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FAM And Ambulatory > Old stuff > Flashcards

Old stuff Flashcards

1
Q

High forage diets promote acetic acid production–>

A

buttermilk fat

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2
Q

High starch diets promote ? which helps with increasing lactose levels–> milk

A

Propionate acid

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3
Q

What is the portion of intake protein that is digested or degraded in the rumen?

A

Degradable intake protein (DIP) aka rumen degradable proteins (RDP)
1/3 RUP 2/3 rumen degradable

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4
Q

Degradable intake protein (DIP) aka rumen degradable proteins (RDP) are expressed as % of ___ ____

A

crude protein

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5
Q

cattle need at least ___% of crude protein, ___% of bw/day in long stemmed roughage and ____% (dairy) or ___% (beef) in crude fat

A

7%; 0.5%; 9% in dairy and 7% in beef

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6
Q

How many days in the breeding season?

A

about 65 days

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7
Q

Breeding cycle
1st interval ___%
2nd interval ___%
3rd interval ___%

A

1st interval is > 65%
2nd interval is about 25%
3rd interval is +/- 10%

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8
Q

First two intervals of the breeding cycle should equate to about ___% of pregnancies or more

A

> 90% of pregnancies

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9
Q

Breeding/calving season is:

A

63/65- 90 days

ranges from 45 days to 365 days

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10
Q

% herd pregnant:

A

> 90% -95%

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11
Q

% pregnant in the first heat interval:

A

60-65%

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12
Q

Pregnancy loss target is less than __-__%.

Pre weaning mortality goal is less than __-__%

A

1-3%;

3-4%

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13
Q

Where do we give injections?

A

in the neck, where lowest cuts of meat are, avoid rump

NO MORE than 10mL per injection per site

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14
Q

In terms of cow nutrition when she is pregnant- She will eat less because her abdomen is “full” of a calf so her feed needs to be of higher quality. So what should we feed her?

A

Better feed is more digestible so she will eat more of it and improve her BCS

Better quality means less supplemental feeding and more nutrients for her= less overall costs and healthier cow

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15
Q

The cow’s nutritional calendar:

A

period 1: 80 days post-calving, lactating and in the pre-breeding to early breeding season
Period 2: 125 days since calving pregnant (early 0-60 days since breeding) and lactating
Period 3: about 200 days since calving, about 110 days pregnant to mid-gestation and close to weaning
Period 4: 50 days prior to calving (dry cow)

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16
Q

Critical times for BCS females herd evaluation

A

Precalving 60-90 d (target BCS is 5.5-6)
Prebreeding/breeding and cycling (need BCS 5.0)
Pregnancy exam/weaning (need to be min. BCS 4.5)
Prior to any supplementation program

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17
Q

Calves with FPT are how much more likely to suffer from morbidity if from HEIFER?

A

9 1/2 times more likely

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18
Q

Calves suffering pre-weaning morbidity weighed ____ pounds less than herd mates

A

36lbs

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19
Q

We breed back around ___ DIM and milk for ___ days out of the year which is ideal

A

82 DIM; milk for 305 days

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20
Q

___ dry period

A

60 day;

2 weeks to dry out; 2 weeks for mammary rest; 2 weeks for colostrum

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21
Q

Birth to calving is ___–__ months

A

12-24 months

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22
Q

Hutches birth to weaning is around __-__ weeks old. Growth to ___-__ months old then preg.

A

6-8 weeks old; 12-13 months old

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23
Q

Move momma cows to transition when?

A

3-4 weeks prior to calving

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24
Q

Rule of 10% bw of colostrum within the first ___ hours is necessary

A

2-6 hours

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25
Q

What is a common coccidiostat used in commerical milk replacers or used as feed additives?

A

Monensin (rumensin)- feed/ mineral additive
Coccidiostat - speeds up rumen development process!!!!
Supplement this for THEIR WHOLE LIFE
Helps break fown food so more E per pound
Decreased acetate and increased propionate,
Propionate increases glucose which increase lactose = milk

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26
Q

What is used in commerical milk replacers or used as milk additives to help close the esophageal groove?

A

Decoquinate/Deccox

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27
Q

Carbs make up __% of the diet but are not all NCSs

A

70%

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28
Q

What is the goal BCS of a cow in her dry period to prevent issues?

A

BCS 3.0-3.25

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29
Q

Dry cow diets in terms of proteins, vit E, Calcium

A

less of all of these things

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30
Q

Cow is too thin–>

A

continue to feed lactating cow diet for 2-3 weeks in early dry period to gain 0.5 BCS

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31
Q

Cow is too fat–>

A

straw, poor quality forage for the first 2-3 weeks of her dry period to lose 0.5 BCS

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32
Q

Close up or transition cow group or “steam up maternity” meaning…???

A

increasing their nutrient density in prep for calving

  • cows: 3 weeks prior to expected calving
  • Heifers: 4 weeks prior to expected calving, avoid hypocalcemia by supplementing calcium
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33
Q

Camelid vital parameters normal:

A

T 99.5-102 F
HR 60-80
RR 10-30
12 ribs, no hooves but have two toes

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34
Q

What will be higher on CBC in camelids than other animals but is still considered normal??

A

Glucose

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35
Q

What is the core vax for camelids?

A

CDT- Clostridium perfringes types C and D with tetanus

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36
Q

RV schedule in camelids:

A

RV yearly, initial dose is after 3 months of age, booster not needed like in dogs except every 1 year

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37
Q

Trouble breathing in a cria is likely due to???

A

Choanal atresia

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38
Q

Camelids are _____ before colostrum

A

agammaglobulinemic

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39
Q

When to ntr camdelid?

A

1.5 years with their fighting teeth emerging to prevent osteoarthritis/other ortho conditions

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40
Q

Haemonchus

A

barber pool worm that sucks their blood and can cause severe anemia

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41
Q

Two most common trichostrongyles in camelids

A

Haemonchus contortus and Trichostrongylus colubriformis

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42
Q

Mycoplasma haemolamae

A

Bacterial pathogen of blood cells. Some animals carry it without issues. Only tx if patient is severely anemic. Give blood transfusion and tetracycline

Usually asymp. Carriers

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43
Q

Large coccidia in camelids:

A

Eimeria macusaniensis
Eimeria ivitaensis
**unique to camelids

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44
Q

What parasite might cause neuro issues?

A

Parelaphostrongylus tenuis

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45
Q

Severe anemia R/O:

A

HOT complex, E. mac, or Mycoplasma haemolamae (affects RBCs and causes hemolytic anemia)

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46
Q

When should we give grain to small ruminant to try and “flush” her (to try and get more ovulations out of female)?

A

give pregnant ewes grain supplementation in the last 6 weeks of gestation because that’s when the most growth occurs by the fetus

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47
Q

Vaccine schedule for CD+T:

A

Newborns- if mother was vaccinated in the last 4-5 weeks, give first shot at 1-3 months of age and booster 3-4 weeks later

If mother is unvaccinated (which most of them are) before birth- give first shot 1-3 weeks of age and then booster 3-4 weeks later

New adult with unknown vaccine hx—vaccinate then booster in 3-4 weeks later
THEN VACCINATE ANNUALLY

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48
Q

Gestation length of sheep and goats-

A

150 days

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49
Q

Estrous cycle for goats

A

21 days

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50
Q

Estrous cycle for sheep-

A

17 days

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51
Q

Where does Haemonchus controtus live?

A

The abomasum

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52
Q

What can cause late term abortions if given in the last trimester of pregnancy?

A

Levamisole

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53
Q

What seasons should FEC be done ideally?

A

Spring and fall prior to deworming

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54
Q

Toxic dose of Lidocaine:

A

6mg/kg

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55
Q

Paravertebral nerve block

A

Nerves blocked include T13, L1 and L2

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56
Q

Proximal paravertebral nerve block

A

Find the cranial edge of landmark (L1, L2, L3) to block T13, L1 and L2 nerves

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57
Q

Distal paravertebral nerve block:

A

Landmarks- Transverse process of L1, L2, and L4

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58
Q

Landmark for the cornual branch of the lacrimal nerve

A

(branch of trigeminal CN V) is halfway between the lateral canthus and base of the horn

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59
Q

Where must we enter for umbilical sx?

A

in the abdomen at 3 and 9 o’clock

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60
Q

What is the pathophysiology and common causes of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis?

A

Aka IBK aka pinkeye

Most common ocular disease of cattle, typically unilateral but can be bilateral. Characterized by inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva with rapid progression within 1-2 days. Most common in summer because spread with flies

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61
Q

What is the primary cause of pinkeye?

A

Morazella bovis

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62
Q

Central ulcer in the cow eye=

A

pink eye

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63
Q

Most common sites of SCC-

A

SCC is the most COMMON ocular tumor in cattle

  1. limbus (corneoscleral junction)
  2. 3rd eyelid (nictitating membrane)
  3. palpebra
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64
Q

What to do with momma cow baldy with bloody oozy discharge down her face pic?

A

We will do hyperthermia or cryotherapy/Extenteration (which is removing eye like an enucleation plus the ocular tissues around it

Warn owners that it make reoccur

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65
Q

What are the causative agents for Actinobacillosis and Actinomycosis??

A

Actinobacillosis aka wooden tongue–>Actincobacillus lignieresii is a normal GI inhabitant esp. in mouth and rumen. Causes granulomatous reaction in the tongue. May be related to poor forage quality

Actinmycosis aka Lumpy JAW Actinomyces bovis is normal inhabitant of the mouth

Both have diagnosis depending on clinical signs usually (although can do gram stain or biopsy if unsure!!!)

Tx for both includes Sodium Iodide IV, Oxytetracycline systemically

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66
Q

what is the clinical presentation for Actinobacillosis

A

ptyalism- over production of saliva, inability to graze, tongue may be fat, lesions on tongue, nodular swelling, enlarged LN

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67
Q

What is the clinical presentation for actinomycosis

A

Granulomatous also with abscess, “sulfur granules” and usually involves mandible (osteomyelitis), loss of teeth

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68
Q

Most sx happens on R or L side of the cow?

A

R side

L side is mostly rumen!!!

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69
Q

Primary bloat

A

frothy bloat, entrapment of the fermentable gases in a foam, pass stomach tube and all you will see if foam coming out

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70
Q

Secondary bloat

A

Free gas bloat, evacuation of gas hindered by physical obstruction or mechanisms that expel gas aren’t workin

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71
Q

Primary bloat causes/predispositions:

A

hypomotility, adhesions, rumen drinkers, neuro issues, lateral recumbency

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72
Q

shape of abdomen with primary bloat:

A

Pear shaped abdomen, colic, tachycardia, anxious, excessive salivation, choke, ruminal distension, trouble breathing

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73
Q

CS of ruminal acidosis aka grain overload-

A

increases rumen osmolality and draws in fluid from circulation into the rumen, decreased BP and decreased O2 to tissues, endotoxemia

Clinical signs are hypomotility of rumen, free gas bloat, abdominal pain, depression, diarrhea with grain kernels, tachycardia, dehydration, weakness

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74
Q

Subacute ruminal acidosis (SARA)–>

A

continued ingestion of concentrates for period of time, subclinical, hyperkeratosis of the rumen, too much grain OVER time

Clinical signs are reduced rumination, laminitis, decreased milk fat (because low on roughage), weight loss, mild diarrhea

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75
Q

What is the most common cause of anterior abdominal pain in cattle?

A

traumatic reticuloperitonitis

AKA Hardware Disease

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76
Q

4 syndromes of vagal indigestion

A

Type 1- failure of eructation/free gas bloat
Type 2- omasal transport failure
Type 3- Abomasal outflow failure
Type 4- Indigestion of late pregnancy

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77
Q

My cow has gradual abdominal distension, papple shaped with L shaped rumen on rectal palpation- what is the diagnosis???

A

Vagal indigestion

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78
Q

Vagal indigestion has what type of prognosis?

A

poooor prognosis, not responsive to tx

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79
Q

What are the clinical indications for rumenotomy and rumenostomy?

A

Reumotomy indications- valuable animal, acute onset of CS

Rumenostomy—aka rumen fistula; indications are TEMPORARY, symptomatic relief of chronic ruminal tympany, chronic bloat, choke or to administer food/fluids

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80
Q

What is the typical signalment and history for LDA vs. RDA?

A

History- typically early postpartum, anorexic, reduced milk, normal to high RR and HR, decreased to absent rumen contractions, Left sided ping between 10-13th ribs, concurrent disease, rumen displaced medially on rectal exam with LDA

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81
Q

What is a prereq of displaced abomasum?

A

Hypomotility

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82
Q

Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis:

A

Hypokalemia because sequestration of Chloride, +/ hypocalcemia, paradoxic acidura

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83
Q

Who is at risk for L displaced abomasum?

What are the CS of L displaced abomasum?

A

Abomasal hypomotility or post partum period
CS- fresh dairy cow with decreased milk production, ADR, anorexic
Ping on left side between 10th and 13th rib*

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84
Q

Is tx for LDA medically rec?

A

Nah, do surgery

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85
Q

Laparotomy incision-

A

begin 10-15 cm below transverse lumbar processes (tend to stay closer to the last rib) extends for approx. 30-40cm, muscle layers, peritoneum

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86
Q

What are the muscle layers to be incised in a laparotomy incision-

A

Cutaneous, external abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique, transversus abdominis

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87
Q

What is a treatment method for LDA

A

Right flank pyloric omentopexy

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88
Q

Pros and cons of right flank pyloric omentopexy

A

Pros- standing, one person job, complete exploratory celiotomy, will deflate
Cons- skills, friable and fat omentum, anatomic fixation is not ideal, in advanced pregnancy

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89
Q

When does LDA occur?

A

Beginning of lactation (4-8 week period)

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90
Q

What is the preferred tx/most common for LDA?

A

right flank pyloric omentopexy - return to production immediately

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91
Q

Right Displaced Abomasum and Abomasal Volvulus

A

ER sit and fatal
RDA is just displacement with partial obstruction (can progress and become abomasal volvulus)
AV is hemorrhage strangulation obstruction (like GDV in dogs), occlusion of duodenum, OA or RO orifice

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92
Q

RDA- ping is where?

A

ping caudal to 10th rib and cranial to the 13th rib

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93
Q

AV- ping is where?

A

ping extends cranially to the 10th rib and caudal to the 13th rib

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94
Q

Prognosis for

  • LDA
  • RDA
  • AV
A

LDA- diagnosed early has good prognosis
RDA- if diagnosed early good poor
AV- guarded/hopeless

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95
Q

What metabolic derangements due we see with displaced abomasum?

A

Metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, hypochloremia

96
Q

early lactation in cows 4-8 weeks-

A

RDA and AV

97
Q

What are the different types of abomasal ulcers and differing clinical presentations?

A

Type 1- non perforation ulcer
Type 2- non perforating ulcer with severe blood loss
Type 3- perforating ulcer with local peritonitis
Type 4- perforating ulcer with diffuse peritonitis

98
Q

Ulcers that ___ never ___

A

bleed never perforate

99
Q

Ulcers that ___ never bleed

A

perforate

100
Q

Ulcers type 1-4:**

A

Type 1- subclinical
Type 2 Abomasal ulcer will have melena, sever blood loss, high HR *KNOW
**Key words are melena and high HR!!!!!
Type 3 local peritonitis, decreased rumen motility, FEVER, high fibrinogen
Type 4- perforating with diffuse peritonitis, fatal, septicemia and death
Lotssss of fibrin, hard to feel anything from rectal palpation

101
Q

What is the transmission of johnes disease

A

Manure from diseased animals, fecal to oral route

Calves are the high risk group!

102
Q

What are the clinical signs for johnes disease

A

Stage 1-2 –calves get the disease but no CS, would test negative
Stage 3– calves have CS and are shedding the infectious disease
Stage 4– diagnose/isolate more than four years of age, because cannot diagnose until they start shedding the infectious disease

103
Q

What are the limitations of testing for johnes disease

A

Diagnosis GOLD STANDARD is fecal culture in calves more than four years old and in small ruminants it is fecal PCR

104
Q

Testing Johnes, how is it unique?

A

Calves will test negative even if harboring the virus because not shedding
Johnes must be managed as a herd problem, NOT as an individual cow problem
Cull offspring from clinically affected cows
Calves younger than 6 months are the most susceptible but cannot test them with accurate results unless older than four years!!!!

105
Q

What are the common tx for rectal prolpase?

A

Usually due to tail docking too short for show

Usually conservative treatments for mucosal or complete (Type 1 or 2)
Caudal epidural and purse string suture

106
Q

Producer comes to you wanting to finish the dehorning of an older cow in the summer, what do you recommend?

A

Cosmetic dehorning with full anesth. And closed with sutures because cow is older- so pain management and control bleeding plus control of fly strike because no open and its pretty

107
Q

A producer says his herd is only 36% pregnant after the first interval, are we concerned and why?

A

Yes, should be at least 65% pregnancy rate

108
Q

What is the min. BCS of a pregnant herd exam that is still acceptable?

A

4.5 BCS

109
Q

Along with monitoring feed of those in the close up/transition group, what else should we be monitoring?

A

Esterified fatty acids (VEFA)

110
Q

? can be added to small ruminants water as coccidiostat

A

Amprolium

111
Q

Only what strain of BVDV can cause PI calf?

A

Noncytopathic strain

112
Q

If NCP strain BVDV calf is PI and the virus mutates or patient becomes infected with cytopathic strain (CP)=

A

will get mucosal disease (which is most common as BVDV genotype 2) and can die from it

This may also occur if PI calf is administered a BVDV vaccine

113
Q

Know than less than ____ is adequate for passive transfer in calves

A

<5.2

114
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

A

Typically young calves, less than 5 days old affected

can be prevented with maternal vaccine at 6 and 3 weeks

115
Q

What viruses causing diarrhea all affect cattle at ages 5-15 days old???

A

Rotavirus, coronavirus, cryptosporidium

116
Q

Blood diarrhea, unthirfty=

A

prob coccidiosis and needs ionophores/coccidiostats

117
Q

diarrhea calves have METABOLIC ACIDOSIS WITH HYPERKALEMIA

A

!!!!

118
Q

Backgrounders vaccinate at ___ days post weaning and castrate and let heal before shipping to help prevent ___ _____

A

45 days; shipping fever

119
Q

how much to feed calves?

A

Feed 6,8, 10% of the calf’s bw daily in the first, second and third week of life
increase intake by 50-100% during extremely cold weather
feed at least BID until 3 weeks old
Start offering a high quality calf starter by 1 week old

120
Q 
example: 
65lb calf 
first week fed= 
second week fed= 
third week fed=
A

1st week-6% x 65= 3.9 lb milk (4 pints a day, feed 2 pints daily)
(gained 1lbs a day so now weighs 72lbs)
2nd week- 8% x 72 = 5.76 lb milk (6 pints a day, feed 3 pints twice a day)
3rd week- 10% x 79= 7.9 lb milk (8 pints a day, fed 4 pints twice daily)

121
Q

Ill calves do have higher caloric requirements.

What if I have a 65lb calf feed 10% bw

A 
65lb= 29.5kg 
29.5kg x 0.1= 2.95L (3 liters) 
2 pints in 1 liter
Feed 6 pints a day 
(3 pints twice a day) 
**was on exam**
122
Q

Cow with unilateral mucopurulent discharge but no other cows have it- differentials:

A

probably nasal foreign body, mass, or bacterial sinusitis

123
Q

What are the 3 bacterial causes of granulomas?

A

Actinomyces, Actinobacillus, Nocardia

124
Q

What are the fungal causes of granulomas (2)

A

Rhinosporidum and Aspergillus

125
Q

Abscesses of the nasal passages are usually due to …

A

Trueperella pyogenes

126
Q

Ulcerated mucosa is usually due to what agent?

A

ulcerated mucosa causing infection due to Fusobacterium necrophorum

127
Q

What is the tx of necrotic laryngitis (calf diphtheria)??

A

Penicillin, tetracycline, need temporary tracheostomy

128
Q

What is the most common endemic virus in the US?

A

Bovine herpes virus (BHV-1) aka infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus (IBRV)

129
Q

pathogenesis of Bovine herpes virus (BHV-1) aka infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus (IBRV) and latency–>

A

Destroys epithelial cells, dysfunction of the mucocillary elevator ii. Latency- it survives WITHOUT replicating in sensory ganglia, can persist in a population foreverrrrr– when animal becomes sick it comes out of lacency/dormancy and is recurrence of the herpes virus and can spread to others (can be shed to others in contact and persists in the population)

130
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for finding Bovine herpes virus (BHV-1) aka infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus (IBRV)

A

Qualitative PCR is GOLD STANDARD

131
Q

Paired serology, what tells us its a positive result of BHV-1?

A

2 dilutions= 4 fold increase in titer of the same cow

132
Q

What viruses contribute to the respiratory diseases in cattle?

A

P13V, bovine coronavirus, bovine viral diarrhea virus 1 and 2, influenza D virus (IDV), bovine rhinitis virus, bovine rhinovirus, bovine adenovirus

133
Q

What bacterial agents are commonly involved with resp. diseases in cattle?

A

M. haemolytica, P. multocida, H. somni, M. bovis, Trueperella pyogenes
(all gram negatives)

134
Q

If concurrent signs of otitis in one or more animals- what is most likely?

A

Mycoplasma bovis

135
Q

If concurrent signs of septic arthritis in one or more animals- _______ or ____ most likely

A

H. somi OR M. bovis

136
Q

Preconditioning definition and what does it include??

A

deconditioning means preparing calves to resist BRCD where they are castrated and dehorned, healed before shipping, weaned at 45 d and vaccinated with multivalent viral BRDC pathogens (BHV-1/RVDV/P13V)

137
Q

Mycoplasma bovis pneumonia CS, what individuals are at risk?

A

CS- same as for bronchopneumonia
Calves that have otitis with ear discharge, head tilt and CN 8 signs, septic arthritis
In dairy calves usually

138
Q

What is the tx for Lungworm infections?

A

tx is all meds ending in “Mectin”

139
Q

ABPEE (fog fever)

A

Aka AIP (acute interstitial pneumonia)

Most common history is sudden turnout of mature cattle onto lush, green pasture orrrr exposure to toxins (like from perilla mint, moldy sweet potatoes, others—see document)
4-ipomeanol (Fusarium from moldy sweet potatoes)
Perilla ketone from perilla mint

140
Q

what can we feed as a supplement to prevent ABPEE (fog fever)??

A

Monensin- feed for several days

141
Q

Which is most likely to be most helpful in preventing the occurrence of frontal sinusitis in cattle?

A

Dehorning calves when they are young, before the cornual sinus has developed

142
Q

You are called to examine a group of dairy cattle with respiratory disease. They are 1 month to four months to age, housed indoors in pens in a large, older barn. They are now cough, crackles wheezes diffusely over the cranial and middle regions of the lung. Some have fevers. Some have harsh lung sounds.

A

BRDV, mycoplasma bovis or/and Pasteurella

143
Q

Which abx would be best for tx steer with acute bacterial bronchopneumonia, assuming you do not know which bacterial pathogen is causing the infection?

A

Give Florfenicol

144
Q

Can drugs be administered in or on feed? Can drugs be used soley to improve meat quality/growth production?

A

NOPE; NO

145
Q

Amount of SCC is the status of ____. More than _____= infection or was infection

A

infection; 200,000 cells/mL

146
Q

Mastitis is mostly ___

A

subclinical

147
Q

Is scc a public health issue?

A

Nope

148
Q

Contagious vs. environment mastitis–>

A

Contagious- primary source is mammary gland and from milking machines, milkers, fomites, major loss is subclinical
Environmental- primary source is environment only, like bedding, soil, exposed post or between milking, major loss is CLINICAL mastitis

149
Q

What are the 3 sources of pathogens from within the mammary gland that cause contagious mastitis

A
  1. Strep agalactiae
  2. Staph aureus
  3. M. bovis
150
Q

What is the single most protective measure taken to help reduce infection by contagious pathogens???

A

Post-milking teat disinfection

151
Q

What is the definition of chronic mastitis???

A

clinical case of mastitis where 3 different antimicrobial products have been used without clearing the infection OR a cow that has 3 clinical episodes of mastitis in the same lactation

152
Q

M. bovis infection, what do we do???

A

CULLLLLLLLL, if M. bovis or Nocardia==== CULLLLL

153
Q

What is an acceptable reason for teat amputation?

A

Gangrene mastitis

154
Q

Calculate bicarb requirement–>

A

Bw (kg) x extracellular fluid space (0.3-0.6) x base deficit

Adult bicarb will be 0.3-0.4
Young bicarb will be 0.5-0.6

155
Q

example of bicarb calculation

*was on exam:

A

100lb calf with plasma bicarb of 5mmol/L
100/2.2 x 0.5 x 25-5
=450 mEq HCO3 needed to correct the deficit

156
Q

What fluids do we want for metabolic acidosis???

A

Acetate, citrate, gluconate propionate

157
Q

When is most impt time for colostrum absorption?

A

4-6 hrs

158
Q

Serum IgG concentration peaks when?

A

at 32 hrs of age

159
Q

__-__% of BW of first milking colostrum within __ hours following birth followed by an additional 5% bw at 12 hours

A

7.5-10%; 4 hours

160
Q

___% of calves have adequate passive transfer

A

90%

161
Q

Absorption of colostrum declines ___ hours after birth

A

12 hours

162
Q

FPT is defined as < _____ mg/dL

A

<1000mg/dL

163
Q

Check passive transfer when?

A

between 24-48 hours after birth

164
Q

What is gold standard for diagnosing FPT?

A

Radial immunodiffusion (RID)

165
Q

Total protein less than ___g/dL = FPT

A

< 5.2 g/dL

166
Q

Total protein more than ____g/dL is adequate passive transfer

A

> 5.5g/dL

167
Q

Always get what value when dealing with blocked goat?

A

BASELINE URINE PH

168
Q

What is diagnostic for blocked goat?

A

Abdominocentesis 2:1 ratio of creatine (2) in abdomen and (1) in serum is diagnostic!!!

169
Q

What is walpole’s solution>

A

Walpole’s Solution is for treatment of goats with urolithiasis, very acidic solution, used in cats too, basically vinegar. DO NOT USE if planning or potential for surgery later one, because it will cause chemical septic uroabdomen

  1. Goal is pH of 4-5 to dissolve stones (Struvite)
  2. U/S guided cysto
170
Q

Perineal urethrostomy-

A

PU surgery, salvage procedure

171
Q

Tube cystotomy-

A

Most long term success, gold standard

best for ram to return to breeding, veryyyyy expensive

172
Q

For uroliths in small ruminants, what are the different prevention strategies?

A

Maintenance of 2:1 Calcium to phosphorus ratio
Decrease magnesium in the diet
Increased forage, castrate, avoid high risk pastures

173
Q

Most common in castrated small ruminants=

A

urolithiasis

174
Q

Urolithiasis manifestations may include ? which can cause edema from sternum going ventrally to perineum/inguinal region

A

urethral rupture

175
Q

What are signs of urethral rupture? *** on exam

A

edema from sternum going ventrally to perineum/inguinal region

176
Q

What shaped abdomen might mean bladder rupture in small rum???

A

Par shaped abdomen

177
Q

Most common sites for obstruction in small rum=

A

urethral processes

178
Q

What is the 90-90-90 rule for bovine lameness?

A

90% in foot
90% in HL
90% in Lateral claw

179
Q

Want __-__ degree hoof angle

A

45-50 degrees

180
Q

Subclinical laminitis most predisposing factors:

A
  1. Sole ulcer
  2. White line disease
  3. Toe ulcer/abscess
  4. Underrun sole/pseudo sole/double sole
  5. Underrun heel
181
Q

Aseptic necrosis of horn, with granulation tissue production, most commonly caused by…

A

Overgrown toes

182
Q

Where do sole ulcers occur at usually?

A

Occurs at lateral claws and both hind feet at sole-bulb junction

183
Q

Toe/sole abscess- fracture lame, what must we do??

A

MUST removal ALLLLLL of the underrun (detached) sole

184
Q

Where do to/sole abscesses start?

A

Starts at the heel bulb

185
Q

Hair heel wart–>

A

Digital dermatitis, dermatitis digitalis
Most common cause of lameness in DAIRY cattle
Lesion Tx with tetracycline

186
Q

Foot rot aka interdigital phlegmon:

A

Common in BEEF cattle, young ones
Most common bacteria- Anaerobic
(Fusobacterium necrophorum, Bacteroides melaningenicus)
Interdigital area, between the toes

187
Q

Digit amputation pros and cons:

A

Pros- complete removal of infected tissues, faster recovery

Cons- decreased her retention time (less than a year bc breaks down other claw), esthetics poor

188
Q

Digit salvage is good for….

A

saving the cow to be in the herd for a longer time or back to breeding soundness, $ and uses facilitated ankylosis where we drill the joint

189
Q

facilitated ankylosis where we drill the joint =

A

digit salvage

190
Q

Disarticulation of the distal interphalangeal joint=

A

Digit amputation

191
Q

Pros and cons of digit salvage:

A

Pros: aesthetics, increased herd retention time (more than a year)
Cons: $$, delayed removal of infected tissues, slower recovery times

192
Q

**pic of sole ulcer on exam

A

//

193
Q

Pic of hair heel wart on exam

A

///

194
Q

**What causes hairy heel wart?

A

Treponema denticola

195
Q

**What is the number ONE/most common cause of lameness in DAIRY cattle?

A

Hairy heel wart caused by Treponema denticola

196
Q

Diagnosis of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (survives months in environment)-

A

Diagnosis is needle aspirate from LN and

ONLY DEF. DIAGNOSIS IS A CULTRE–> GOLD STANDARD

197
Q

Foot rot is caused by ?

Foot rot is caused by ?

A

Foot rot is caused by Dichelobacter nodosus

Foot scald is caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum

198
Q

What comes first, foot rot or foot scald?

A

foot scald causes foot rot, and foot rot is contagious and can cause carrier animals to occur in the herd/flock

199
Q

Foot ____ predisposes to foot _____

A

scald predisposes to foot rot

200
Q

carrier animals with foot ____ does play a major role in transmission and can persist for years in carrier animals

A

Foot rot

201
Q

Tx of foot rot/scald

A

aggressively trimming and debriding the areas (more impt In goats) and foot baths. Can do parenteral abx if animal is severe, esp in sheep
Tetracycline, foot baths, ID the carrier animal and CULL

202
Q

Johne’s disease in small ruminant animals:

A

“skinny goat disease” or “wasting disease”

Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis (MAP)

203
Q

CS of Johne’s Dz:

A
  1. Chronic wasting and diarrhea disease
  2. Chronic wasting is most consistent clinical sign in small ruminants, diarrhea occurs in 20% of cases
  3. Malabsorptive diarrhea caused by granulomatous enteritis distal jejunum and ileum
204
Q

Diagnosis of Johne’s disease

A

Fecal culture (takes 8-12 weeks)
Fecal PCR (takes 1 week)
**CLINICAL ANIMALS ARE MORE LIKELY TO SHED THE BACTERIA IN BODILY FLUIDS
young are rarely clinical, mostly clinical disease animals are between 2-7 years so test then!!!

205
Q

do not test animals for Johne’s that are…

A

less than 2 years old/not showing any clinical signs

206
Q

TX for Johne’s Dz:

A

no known cure, only supportive, No screening tests- have to wait til animals show CS before testing

207
Q

Caprine Arthritis and Encephalitis Virus In GOATS (CAEV) - what is the main route? What are the four clinical signs in

A

colostrum;

  1. Encephalitic form- neurologic signs in kids 2-4 months old and can progress to “wry neck”- circle around with head low
  2. Pneumonic form- interstitial pneumonia, chronic cough, elevated RR, weight loss
  3. Arthritis form- most common form encountered in goats***
  4. Mastitis form (hard milker, low milk production)
208
Q

CAEV of goats highlights–>

A

Causative agent is Lentivirus
Four forms: arthritis, encephalitis, pneumonia, mastitis
No tx at all

209
Q

CAEV of goats is like ____ of sheep

A

OPP (Ovine Progressive Pneumonia)

210
Q

Ovine Progressive Pneumonia of sheep 4 CS

A

i. Pneumonia
ii. Encephalitis
iii. Mastitis
iv. Arthritis

No tx, cull

211
Q

Ovine Progressive Pneumonia of sheep (OPP) Highlights—>

A

No tx, cull
four forms are: arthritis, encephalitis, pneumonia, mastitis
Causative agent is Lentivirus

212
Q

What is the main CS of BVDV in cattle?

A

Cerebellar hypoplasia

213
Q

Congenital defects occurs at what point in gestation when infected with BVDV?

A

Congenital defects when infection is 100-150 days of gestation causing cerebellar hypoplasia

214
Q

How does a calf become a PI for BVDV

A

Co infection of a PI calf with a genetically closely relayed CP strain (or vaccine against BVDV) causes mucosal disease which is 100% fatal

215
Q

PT with noncytopathic strain co infected with cytopathic strain =
PI with noncytopathic strain without any other strains=

A

death;

lives years

216
Q

Can never rid BVDV until….

A

PI are completely removed from the herd

217
Q

PI calves can respond Immunologically to genetically less similar ___ strains but will not have ____ to original BVDV

A

BVDV strains; antibodies

218
Q

What are the proper management procedures needed to decrease the impact of BVDV infection in cattle herds

A

Vaccination- lots of BVDV vaccines available, avoid in preg cattle unless labeled for use In preg cattle

Vaccine can prevent disease, but not all vaccines are equally effective at preventing abortion, have to get rid of all PT to remove BVDV from the herd, vaccine along is not enough, vax using MLV vaccines

219
Q

__ is usually secondary to GI dz in cattle, usually resolves when GI issues is corrected
Hint: a heart issue

A

A-fib

220
Q

Vegetative valvular endocarditis- murmur over any valve but usually which valve in cattle?

A

Tricuspid valve is most common in cattle

221
Q

CBC results of cow with Vegetative valvular endocarditis

A

Inflammation, hyperfibrinogenemia, increased globulins

222
Q

Traumatic reitculopericarditis causes and CS:

A

wire or nail makes it to pericardium- septic pericarditis

CS- RHF with pressure to pericardial effusion, fever, ADR, abnormal withers pinch test, sloshing sound- may be mistaken for washing machine murmur from bacteria and inflammation

223
Q

What is the most common congenital cardiac defect in cattle?

A

VSD

224
Q

Know pics of dermatoPHILOSIS- rain rot, purple with some strings of purple

A

//

225
Q

Ring worm is called

Rain rot is called

A

ringworm: DermatoPHYTOSIS

Rain Rot: DermatopHILOSIS

226
Q

___ is the most common ectoparasite on cattle, usually on perineum and distal limbs

A

Choriopties

227
Q

What is the face fly scientific name?

A

Musca autumnalis (around eyes mostly, larger than horn flies)

228
Q

What is the scientific name for horn fly?

A

Haematobia spp.

229
Q

What fly can cause production losses because they are so annoying?

A

Haematobia spp. (horn flies) - covers whole body of cattle, small

230
Q

Listeriosis is a relative common cause of abn referable to inflammation of the brain stem in ruminants. Which tx is more appropriate for a patient with signs that you believe are due to acute listeriosis?

A

Procaine pen given SubQ for 10-14 days and dex IM for 1-3 days

231
Q

thiamine is good for tx of ___

A

polio

232
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of classical clostridial myositis?

A

Clostridial tetani

233
Q

The number one risk period for new intramammary infections occurs when?

A

Dry off period

234
Q

You are presented with a 1-year-old Suffolk lamb that is being shown by a young 4H member. This is their first show lamb and they have worked very hard on their project. The owner has called you because his lamb is acting very lethargic and stopped eating 2 days ago, it is receiving 1.5 lb of calf starter twice a day and half flake of grass hay. When you ask whether the lamb has been urinating, they claim that they urine looked dark brown. With a sinking feeling you inform the owner that the lamb is likely suffering from

A

Copper toxicity

235
Q

What nerve is anesthetized for dehorning cattle and where is it located?

A

Cornual branch of the lacrimal nerve– be able to point it out in a pic of a cow

FAM And Ambulatory (6 decks)

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