M+3)
  8. Medical Certificates (Class 1) (12M)
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7
Q

Who has the authority to delay a flight? (2.4)

A
  • The station manager, duty station manager or handling agent has responsibility forflight movement deviations and/or delays of less than 30 minutes
  • Operations Control (SPL/ZZ) in concert with KLM Operations Control (OCC/LM)has responsibility for (expected) flight movement deviations and/or delays of 30 minutes and more.

The commander must inform Fleet Control, when he expects a delay of more than 30 minutes. Except in urgent cases, the crew shall not be disturbed for delay messages during rest hours.

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8
Q

Start of Boarding: 2.4

How long before STD should boarding commence in case of no CTOT and in case of a CTOT

A

-Boarding of KLC flights should commence no later than 20 min. prior to Scheduled Time of Departure (STD).
-Boarding with a slot of 60 minutes or less after standard time of departure:
Commence boarding no later than STD – 20 minutes.
Aircraft ready for departure at STD.
-Boarding with a slot between 61 minutes and 121 minutes after STD:
Commence boarding no later than slot time – 80 minutes
Aircraft ready for departure at slot time – 60 minutes.
-Procedure for slot delays longer than 120 minutes:
Contact SPL/ZZ Fleet Control for advice.

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9
Q

Inspection flights by CAA-NL inspectors (2.5)

KLM Cityhopper shall ensure that any person authorized by CAA-NL is

A
  • permitted at any time to board and fly in any aeroplane operated in accordance with the KLM Cityhopper AOC issued by the CAA-NL and to enter and remain on the flight deck.
  • The commander may refuse access to the flight deck if, in his opinion, the safety of the aeroplane would thereby be endangered.
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10
Q

Signing & Submitting of the OFP includes: (Preflight and After flight)

A
  • Acceptance off and ordering off final fuel (8.1.10)
  • The commander certifies that he and his delegate(s) have qualified themselves for the relevant route and aerodromes ( 5.1.2.9)
  • The commander certifies that he has reviewed the flight preparation and confirm that the flight can be safely executed in compliance with the applicable sections of the OM. (OFP Acceptance message)
  • After completion of the flight, the OFP shall be signed by the commander. With this final submit, the commander certifies completion of the journey log.(8.1.10)

After approval of the commander, any active flight crew member may accept the OFP.

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11
Q

Restriction for Co-pilot (5.1)

What restrictions apply to the co-pilot

A

-For co-pilots in their first KLM Cityhopper position as a co-pilot, a crosswind limitation of 15 kt is applicable for take-off and landing during the first year after
completion of the route training.
-Additional airport specific restrictions may be applicable; they are laid down in the
respective OM Part C4.

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12
Q

Low Visibility Operation qualifications (5.1)

Who is PF during CAT 2/3 Approaches?

A

Commander or the commander under supervision

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13
Q

Low Visibility Operation qualifications (5.1)

What procedures and minimums are applicable during practice CAT 2/3 approaches?

A

Normal CAT II/III procedures apply, refer to OM Part B.

However CAT I minima are applicable.

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14
Q

Divine an ‘accommodation’ and a ‘suitable accommodation’ according the FTL. (7.1)

A

‘accommodation’ a quiet and comfortable place not open to the public with the ability to control light and temperature, equipped with adequate furniture that provides a crew member with the possibility to sleep, with enough capacity to accommodate all crew members present at the same time and with access to food and drink.

‘suitable accommodation’ a separate room for each crew member located in a quiet environment and equipped with a bed, which is sufficiently ventilated, has a device for regulating temperature and light intensity, and access to food and drink;

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15
Q

How can the max FDP be increased (7.2/7.4)

A
  • SCD
  • Operator extension (N/A)
  • Delayed reporting
  • Inflight rest (N/A)
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16
Q

Aerodromes (8.1)

Define an Adequate aerodromes

A

An adequate aerodrome is an aerodrome which KLM Cityhopper considers to be satisfactory, taking into account:
-The applicable performance requirements and;
-Runway characteristics.
All aerodromes published in OM Part C2 3.2 can be considered adequate for KLM Cityhopper depending on opening hours and runway availability.

In addition, it is anticipated that, at the expected time of use, such an aerodrome:
-Will be available and the weather is at or above the applicable planning or landing minima, and;
-Is equipped with necessary ancillary services (such as Air Traffic Services (ATS), sufficient lighting, communications, weather reporting, navaids and
emergency services).

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17
Q

Aerodromes (8.1)

What is the minimum RFF Category

A

Departure and destination station: 5
Alternate: 4 (Bulletin)
Temporary RFF my be downgraded by 1 but no lower then 4 for max 72 hours

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18
Q

Aerodromes (8.1)

What is required for Destination Aerodrome:

A
  • The planning minima are equal to the applicable landing minima. In addition, for a non-precision approach or circling approach, the ceiling must be at or above MDH.
  • If weather out of limits 2 Des Alt need to be selected
19
Q

Aerodromes (8.1)

What is required to plan an RNP Approach:

A

-RAIM check (15 before and after EAT)
If not available:
-plan another non-RNP APCH
-delay departure
-applying the ’No useable instrument approach procedure’ option
-selecting two destination alternates having non-RNP APCH procedures

20
Q

Aerodromes (8.1)

What is required for Destination Alternate:

A

during a period commencing one hour before and ending one hour after the ETA at the aerodrome, the weather conditions will be at or above:
CAT 2/3 -> Cat 1 RVR
CAT 1+APV -> Non Pres. RVR/VIS + Ceiling at MDH
Non Prec -> Non Prec RVR/VIS + 1000m ceiling MDH+200ft
Circling-> Circling
No App-> Vis 5 km Ceiling above MFA

21
Q

Aerodromes (8.1)

A take-off alternate must be selected and specified in the OFP if ….

A

it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure for meteorological or performance reasons.

22
Q

Aerodromes (8.1)

What is required for Fuel Enroute Alternate:

A
  • The fuel ERA aerodrome shall be located within a circle having a radius equal to 20% of the total flight plan distance. The center of this circle lies on the planned route at a distance from the destination of 25% of the total flight plan distance, or at least 20% of the total flight plan distance plus 50 NM, whichever is greater. All distances shall be calculated in still air conditions.
  • The fuel ERA shall be specified on the OFP.
  • The weather conditions must be at/or above the planning minima in accordance with ’Destination alternate’ at ETA +/- 1 hour.
23
Q

Aerodromes (8.1)

What is required for Fuel Enroute Alternate:

A
  • The fuel ERA aerodrome shall be located within a circle having a radius equal to 20% of the total flight plan distance. The center of this circle lies on the planned route at a distance from the destination of 25% of the total flight plan distance, or at least 20% of the total flight plan distance plus 50 NM, whichever is greater. All distances shall be calculated in still air conditions.
  • The fuel ERA shall be specified on the OFP.
  • The weather conditions must be at/or above the planning minima in accordance with ’Destination alternate’ at ETA +/- 1 hour.
24
Q

Aerodromes (8.1)

When is no destination alternate required

A

-the duration of the flight from take-off to landing does not exceed six hours,
-two separate runways are available and usable at the destination aerodrome,
-the weather conditions at destination will be above the following minima at ETA +/-1 hour;
+Ceiling at least 2,000 ft or Circling height +500 ft whichever is greater, and
+VIS at least 5 km, and
-the statistical method for Contingency fuel planning can be applied, and
-the Congestion Classification for the flight is ‘Predictable

25
Q

Documents to be carried (8.1.12.2)
The commander shall not commence a flight unless he is satisfied that the following documents or copies thereof are carried:

A
  1. The original Certificate of Registration;
  2. Original Unlimited Certificate of Airworthiness + original Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC);
  3. The Noise Certificate including an English translation, where one has been provided by the authority responsible for issuing the noise certificate;
  4. Certified true copy of the Air Operator Certificate (AOC);
  5. The operations specifications relevant to the aircraft type, issued with the AOC (OPS SPEC);
  6. The original Aircraft Radio Station Licence;
  7. The third party liability Insurance Certificate(s);
  8. Aeroplane Search Procedure (ASP) checklist;
  9. Aviation Frequencies Licence (’Vergunning Luchtvaartfrequenties’).
26
Q

Manuals to be carried (8.1.12.3)

The commander shall not commence a flight unless he is satisfied that the following manuals are carried on board:

A

OM Part A (BOM, RG, FSIM):
-FSIM chapters 4, 5 and 6.
OM Part B:
-MEL/CDL: only those pages applicable to existing complaints.
OM Part C:
-C2 - Regional ROM;
-C3 -Applicable sections for departure, destination and alternate airports;
-Route Facility Charts: only for those routes outside the coverage of OM Part C2.

Additionally, if Dangerous Goods are carried:

  • OM Part A BOM chapter 9;
  • Dangerous Goods List: relevant pages for goods actually carried.
27
Q
Journey log (8.1.12.4)
The journey log is composed of the following documents:
A
  • Operational Flight Plan (OFP)
  • Aircraft Technical Log (ATL)
  • Weight and Balance documentation including LMC and NOTOC, if applicable
  • Air Safety Report (ASR) (if applicable)
28
Q
Fueling procedures (BOM 8.2.1 )
Name the Safety precautions during fuelling:
A
  1. No engines may be running during fuelling
  2. Persons and motorised equipment not concerned with the handling of the aeroplane shall not be admitted in the fuelling zone,
  3. The fuel truck shall be so parked that driving away in forward direction is possible at all times and the driveway shall not be blocked by other equipment. This does not apply to hydrant dispensers.
  4. The fuel panel may only be operated by a qualified person.
  5. An electrical power unit connected to the aeroplane must be located as far as possible from the fuelling zone.
  6. A GPU shall not be connected, disconnected, started or refuelled.
  7. Aeroplane HF transmitters shall not be used during fuelling.
  8. The APU may be used during refuelling, depending on local regulations and aeroplane related restrictions (ref. OM Part B).
  9. If there is crew and/or ground staff (e.g. cleaners, maintenance, etc.) on board of the aeroplane, a boarding device must be in place at least at one of the open exits.
  10. Crew/ground staff on board must be informed by the fueller that refuelling/defuelling will take place.
  11. Fire extinguishers must be readily available or may remain on the fuelling vehicle provided they are carried in open housings or in racks with quick opening fastenings.
  12. The fuel truck or fuel installation is bonded to the aircraft structure before the hose is extended, and remains so until refuelling is completed.
  13. Fuelling during thunderstorm activity is not permitted.
29
Q
Fueling procedures (BOM 8.2.1 )
Name the additional Safety precautions during fueling witch pax on board:
A
  1. The aeroplane is not refuelled/defuelled with Wide-cut type fuel or a mixture of these types of fuel.
  2. It is not prohibited by local regulation
  3. Local restrictions are met. Additional local requirements are complied with by
    local handling agent/fuel operator.
  4. The general safety precautions listed above are adhered to.
    All conditions according OM Part A (FSIM) 3.3.3 are met.
30
Q
Fueling procedures (BOM 8.2.1 )
Name the safetey measures to be taken in case of abundant fuel Spillages:
A
  • Fuelling must be stopped immediately.
  • Any person on board must be warned immediately and must leave the aeroplane via the normal exits.
  • The external power unit and other engines or electrical motors of the equipment in the fuelling zone must be shut down and all further electrical switching avoided.
  • The APU must be stopped immediately. Do not start the APU until the spilled fuel is removed and there is no further risk of spilled fuel or vapors.
  • Handling personnel must leave the fuelling zone.
  • The aerodrome fire brigade must be warned.
  • Station management must be informed.
  • If fuelling is carried out with one engine running, the engine must be shut down.
  • If considered necessary, the aeroplane must be towed to a safer place.
31
Q

Fuel (8.3)

How much fuel needs to be on board on landing

A

30 min by law

45 Recommended for KLC/KLM

32
Q

Fuel (8.3).

If predicted fuel remaining on landing is less then min diversion:

A

the commander must request air traffic delay information from ATC. The commander must take into account this delay information and the operational conditions prevailing at the destination aerodrome, at the destination alternate aerodrome and at any other adequate aerodrome, in deciding whether to proceed to the destination aerodrome or to divert so as to perform a safe landing with not less
than Final Reserve fuel

33
Q

Fuel (8.3)

What does the call “Minimum Fuel” in tale

A

-having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, the commander calculates that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in
landing with less than planned Final Reserve fuel.
-all planned aerodrome options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome of intended landing and any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than planned Final Reserve fuel.

34
Q

Fuel (8.3)

What does the call MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL’, in tale

A

the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the planned Final Reserve fuel

35
Q

Take-off (8.4)

Before commencing take-off the commander must satisfy himself that:

A
  • According to the information available to him, the weather at the aerodrome and the condition of the runway intended to be used should not prevent a safe takeoff and departure.
  • The RVR or visibility in the take-off direction of the aeroplane is equal to or better than the applicable minima.
  • The weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are equal to or better than applicable minima for landing at that aerodrome unless a suitable take-off alternate is available.
  • Take-off minima are selected to ensure sufficient guidance to control the aircraft in the event of both a rejected take-off in adverse circumstances and a continued take-off after failure of the critical engine.
36
Q

Take-off (8.4)

Prior to commencing any Low Visibility Take-Off (LVTO) the commander must satisfy himself that

A
  • The status of the aeroplane and the relevant airborne systems are appropriate,
  • The status of the visual and the non-visual facilities are sufficient,
  • Appropriate low visibility procedures (LVP) are in force according to information received from ATC, and Both flight crew members are trained and qualified for LVTO as mentioned in OM Part D (TOM) 2.10.
37
Q

Enroute (8.4)
The commander must not continue towards the planned destination aerodrome unless the latest information
available indicates that,

A
  • at the expected time of arrival the weather conditions at the destination, or at least one destination alternate aerodrome, are at or above
    the applicable aerodrome operating minima as published in OM Part C3.
38
Q

Approach (8.4)
Before commencing an approach to land, the commander shall satisfy himself that according to the information available to him:

A

the weather at the aerodrome and the condition of the runway to be used should not prevent a safe approach, landing or missed approach, keeping in mind a.o. performance information in OM Part B.

39
Q

Approach (8.4)

The commander may commence and continue instrument approach if:

A

-regardless of the reported RVR/CMV or VIS,
-Not continue below 1,000 ft above the aerodrome, or into the final approach segment in case the DA/H or MDA/H is more than 1,000 ft above the aerodrome,
if the reported RVR/CMV or VIS is less than the applicable minimum
-Continue an instrument approach to DA/H or MDA/H, if the reported RVR/CMV or VIS falls below the applicable minimum after passing below 1,000 ft above the aerodrome.
-Continue below DA/H or MDA/H and complete the landing provided that the required visual reference is established at the DA/H or MDA/H and is maintained.

40
Q
Visual reference (8.4)
What is the required visual reference to continue an (NPA/RNP/CAT1) approach below the MDA/MDH:
A

NPA/RNP/CAT 1:

  • elements of the approach light system;
  • the threshold;
  • the threshold markings;
  • the threshold lights;
  • the threshold identification lights;
  • the visual glide slope indicator;
  • the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings;
  • the touchdown zone lights;
  • runway edge lights;

NPA:
-other visual references if specifically indicated and authorised.

RNP:
other visual references accepted by the authority.

41
Q
Visual reference (8.4)
What is the required visual reference for a CAT 2/3
A
  • the centre line of the approach lights; or
  • touchdown zone lights; or
  • runway centre line lights; or
  • runway edge lights; or
  • a combination of these is attained and can be maintained.

For CAT 2: This visual reference must include a lateral element of the ground pattern, i.e. an approach lighting crossbar or the landing threshold or a barrette of the touchdown zone lighting.

42
Q

Approach (8.4)

What are the minimum circling minima?

A

MDH 600 ft Vis 4000m

43
Q

Performance application (ePerf) (BOM 8.9.7)
What rules apply for Perf. Calc. for:
2, 1 and 0 EFB’s?

A
  1. Calculations shall be conducted independently by each cockpit crew member.
  2. Properly crosscheck input and output before data outputs are accepted for use.
  3. If only one EFB is available, both pilots shall perform the calculations independently on the operative EFB.
  4. If no EFB is available, contact KLM Cityhopper Operations Control (SPL/ZZ). All performance calculations obtained through the company must be checked and validated by both pilots before accepting for use.
44
Q

NOTOC (9.1)

What does the commander confirm with signing the NOTOC?

A

With his signature he confirms that he has been notified about the Dangerous Goods and other Special Load on board and their loading positions.