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FAM And Ambulatory > FAM rotation final > Flashcards

FAM rotation final Flashcards

1
Q

Lumpy jaw tx is __ ___ and prognosis is ___

A

sodium iodine; prognosis is poor if infection is severe

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2
Q

Bacillus antrhacis produces gram ___ aerobic, spore-forming rods

A

gram +

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3
Q

Moraxella bovis causes what pathognomonic sign?

A

central corneal ulcer (younger individuals more predisposed)
Tx LA-200/300 and if severe needs 3rd eyelid flap or tarsorrhaphy

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4
Q

non-cornified cells are ____ and _____ and look like fried eggs and tell you she is in ____ with WBC’s present?
What if NO WBC are present?

A

Intermediate and parabasal; diestrus if WBC’s
but without any WBC= anestrus

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5
Q

you see intermediate cells with some cornified and RBC what stage is she in?

A

proestrus

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6
Q

what about if you see all cells cornified?

A

estrus

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7
Q

too much protein in cow’s diet causes….

A

increased urea and increased BUN= nitrate toxicity

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8
Q

what if you see dramatic shift from cornified back to intermediate/parabasal/WBC’s on cytology?

A

diestrus

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9
Q

what is the 2-2-2 rule in therio?

A

2 ng/day of progesterone= LH surge
2 days later they will ovulate
2 days later you breed her/she is fertile

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10
Q

how should you manipulate a calf if it is presenting in abn position during dystocia?

A

push the calf completely back in the uterus and then move the limbs into the correct position medially to avoid uterine or vaginal tears

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11
Q

How do you perform a vaginal cytology

A

swab the cranial vaginal, roll on slide and stain with Diff Quick

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12
Q

what does a progesterone of 2.0 mean

A

LH surge

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13
Q

what does a progesterone level of 4-6 mean

A

ovulation

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14
Q

what does progesterone level of 10 mean?

A

fertile

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15
Q

how long does semen live in the repro tract? Chilled? Frozen?

A

they live in the reproductive tract for 5-7 days
chilled 3-4 days
frozen 18-24 hours

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16
Q

when should you ntr a pig? What about spay a pig?

A

ntr at 8-10 weeks and spay at 3 months

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17
Q

Puberty of pigs occurs at ___-___ months
what vax do we give?

A

2-4 months; do vax: erysipelas, lepto, bord, parvo, pasturella

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18
Q

what is the estrous cycle of a pig? What about the estrus cycle? Gestation length?

A

Estrous 19-22 days
estrus is about 3 days
gestation is 110 days

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19
Q

“creeper” or downer cows causes “THE M’S”

A

Metabolic derangements
Metritis
Mastitis
Milk fever (hypocalcemia)
Misc.
Musculoskeletal issues
massive infections/septicemia

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20
Q

decreased ____ and ___ and _____are common with downer cows

A

calcium, phosphorus and potassium

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21
Q

what is common that we diagnose in Ketoacidosis cattle?

A

measure bodily fluid Beta-hydroxybutyrate (should be less than 1.4 and if it is increased more than 1.4 then it is ketoacidosis)

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22
Q

what is common in obese dairy cattle in early lactation or late gestation and is worse prognosis than toxemia/ketosis?

A

fatty liver syndrome

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23
Q

neuro signs in whole herd possible diagnosis-

A

vitamin A, salt tox, nervous coccidiosis

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24
Q

L displaced abomasum is usually in PP cow with decreased milk and hypomotility and will have a ping where?

A

between the 10th and 13th ribs, on the left side. Ddx is right flank pyloric omentopexy

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25
Q

RDA and abomasal volvulus

A

ER and fatal situation, RDA is just displacement with partial obstruction (can progress to abomasal volvulus which is hemorrhage strangulation like GDV)

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26
Q

most common cause of anterior abdominal pain (will have NEGATIVE withers pinch test bc does not want to press down into the sternum because abd is sore)

A

traumatic reticuloperitonitis, liver disease, hardware dz, etc. etc.

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27
Q

what are the 4 syndromes of vagal indigestion?

A

type 1- failure of eructation/free gas bloat
type 2- omasal transport failure
type 3- abomasal outflow failure
type 4- indigestion of late pregnancy

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28
Q

prognosis with vagal indigestion

A

poor-guarded

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29
Q

how does a cow present with vagal indigestion?

A

abdominal distension, papple shaped with L shaped rumen on rectal

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30
Q

what causes hairy heel wart?

A

Treponema denticola

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31
Q

Diagnosis of corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A

Gold standard/def. diag. is needle aspirate from LN and culture it

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32
Q

where do toe/sole abscesses start? What is the TX?

A

At the heel bulbs, tx by removing all underrun/detached sole

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33
Q

Hairy heel wart (more common in dairy)

A

digital dermatitis, most common cause of lameness in dairy cattle, tx with tetracycline

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34
Q

foot rot IN SMALL RUMINANTS aka interdigital phlegmon?
WHAT ABOUT COW FOOT ROT???

A

small ruminant–> Dichelobacter nodosus

cow foot rot–> Fusobacterium necrophorum

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35
Q

what is it called when we do a salvage procedure to drill a joint?

A

Facilitated ankylosis

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36
Q

WHat Tx of foot rot and foot scald is…

A

Aggressively trimming and debriding the areas and foot baths, can do abx in foot bath- CULLL ANY CARRIERS

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37
Q

Diagnosis of Johne’s disease-

A

Fecal culture (takes months), PCR (takes about 1 week), clinical p are more likely to shed the bacteria in body fluids, test animals that are 2 years- 7 years old

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38
Q

What is the gold standard diagnosis test for finding BHV-1 aka infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus (IBRV)

A

Qualitative PCR

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39
Q

What bacterial agents are commonly involved with resp. disease in cattle?

A

M. haemolytica, P. multocida, H. somi, M bovis, T. pyogenes
They are all Gram -

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40
Q

IF concurrent signs of otitis in 1 or more animals, what is most likely the agent? What if there is concurrent signs of septic arthritis in one or more animals?

A

H. somi., M. bovis

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41
Q

What can we feed to prevent ABPEE (aka Fog Fever) with lush pasture tetany?

A

monesin for many days

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42
Q

Abscess of nasal passages is usually from what agent?

A

trueperella pyogenes

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43
Q

Quick notes on mycoplasma haemolamae

A

CS- Signs of acute disease include inappetence, sudden weakness and sometimes fever, while chronic signs may present as lethargy, weight loss/wasting, or decreased fertility.
Transmission- transmission is via biting insect vectors. Iatrogenic transmission (reused needles or blood transfusions) is also possible.\
Diagnosis- PCR
Tx- oxytetracycline, will help with CS but will not eliminate the carrier state

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44
Q

What is the tx of necrotic laryngitis aka calf diptheria

A

Pen, tetracycline +/- temporary tracheostomy

causative agent is Fusobacterium necrophorum,

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45
Q

What is the most common endemic virus in the US?

A

Bovine Herpes Virus BHV-1, aka Bovine Infectious rhinotracheitis

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46
Q

what are the limits with testing for Johne’s disease?

A

diagnosis is gold standard with fecal culture in calves in individuals more than 4 y/o
in small rum, it is fecal PCR though

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47
Q

Only what strain of BVDV can cause a PI calf?

A

NCP (non-cytopathic) strain

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48
Q

if NCP strain of BVDV calf is PI and the virus mutates or P becomes infected with the CP strain, what happens?

A

will get mucosal disease which is most common as BVDV genotype 2 and p can die from it, this may also occur if PI calf is given the BVDV vaccine

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49
Q

Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

A

young calves, less than 5 days old, can be prevented with maternal vaccine at 6 and 3 weeks of gestation

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50
Q

What virus causes diarrhea all affect cattle at ages 5-15 days old?

A

rota, corona, and crypto

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51
Q

tx hair heel wart in (dairy) cattle with…

A

tetracycline foot bath

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52
Q

fluids for cattle __mL/kg daily requirements

A

50mL/kg

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53
Q

congenital defects occur at what point in gestation when infected with BVDV?

A

100-150 days of gestation (causes cerebellar hypoplasia)

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54
Q

PI with NCP strain becoming infected with CP strain=

A

mucosal disease and possible death

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55
Q

PI calf with NCP without any other strains infecting it=

A

lives years as PI

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56
Q

Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus in GOATS (CAEV) main route of infection is what? What are the four CS and what is the causative agent?

A

Colostrum is the main route

4 CS are
1. encephalic form- neuro signs and circling “wry neck”
2. pneumonia- interstitial with a chronic cough and increased RR
3. arthritis most common
4. Mastitis (hard milker, less milk production)

Causative agent is lentivirus

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57
Q

CAEV in GOATS is like___ of sheep

A

Ovine Progressive pneumonia (OPP)

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58
Q

OPP causes what four CS in sheep?

A
  1. pneumonia
  2. encephalitis
  3. mastitis
  4. arthritis

Also a lentivirus

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59
Q

.

A

,

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60
Q

What is the normal TPR vitals for camelids:

A

T 99-102
RR 10-30
HR 60-80
12 ribs, 2 toes and increased glu vs. other animals

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61
Q

core vax for camelids-

A

CDT (clostridium perfringens C and D with Tetanus

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62
Q

What are the 2 most common trichostronglyes in camelids?

A

H. contortus and Trchostringlyus colubriformis

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63
Q

What are the 2 large coccidia native to camelids (unique)?

A

Eimeria macusaninesis and Eimeria ivitanesis (tx with Poazuril)

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64
Q

Central ulcer in cow eye is likely what?

A

Pink eye (morazella bovis) and it is usually unilateral

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65
Q

SCC sites in cattle are…

A

Limbus, 3rd eyelid and palpebra

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66
Q

Wooden tongue

A

Actinobacillosis lingieresii

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67
Q

lumpy jaw is caused by…

A

Actinomyces bovis

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68
Q

Tx for lumpy jaw and wooden tongue is…

A

sodium iodide IV, oxytetracycline orally or IV and diagnosis is based on CS alone bc they are both n inhabitants of the oral cavity

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69
Q

Sulfur granules and abscesses with osteomyelitis means…

A

actinomycosis bovis aka lumpy jaw

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70
Q

What is primary bloat

A

frothy, fermented gas, needs a stomach tube and is usually seen with hypomotility, adhesions and will have pear shaped abdomen with colic signs

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71
Q

What is secondary bloat

A

free gas bloat, seen with grain overload and other stuff

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72
Q

FPT is defined as <_____ mg/dL

A

<1000mg/dL

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73
Q

blocked goat, what sx is gold standard with long-term success?

A

tube cystotomy, best for breeding and long-term success very $$$

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74
Q

for uroliths in small ruminants, what are the different preventative strat?

A

Maintenance 2:1 calcium to phosphorus ratio, decreased magnesium and increased forage vs. grain, castrate

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75
Q

What is the number one agent causing pneumonia in post weaning dairy cattle?

A

Pasteurella causing pneumonia

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76
Q

cornified cells are ____ and ____ and tell you she is in ___

A

superifical and anuclear; estrus

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77
Q

Listeria test

A

CSF tap- will see pleonuclear monocytosis with microabscesses on histo of the brain

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78
Q

Severe anemia small rum R/O

A

H. contortus, E. mac, Mycoplasma Haemonlane

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79
Q

Give pregnant ewes ___ in the last ___ weeks of gestation because that is where the most fetal growth occurs

A

grain; 6 weeks

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80
Q

estrous in goat is _____ days
estrous in sheep is ___ days

A

21 days; 17 days

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81
Q

sheep and goat gestation length is ___ days

A

150 days

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82
Q

paravertebral nerve block blocks nerves ___, ___ and ____

A

T13, L1 and L2

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83
Q

Proximal paravertebral nerve block landmarks are…

A

find the cranial edge of L1, L2, and L3

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84
Q

distal paravertebral nerve block landmarks..

A

Transverse process of L1, L2, and L4

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85
Q

Landmark of the cornual branch of the lacrimal nerve..

A

branch of trigeminal nerve (CN5) which is halfway between the lateral canthus and the base of the horn

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86
Q

Vegetative valvular endocarditis CS-

A

will hear murmur over any valve but usually the tricuspid valve in cattle

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87
Q

most common congenital defect in cattle (and cats)

A

Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

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88
Q

What is the most common ectoparasite on cattle and is usually on the distal limbs and perineum-

A

choriopties

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89
Q

Why should we not feed dry cattle the lactating cow diet?

A

increased PTH so increased calcium so concurrent hypomagnesium and hypocalcemia

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90
Q

What is the most common issues in castrated of male goats?

A

urolithiasis (bladder stones)

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91
Q

90-90-90 rule in HL

A

90% are in HL
90% are in the foot
90% are in the lateral claw
so hind foot lateral claw

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92
Q

where do sole ulcers commonly develop?

A

lateral claws, and both hind feet at the sole-bulb junction

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93
Q

what is the most impt time for colostrum absorption?

A

4-6 hrs

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94
Q

serum conc of IgG peaks at ___ hours of age.
Cannot test for FPT before 24 hrs or after 5-7 days

A

36 hours

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95
Q

absorption of colostrum decreases after __ hours of age

A

12 hours

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96
Q

Listeria can affect CN ___ and ____ and leads to…

A

CN 7 and 8 and leads to abortions

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97
Q

____ disease are obligate anaerobic gram + normal inhabitant of the gut and environment

A

clostridia

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98
Q

Contagious vs. environmental mastitis–

A

contagious- prevent with post dip, strep ag., staph aureus., M. bovis (cull)
environmental- prevent with pre dipping teats, coliforms (E. coli, Klebisella), strep species

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99
Q

“Heifer mastitis”

A

if caused by Trueperella pyogenes then it is also called summer masititis, common with dry period, coag - staph, kill the quarter, also cull if nocardia +
Zoonotic, bad, cull

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100
Q

increased forage means more ____; increased starch means____

A

Increased acetic acid= buttermilk fat; Increased propionate acid= increase lactose levels/milk production

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101
Q

How many days in cattle breeding season?

A

65 days

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102
Q

List the percentage with intervals of each breeding cycle?

A

1st interval- > 65%
2nd interval- about 25%
3rd interval- +/- 10%

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103
Q

The first two intervals of the breeding season/cycle should equate to about ___% pregnancies or more

A

about 90%

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104
Q

10% of colostrum is needed within the ___-___ hours after birth

A

2-6 hours

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105
Q

there is a 9.5x more chance of calves with FPT to be from ____

A

heifer

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106
Q

what does it mean if we hear a ping between 10-13 rib on the L side?

A

LDA

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107
Q

What does it mean if we hear a ping on the right side between the 10th and 13th rib?

A

RDA

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108
Q

What if we hear a ping in the R or L paralumbar fossa?

A

on left side=LDA
on right side= cecum

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109
Q

What if we hear a ping OUTSIDE of the R or L 10-13th ribs?

A

Abomasal volvulus

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110
Q

Where do we hear lung sounds in cattle (the infamous triangle)?

A

Point of the elbow to the T13 at the transverse process, caudal to the triceps

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111
Q

Auriculopalpebral block

A

half way between base of EAR (not horn like with the cornual block) and lateral canthus of eye, 15 mL

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112
Q

Cornual block

A

half way between base of horn and lateral canthus of eye, 15 mL

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113
Q

Landmarks for neck injections in food animals:

A

Landmarks: cranial border of scapula, nuchal ligament, cervical spine

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114
Q

Peterson block-

A

○ Curved spinal needle used
○ Blocks optic nerve
○ Junction of supraorbital process/zygomatic arch –> advance needle ventromedially
Go back to the bony part of the eye (foramen orbitorotundum) –> inject 20-30 mllidocaine

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115
Q

how do we know paravertebral nerve block worked?

A

Dec pain sensation
Blocked area feels warmer to the touch (vasodilation)
Scoliosis (unilateral m relaxation)

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116
Q

Therio drugs- Progestagens

A

Megestrol acetate → estrus suppression in dogs
Altrenogest: P4 supplementation, block estrus behavior

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117
Q

Therio drugs GnRH analogs–

A

Deslorelin/Sucramate: ovulation induction

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118
Q

Therio Prostaglandins (Lutalyse, Estrumate, Misoprostol, Prostamate)-

A

Effects CL function → pregnancy termination (when CL is sole source of P4)
Short cycling: shortens ovulation intervals → terminates CL early
Smooth m contraction: expel uterine fluids w endometritis
Pyometra tx - opens cervix after lysing CL, contractions, neutrophils

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119
Q

embryo collection is usually done on day ____ after ovulation

A

day 8

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120
Q

urogenital exam palpation on bull-

A

● Urethralis m, prostate, seminal vesicles, ampullae, inguinal rings
● Scrotum, sheath, penis
● >24mo should be 34cm scrotal circumference!

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121
Q

Tritrichomonas foetus-

A

Found in genital tracts, most cows free of infection by 3 months but re-infection can occur
Causes infertility/embryonic death

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122
Q

TB test

A

aka Intradermal Tuberculin test aka Caudal Fold Tuberculin test

Bovine Purified Protein Derivative (PPD) 0.1mL injected in caudal fold → read 72 hours later
If positive, animal is a “Reactor” -> call state vet to do CCT

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123
Q

TB test doing a comparative cervical tb test–>

A

Do within 10 days of CFT injection

Bovine PPD at one site and avian PPD bilaterally on the neck. Check 72 hours later
Negative → no further action
Suspect → either euthanize and necropsy or quarantine for 60 days
Reactor → euthanize and necropsy

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124
Q

3 P’s in therio–>

A

● Presentation-anterior longitudinal vs posterior longitudinal vs transverse
● Position-dorsosacral vs dorsopubic or dorso right ilial/dorso left ilial
● Posture-with head and forelimbs extended vs bilateral carpal flexion etc.

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125
Q

Define a “true breech”?

A

posterior longitudinal, dorsosacral, with bilateral hip flexion

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126
Q

Signs of pregnancy

A

● Fetal membrane slip
● Amniotic vesicle
● Fetus
● placentomes

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127
Q

Fetal sizes-

A

● 60 d = mouse
● 90 d = rat
● 120 d = small cat
● 150 d = large cat
● 180 d = beagle dog

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128
Q

Placentomes size-

A

● 90 d: dime
● 120 d: quarter
● 150 d: half dollar
● 180 d: silver dollar

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129
Q

Horse gestation is ___ days and need ___ million sperm to breed

A

340 days; 500 million sperm

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130
Q

1-2-3 for parturition

A

● 1 hr: foal standing
● 2 hr: foal nursing
● 3 hr: fetal membrane passage

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131
Q

3 barriers of the mare repro tract:

A

Vulva- vulvovaginal sphincter- cervix

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132
Q

mare fixation of preg is __ days so smush twin before then

A

16 days

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133
Q

Canine gestation dates:

A

65 from LH
63 from OV
57 from cytological diestrus

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134
Q

2-2-2 rule for therio in dogs:

A

● P4 of 2.0 ng/mL= LH surge
● 2 days later = ovulation
● 2 days after that = fertile period (anything >10=fertile period)

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135
Q

what cells do we see with anestrus?

A

Parabasal and intermediate

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136
Q

What cells do we see with proestrus?

A

Mostly intermediate
Some cornified
RBCs

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137
Q

What cells do we see with estrus?

A

All cornified

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138
Q

What cells do we see with diestrus?

A

Parabasal
intermediate
and LOTS OF WBC’s

139
Q

brucellosis vaccine is given at ages ___-__ months of age

A

4-12 months
DO NOT vaccinate males bc it can cause orchitis

140
Q

● 4 predisposing factors for preputial prolapses:

A

○ Redundant preputial tissue
○ Large preputial orifice
○ Polled bulls lack preputial retractor muscle
° Bos indicus influence

141
Q

Liver flukes are caused by _______ or _____ and can cause Clostridium novi infection

A

Fasciola Hepatica or Fascioloides magna

142
Q

Caseous Lymphadenitis (CLA)

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
Incubation period of 2-6 mo
Can live in environment for up to 8 mo
Diagnosis-Culture = DEFINITIVE
CULLLLLL

143
Q

PI cattle are infected at what time in gestation?

A

NCP strain 45-125 days of gestation

144
Q

BVDV has an incubation period of ___-__ days

A

4-7 days

145
Q

Necrotic Laryngitis/calf diphtheria

A

Depression, low appetite, open mouth breathing, salivation, coughing
Causes by Fusobacterium necrophorum (anaerobic gram -), does not penetrate intact mucosa
Prognosis good if caught early
TX abx and banamine

146
Q

Two most common sites to block in goats:

A

urethral process or distal sigmoid flexure

147
Q

risk pastures for stone formation in small rum are___ and ____

A

silicate and oxalate

148
Q

Diagnosis of bladder rupture:

A

Creatinine ratio of 2:1 abdominal fluid to serum is diagnostic

149
Q

what foot conditions are caused by bacteria?

A

Heel erosions and interdigital lesions

150
Q

where does sole ulcers usually occur?

A

Both hind lateral claws at sole-bulb junction

151
Q

White line disease

A

Commonly at heel-sole junction of abaxial border of lateral hind claws

Axial surface is between the claws

152
Q

hairy heel wart

A

digital dermatitis;
Caused by Trepinema denticola spirochete
Tx with tetracycline
site- plantar surface of hind feet

153
Q

foot rot

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum or bacteroides melaninogenicus in cattle

Dichelobacter nodosus in goats

Tx- oxytetracycline, ceftiofur, florfenicol, or PPG

154
Q

Interdigital dermatitis

A

dry out her feet

155
Q

what sx for septic arthritis and what provides the faster recovery time and decreased retention time?

A

digit amputation or digit salvage; digit amputation has the faster recovery time and decreased retention time

156
Q

what type of placenta do cows have?

A

Epitheliochorial placenta

157
Q

tx FPT

A

Colostrum
Plasma or whole blood
Antibiotics
Fluids

158
Q

about __% of cows with BLV develop lymphosarcoma

A

5%

159
Q

Predilection sites for lymphosarcoma:

A

HAULS
Heart-right auricle, abomasum, uterus, lymph nodes, spine-extradural space

160
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

A

asymmetric infection of brain stem as bacteria ascends the trigeminal nerve

Dx: typical neurological clinical signs–> Bacterial culture or immunofluorescence assay
Sample of lumbosacral CSF = increased protein concentration and mild pleocytosis composed of large mononuclear cells

Listeria affects CN 7 and 8

161
Q

Polioencephalomalacia

A

High sulfur intake or altered thiamine status; CS are mainly cortical blindness, incoordination, head pressing, bruxism, dorsomedial strabismus will be seen
TX- Symptomatic and thiamine administration at 10mg/kg QID
Dexamethasone may help reduce cerebral edema

162
Q

Caudal epidural notes to know:

A

1st movable joint/1st and 2nd coccygeal vertebrae
18 gauge x 1.5 inch needle

163
Q

**Know Pings and locations

A

Left side: LDA,
Right side: cecum, spiral colon, RDA, abomasal volvulus

164
Q

Know these LN to be palpated:

A

Lymph nodes: supramammary, prefemoral, prescapular, submandibular

165
Q

Pros and cons with urine dipstick:

A

Ketones not accurate →B-hydroxybutyrate accurately
Timing
Blood or bacterial contamination contamination
Protein

166
Q

BVDV quick notes/timeline

A

45-125= persistently infected (NCP)
70-145: cerebellar hypoplasia, arthrogryposis, microphthalmia, brachygnathia minor
When NCP strain mixes with CP you get mucosal disease-SAME GENOTYPE AND PHENOTYPE

167
Q

Polio quick notes

A

2 hallmark signs: dorsomedial strabismus, central cortical blindness/stargazing

Cause: lack of thiamine caused by disruption of rumen microflora resulting in a metabolic acidosis or toxin (salt/sodium, lead, sulfur), amprolium or coccidiostat

How to diagnose: treat with thiamine and signs resolve then it was polio
CSF tap: NSF

168
Q

Listeria quick notes

A

Hallmark signs: circling and cranial nerve deficits (CN7 and CN8=head tilt, drooped ear/lip, tongue hanging out)

Treat: penicillin +/- dex (causes immunosuppression however it will also decrease inflammation in the brain)

Diagnose: CFS tap-mononuclear pleocytosis and protein

169
Q

___ is the subclinical and the clinical form is ____

A

BLV; Lymphoma

170
Q

Auriculopalpebral to block

A

motor

171
Q

● BSE –> 3 components: **know these

A

Scrotal circumference: 34 cm *
Motility: 30%
Morphology: 70%

172
Q

LH surge=

A

2 ng/ml, ovulation 2 days later, fertile period is 2 days after

173
Q

know fluid calculations

A

/

174
Q

cattle fluid calc

A

50mL/kg/day for adults and 60-70mL/kg/day for neonates

175
Q

What do prostaglandins do?

A

lyse the CL and cause myometrial contractions and can be used to “short cycle” or terminate a pregnancy

176
Q

What are GnRH like deslorin used for? And same with.HCG

A

induces ovulation, about 36 hours after given

177
Q

what does altrenogest do

A

aka regumate
it is a synthetic progesterone used to maintain pregnancy

178
Q

what is the most accurate predictor of a whelping date in canines?

A

57 days after cytologic diestrus begins

179
Q

in mares, the CL maintains the pregnancy until day ____ of gestation and then the ____ takes of at day ____

A

32 days of gestation; the placenta takes over at day 120 of gestation

180
Q

what are the 3 zones of the rumen?

A

Gas cap, fiber mass, and liquid zone

181
Q

Equine follicles ovulate at ___-___ prior to ovulation

A

24-48 hours

182
Q

whelping in dogs is ___ days from the LH surge

A

65 days

183
Q

diestrus vaginal cytologies have a lot of this type of cell–>

A

WBC’s

184
Q

What kind of breeders are mares? What is the length of estrus? What about diestrus?

A

Seasonally polyestrus, long day breeders; length of estrus in mares is 4-7 days and occurs when progesterone is low. Diestrus in mares is about 14-15 days

185
Q

canine estrus lasts ____ days and proestrus is ___ days

A

both 9 days

186
Q

anestrus in dogs lasts how long???

A

4-7 months (dogs only cycle once a year)

187
Q

what does the hormone levels look like when a horse is in estrus?

A

Low progesterone, high estrogen and LH

188
Q

what causes heat in mares?

A

Low progesterone levels

189
Q

what triggers ovulation in mares?

A

LH surge

190
Q

when does the embryo reach the mare’s uterus?

A

5-6 days after ovulation

191
Q

when can you see fetal heartbeat in mares on U/S??

A

about 25 days

192
Q

when can you sex a fetus by U/S in horses???

A

62 days

193
Q

Stage 1 labor in horses

A

length of Stage 1 parturition in horses
30 minutes to 4 hours; ends with rupture of chorioallantosis and allantoic fluid escape

194
Q

stage 2 labor in horses

A

20-30 mins, ends with foal deliver

195
Q

stage 3 labor-

A

3 hours, placental membranes passed

196
Q

___ is a huge risk if the placenta is not passed in 3 hours after birth

A

laminitis

197
Q

first degree perineal laceration-

A

mucosa, submucosa, and skin to the dorsal aspect of the vestibule

198
Q

second degree perineal laceration-

A

through the muscle

199
Q

Third degree perineal laceration-

A

complete disruption of the roof of the vestibule, floor of rectum, and perineal body

200
Q

number one cause of reduced fertility in mares is …

A

endometritis (culture it)

201
Q

what is the breeding dose of sperm in dogs?

A

150 million sperm

202
Q

what is the breeding dose of sperm in cows?

A

15-30 million only

203
Q

what is hereditary and should be culled (uterine or vaginal prolapse)??

A

vaginal prolapse- CULLL

204
Q

Umbilical surgery
- anatomy?
- incision?

A

Vein - cranially to liver
Artery - caudally to bladder
Urachus - caudally to bladder
Elliptical incision - enter umbilical sac at 3 or 9 o’clock

205
Q

.

A

.

206
Q

What are the main causes of alkalosis?
- tx?

A

Displaced abomasum or intestinal obstruction
0.9% NaCl

207
Q

How do you calculate bicarb requirements?

A

Wt x ECF (0.5) x base deficit
- base deficit: normal (25) - plasma bicarb

208
Q

How do you anesthetize the foot?

A

Bier block (regional IV perfusion)
- dorsal common digital vein
- 20cc of 2% lidocaine

209
Q

https://quizlet.com/518855469/food-animal-final-flash-cards/?funnelUUID=7fded487-3fc6-4eb9-8e7c-fd5622d5248e

study this

A

studyyy thisss

210
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing hepatic lipidosis?

A

Liver Biopsy

211
Q

Is foot rot in cattle contagious? What about in small ruminants?

A

yes and yess

212
Q

earliest suggestion of preg in cows

A

membrane slip

213
Q

what drug lyses the CL??

A

Prostaglandins

214
Q

With what issues is mycoplasma associated in small ruminants?

A

Weakness, Respiratory disease, mastitis, arthritis.

215
Q

What is the treatment for mycoplasma in small ruminants?

A

Tetracycline. Erythromycin. Florfenicol.

216
Q

Endometrium edema will regress when?

A

1-2 days before ovulation

217
Q

equine follicles ovulate around size ____ mm

A

45mm

218
Q

How long does fresh semen last in the female? Refrigerated? Frozen?

A

Fresh- up to 1 week
Refrigerated- 2-4 days
Frozen- 12-24 hours

219
Q

___ can cause pyometra in dogs

A

progestogens

220
Q

mycoplasma hameolae in camelids, what do you use for eliminating CS (but will not clear the carrier state)

A

Oxytetracycline

221
Q

How do you diagnose mycoplasma hameolae

A

PCR, blood smear

222
Q

BVDV causes ____

A

leukopenia

223
Q

what parasite causes the most economic loss?

A

Ostertagia ostertgia

224
Q

Large L shaped rumen with decreased feces is likely what conditionS?

A

Failure of omasal transport or pyloric stenosis

225
Q

what are the IH for fasciola hepatica

A

snails

226
Q

incubation period for Johnes is…

A

6 months to 5 years and affects older cows more

227
Q

yellowish cortical tissues post-mortem in cow is likely what disease???

A

polio

228
Q

IBR can cause what two other things besides resp. dz

A

small focal necrosis of the liver and abortions

229
Q

BQA needle and size

A

18 G and 3/4 inch

230
Q

what is HCG

A

It is a hormone that induces LH surge to cause ovulation in 1-2 days

231
Q

what do we normally culture from abscesses in large animals?

A

Trueperella

232
Q

what would the diestrus progesterone levels look like?

A

Progesterone: > 20 ng/ml

233
Q

normal foal/calf presentation with all P’s:

A

Normal: anterior longitudinal, dorsosacral with bilateral forelimb and neck extension

234
Q

How do you differentiate forelimbs vs hindlimbs during dystocia?

A

Forelimbs - fetlock & carpus flex in same direction
Hindlimbs - fetlock & hock flex in opposite directions

235
Q

what is an eye hook or head snare used for in dystocia

A

not used to pull the calf, used to straighten the head if deviated to the side

236
Q

What is the dose for a caudal epidural?
- site?

A

1 ml/200 lbs
Sacral-coccygeal joint or Cx1-Cx2 space

237
Q

What is the treatment for a preputial prolapse?
- main concern?

A

P tube, soak (betadine, salt, sugar), debride, toDay (cephapirin sodium)
- circumcision after healing
Concern = stricture

238
Q

Horses - when should you inseminate when using frozen semen?

A

6 hrs after ovulation
- give sucromate (deslorelin) and they should ovulate 24-48 hrs after injection

239
Q

How do you calculate fluid requirements?

A

Deficit + maintenance + ongoing losses
- deficit: Wt x % loss
- maintenance: 50 ml/kg/day
- losses: 0.25 x deficit

240
Q

How do you calculate bicarb requirements?

A

Wt x ECF (0.5) x base deficit
- base deficit: normal (25) - plasma bicarb

241
Q

What are the most common goat uroliths?

A

Struvite - from too much grain
= sensitive to dissolution
Ca carbonate - from too much legumes

242
Q

What commonly used drug is only labelled for BRD?

A

Enroflox

243
Q

What is the post partum vagina discharge and is normal for immediate after birth to 2 weeks after birth and needs to be a thick, mucopurulent consistency, pink color. It should not look like frank blood, be very greenish-black or be thin. Thin watery discharge is very abnormal because it means the proteoglycans broke down the polysaccharides and proteins and made it thin and watery

A

Lochia

244
Q

umbilical sx talk on Zach’s calf

A

The surgery was a horseshoe shaped incision between the abscess (mass) and prepuce we made an elliptical incision at the base of the mass
The horseshoe mass is to reflect back the penis and prepuce so you will have more dead space in a bull than a heifer, stab incision 3 o’clock and 9 o’clock,
The umbilical a. and urachus come from caudal aspect and cranial vein is the cranial aspect, then incise around the umbilicus and trace back umbilical a., ligate and transect, transect apex of bladder and umbilical vein, umbilicus removed and incisions closed. Cannot use belly band on bulls with patent urachus because it interferes with their prepuce. Can do warm compress if the calf and dam are nice and okay with that
On PPG, Nuflor, Meloxicam

245
Q

Cortical blindness vs blind

A

with cortical blindness there is NORMALLLL PLR but NO menace

246
Q

how old does CL have to be to use prostaglandins?

A

5-7 days old AT LEAST

247
Q

polled gene lacks what

A

retractor prepuce muscle (genetically linked)

248
Q

how to check to see if the calf is alive (reflexes)

A

cornual
suckle
withdrawal
and anal tone

249
Q

ALL instruments will be on exam

A

for therio and food animal, allll of themmm

250
Q

rope for casting a cow will be on exam

A

pick between reefing and flying W methods

251
Q

Remember everything about sole ulcers

A

Sole ulcers are usually on lateral claws of both HL at the sole-bulb junction
it is aseptic necrosis with granulation tissue production
most commonly caused by overgrown toes

252
Q

Know everything about corkscrew claw

A

Lateral claw of HL affected, or medial claws of FL affected
hoof wall will roll under the solar surface and cause sole ulcers
entire claw will be rotated on its long axis
can be hereditary
Tx trimming and repeated footwork 2-3x/year

253
Q

CRIA know
WHY CAN YOU USE AMICAKIN

A

bc not slaughtering them for consumption
We also used Kpen and pantoprazole

254
Q

Umbilical surgeries

A

Preop abx and NSAID, off feed 8-24 hours or about 4 hours if calf
Anesth:
Xylazine/ketamine
Lumbar sacral epidural with Xylazine and Lidocaine and then local lidocaine alone for the ring block
Inhalant
enter abdomen at 3 and 9 o’clock, horseshoe incision around the penis if male
closure layers: interrupted suture for body wall (cruciate or mattress), SubQ simple cont, then Skin is Ford interlocking

255
Q

C sections- you are presented with __ goat and do C section, clip where? What do you sterilize with?

A

Clip 12x12 region (goat) left paralumbar fossa to ventral midline
Prep with iodine scrub and ROH line block 5mL diluted 2% Lidocaine
15cm incision in the left paralumbar fossa through skin, abdominal musculature, and peritoneum
the uterus was closed in a continuous Utrecht pattern. The abdomen was flushed with sterile saline, and the abdominal wall and skin was closed in three layers

256
Q

Know how to do umbilical sx
Where do you make incision, what layers do we enter in what order. What are the things you see?

A

Landmarks, surgery technique, etc.

257
Q

Prohibited drugs = no allowable ELDU

A

Chloramphenicol
Clenbuterol
Diethylstilbestrol (DES)
Fluoroquinolone (human importance)
Glycopeptides
Medicated feeds
Nitroimidazoles: metronidazole
Nitrofurans: nitrofurazone (carcinogenic)

258
Q

Restricted drugs = some ELDU allowed

A

Phenylbutazone
Sulfonamides
DMSO
Gentian violet
Cephalosporins (3rd gen can only be used extralabel for indication)
Neuraminidase inhibitors
Colloidal silver
Dipyron

259
Q

Nuflor is the TOC for septic joint why??

A

because it penetrates bone and joints well

260
Q

Utrecht pattern C section goat notes–>

A

It is a modified Cushing pattern and it is a continuous pattern where it infolds and each individual suture is placed diagonally vs. parallel to the incision

261
Q

newborn cria should be standing within __ hours and nursing within __ hours

A

standing within 0.5-1 hours and nursing within 2-4 hours

262
Q

cria under 2 months needs __-__% of its BW in milk on a daily basis

A

10-15%

263
Q

At what age do we do surgical cosmetic dehorning? Where for we do our local block?

A

4-6 months old; local block cornual branch of lacrimal nerve (branch of trigeminal CN 5) and landmark is halfway between the lateral canthus and base of the horn

264
Q

the most humane methods of dehorning are…

A

local block + Barnes dehorner + electrocautery and NSAIDs after

265
Q

hemostasis of the cosmetic dehorning needs to be to which artery?

A

Extraction of vessels (cornual artery) electocautery which provides analgesia and hemostasis
horns are removed aseptically and skin is closed

266
Q

what did we end up tx Dodge the Listeria goat with

A

PPG 44,000 IU/kg (3mL) SQ q24
Dexamethasone 0.1 mg/kg IM q24
Thiamine 10mg/kg (0.5mL) SQ q6
LA200 20mg/kg SQ every other day

267
Q

Stomachs of alpacas

A

3 compartments, C1, C2, C3
C1 has 4-6 contractions per min and all 3 have glandular mucosa
the largest are C1 and C2

268
Q

a “cria” is usually always a singleton T/F

A

True

269
Q

What do we do about a positive Mycoplasma haemolamae infection in alpacas?

A

Bacterial pathogen of blood cells. Some animals carry it without issues. Only tx if patient
Is severely anemic. Give blood transfusion and tetracycline

270
Q

overeating disease aka clostridium ___

A

D

271
Q

keep does and ewe with ram or buck for how long for breeding management?

A

two estrous cycles

272
Q

what makes up the HOT complex?

A

Haemonchus controtus, Ostertagia spp., Trichostrongylus species

273
Q

what is the difference between proximal paravert. block and distal paravert. block?

A

Proximal paravert. block is used for blocking nerves immediately as the come off intervert. foramen

Distal paravertebral block works on nerves as they come over the distal ends of the transverse process

they should flinch when you are close to the nerve

274
Q

angle the needle __ degrees when doing a caudal epidural?

A

45 degree angle

275
Q

4 lesion stages of SCC

A

plaque, keratoma, papilloma, carcinoma

276
Q

when do calves become functional ruminants?

A

6-8 weeks old because the esophageal groove closes

277
Q

___ happens with early lactation but ___ happens with mid-late lactation. Pre-req. of each is hypomotility

A

LDA; RDA

278
Q

O thinking goat is constipated likely means they actually have what???

A

urinary blocked goat
posturing to urine, screaming, some might dribble or not urinate at all, might lift a back leg, unwell ADR, anorexic, may have distended abdomen etc.

279
Q

how do you confirm blocked goat?

A

U/S, will have a huge bladder, may see fluid in abd if ruptured (would also have abdominocentesis and will see 2:1 creatinine urine to blood serum)
Then do labwork to check kidneys and see if kidneys look good, if they do not then sx is not a good option bc needs to be euth. Can also check kidneys on U/S to see if they look healthy or not (if they have hydronephrosis or not).

280
Q

blood work for urinary blocked goat-

A

azotemia, hyperphosphatemia and hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia
HYPOCHLOREMIA AND HYPONATREMIA
Alkalotic

281
Q

do what solution with tube cystotomy?

A

Ammonia chloride, avoid walpoole’s solution. Do this for two weeks and Q1 check to make sure dribbling urine constantly. Want urine pH down to 6-6.5 (acid)

282
Q

what is the procedure of tube cystotomy-

A

*Perimedian skin incision made in caudal abdomen adjacent to the prepuce , place a rubber tube in the bladder and exiting the tube through the belly wall adjacent to the prepuce
*Once the swelling in the urethra has resolved, any uroliths that were not removed at surgery often pass in the urine either through the urethra or the tube. Once the animal is healed, the tube can be removed.

283
Q

Why do PU not work well long term for goats?

A

Strictures and will re-block in the future

284
Q

more common in goats to rupture blocked bladder if you do a cysto, T/F
can you just place a red rubber/urinary catheter?

A

Trueeee;
It is hard to pass a catheter since they have sigmoid flexure and stones could be in the urethral so block the catheter

285
Q

Layers of abdominal sx-

A

external abdominal oblique
internal abdominal oblique
transverses abdominus
peritoneum

286
Q

You are called out to necropsy a newly arrived stocker calf that died acutely overnight. This calf arrived in a load with 30 other calves from a local sale barn. You notice that the remaining calves are very wild, and it is apparent that several of them have traumatized themselves by hitting the coral fences. At necropsy the dead calf has several areas in the gluteal muscles of the back leg that show gas pockets, crepitus, and appeared dark and dark rancid serosanguinous fluid is also present. Based on the necropsy findings, what is your diagnosis?

A

Blackleg aka Clostridium chaeovei

287
Q

clostridium novyi in rams can be due to…

A

them ramming their heads together/fighting

288
Q

You were called out to examine a herd of beef cows because several of them are showing neurological signs. They all have calved within the last month and are grazing lush, fescue pasture that was heavily fertilized. Several cows are showing muscle twitching and a stiff gait while others exhibit muscle spasms, in coordination, and recumbency with touch knee. The standing cows are aggressive when approached with the truck. Your most likely rule out would be:

A

Ergot poisoning

289
Q

You were called out to examine a group of stocker calves with a respiratory disease outbreak. The calves were purchased from several sell barns about five weeks ago. Response to treatment has been poor and death losses are high. There are many chronic calves that will die or be euthanized at a later date. Many of the calves show evidence of swollen joints, with the hock and carpus being most commonly affected. Which of the following ideologies is most likely?

A

Mycoplasma bovis

290
Q

You are presented with a 6 year old thoroughbred stallion for signs of colic. On presentation he is very agitated, sweating, and has severe scrotal swelling and is looking at his abdomen. What is your top differential?

A

Inguinal hernia

291
Q

which of the following diagnostic samples is most useful for diagnosing both campylobacteriosis and trichomoniasis in beef bulls?

A

Preputial scraping and culture/PCR

292
Q
  1. Infection of a pregnant cow with bovine viral diarrhea virus may result in the formation of a persistently infected animal when the damn it fetus are exposed to the virus during a specific period of gestation period exposure which of the following days could potentially result in formation of a PI calf?
A

persistently infected from days 25-150 gestation exposure

293
Q

Which of the following organisms is a contagious form of mastitis, which is relatively easy to treat during lactation?

A

Staph. aureus

294
Q

which statement concerning as ascaris suum infection of swine is correct?

A

it make be up to 30cm in length

295
Q

A beef cow is presented with dehydration, depression, and dark tarry stools. Her mucous membranes are extremely pale and she has an elevated heart rate. You pull some blood and find she has a PCV of 14. You’re most likely diagnosis is:

A

abomasal ulcer

296
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the cause of Tuberculosis in cattle. What is the first step the farmer should do to be considered an accredited tuberculosis free cattle herd?

A

Have an accredited veterinarian perform 2 negative complete herd intradermal tuberculin tests 10-14 months apart

297
Q

which of the following organisms causes severe mastitis that is non-responsive to approved intramammary or parenteral antibiotic therapy?

A

Strep agalactia

298
Q

Digital amputation pros and cons

A

pros- complete removal of infected tissue and faster recovery
cons- ugly and will only live for one year, heavier animals have more guarded prognosis, front lateral claw affected can survive for years if dairy but hind lateral breeding bull will have a hard time

299
Q

Septic arthritis of the distal interphalangeal joint tx options…

A

digit amp or digit salvage aka facilitated ankylosis

300
Q

Digit salvage aka facilitated ankylosis pros and cons-

A

pros- chronic effective drainage established, complete curette of articular cartilage and remove of all infected bone and not as ugly, can live more than one year
cons- delayed removal of the infected tissue, slower recovery, more $$$

301
Q

how to do the abaxial technique for the digit salvage aka facilitated ankylosis–

A

Line made halfway between the dorsal hoof wall and heel
Line 1/3rd the distance between coronary band and sole

((like a cross across the claw laterally))

302
Q

where do you give subQ injections to a cria/camelid

A

in front of the scapula, behind elbow in axillary region
(and IM injections are like horses with cervical region or semimembranosus/tenendosis)

303
Q

Alpaca gestation and they are___ ovulatory

A

343; and they are induced ovulators

304
Q

Nuflor aka ____ and what are its approved uses–>

A

Florfenicol
approved for tx of BRD & interdigital phlegmon in cattle aka foot rot

305
Q

horse gestation is around ___ days

A

340 days

306
Q

What is the causative agent of Blackleg?

A

C. chauvoei

307
Q

What is the causative agent of malignant edema?

A

C. septicum

308
Q

What is the causative agent of Redwater?

A

C. haemolyticum

309
Q

Clostridium perfringens has 3 types. What disease corelates with each type?

A

type A = clostridial Abomasitis
type C = hemorrhagiC enteritis
type D = overeating dz

310
Q

A 2yr alpaca presents for a 3 day history of weakness and not wanting to stand. What is your differential list?

A

heat stroke,
neuro prob -> P. tenuis,
severe anemia -> HOT complex, E. mac, M. haemolamae

311
Q

How does Listeria monocytogenes cause disease?

A

ingestion of agent crosses mucosal surfaces, travels up CN into CNS causing micro-abscesses & focal encephalitits

312
Q

A 2yr buck presents for drooling, circling to the left, and dehydration. What is your differential list?

A

listeriosis,
otitis
salt toxicity,
polio
meningeal worms
CAE

313
Q

How can you rule out polio from listeriosis?

A

C/S
listeria = unilateral facial paralysis, febrile

polio = bilaterally symetric, central blindness w/ intact PLRs

314
Q

what does thiamine do?

A

decreases cerebral edema ( can also do dexmethasone to help w this)

315
Q

At what time point are fetal membranes considered retained for cows vs mares?

A

12 hours in cow; 3 hours in mares

316
Q

What are the 4 predispositions to a preputial injury?

A

pendulousness of the sheath (redundant tissue),
large preputial orifice,
lack of retractor prepuce muscles (absent in polled breeds),
length of prepuce

317
Q

What is the etiologic agent of foot SCALLDD in Small ruminants (hint: same as cattle foot ROT)!!!

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum or weakly virulent D. nodosus

318
Q

What drugs can be used to tx foot rot in cattle?

A

Oxytet 200mg,
ceftiofur,
florfenicol,
PPG

319
Q

On transrectal ultrasound, a mare has a pre-ovulatory size follicle. What drug should you give & why?

A

GnRH or HcG to induce ovulation

320
Q

What is the order of muscle layers that need to be incised to enter the abodmen?

A

external abdominal oblique,
internal abdominal oblique,
transversus abdominus,
peritoneum

321
Q

Where should you incise the uterus when performing a C-section?

A

between caruncles to avoid bleeding starting at the tip of calf’s toes

322
Q

Information about the c section incision and such:

A

*the incision in the uterus should be made along the greater curvature, starting between the claws of the fetus (to avoid cutting the fetus)
*The uterus should be sutured with a continuous inverting pattern (standardly a Cushing pattern is used- we used Uretch pattern)

323
Q

why do we close uterus with two layers?

A

Uterine contractions can loosen suture line so do two for better re-enforcement

324
Q

layers for c section-

A
  • uterus- Utrecht
    -perineal- simpl. cont. vicryl
    -2nd and 3rd muscular layers- simpl. cont. vicryl
    subq- simpl. cont. vicryl
    skin- Ford interlocking Braunamid
    The only non-aborbable suture is the skin Braunamid
325
Q

foot baths for foot rot/scald in small ruminants-

A

Zinc sulfate, formalin, copper sulfate

326
Q

Soremouth aka contagious ecthyma aka ORF

A

causative agent is parapoxvirus
self limiting, lesions spont. regress in 3-4 weeks, will have a painful mouth and may have mastitis secondary to teat lesions and lameness due to feet lesions.

327
Q

Diagnosis of soremouth aka contagious ecthyma AKA ORF

A

CS and presence of the lesions, paired serum can be diagnostic, Definitive diagnosis is PCR

328
Q

what is the diagnostic test of choice for soremouth?AKA ORF

A

PCR

329
Q

Tx of soremouth AKA ORF

A

lives in enviornment for up to years, esp. in scabs. Tx is none effective but supportive care and should go away on its own in 3-4 weeks

330
Q

Should you vax an uninfected herd or flock against soremouth AKA ORF:

A

NOPE

331
Q

orf in humans

A

from soremouth aka contagious ecthyma;

332
Q

orf in humans-

A

ZOONOTIC, causative agent is parapoxvirus, sores around the mouth/nose/feet/udder, high morbidity and low mortality, self-limiting.

333
Q

Lymphoma predilection sites-

A

HAULS
Heart- specifically right auricle and atria
Abomasum
Uterus
LN
EXTRA-dural space of the spinal cord!!!
andddd retrobulbar

334
Q

Lymphoma age distribution-

A

older cows more affected

335
Q

Bovine lymphoma is caused by what?

A

Bovine enzootic leukosis caused by Bovine Leukemia virus
BLV 98% are clinically NORMAL their entire life

336
Q

Hairy Heel Wart (Digital Dermatitis) contagious? What does it look like?

A

yes, treponella denticola, it is contagious and it is a spirochete; proliferative- looks like wart
Well demarcated, wart-looking, may have a necrotic center and is VERYYYY painfulll

337
Q

where does foot rot invade in cattle?

A

ii. Involves soft tissue–> NOT HOOF WALL OR SOLE

338
Q

is trimming corkscrew claws curative?

A

nope, never curative and needs foot trims 2-3 times a year

339
Q

foot rot in goats does not go past what anatomical region?
foot rot is caused by ____ ___ which is the same as foot ROT in cattle and CS are….

A

the interdigital space, very contagious like foot rot is;
Fusobacterium necrophorum and CS are lameness, foul odor and purulent discharge

340
Q

Tritrichomonas foetus test = good for ___ days in state and ___ days out of state

A

90 days; 60 days

341
Q

diameter of ___ cm is too large of a bladder on US of sheep and goats and indicates a urinary blockage

A

10cm

342
Q

what is the true stomach of alpacas

A

Compartment 3 (C3)

343
Q

circumcision/reefing method for penile injury

A

for prolapsed prepuce of fibrous end to prepuce, heals in about 2 days, pudendal n block and sedation, p tube needed. Sexual rest 60 days and perform BSE after

FAM And Ambulatory (6 decks)

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