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FAM And Ambulatory > New Material > Flashcards

New Material Flashcards

1
Q

Why should we not feed dry cows the lactating cow ration?

A

Would cause PTH to increase calcium from body when there Is a lot of calcium in the diet. Sounds counterintuitive but that’s that way it is. So too much calcium in diet before they calf= hypocalcemia)

Concurrent hypomagnesemia can cause hypocalcemia

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2
Q

Tx for hypocalcemia

A

NOTTTT calcium –> too much calcium will end up downregulating the uptake of calcium
*****mild systemic acidosis induced by feeding anionic salts in later prepartum (right before calf is born) improved ability of the cow to use calcium PP
Prevent hypocalcemia with feeding anionic salts in dry period, do not limit Ca but also do not overload with Ca

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3
Q

**Know DCAD (dietary cation and anion differences) should be ___-___ in the last 3-5 weeks of PREpartum rec. to prevent hypocalcemia

A

-150 to -100

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4
Q

What levels are only a rough indicator of total body Magnesium

A

Serum Mg

Low magnesium is called grass tetany

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5
Q

Low K and low phosph=

A

creeper cows, which are able to crawl around and are alert and can eat but unable to stand

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6
Q

Name the Condition: Low Ca, P, and/or vitamin D in young growing animals, will see ALD and lameness, weak, fractures, abnormal bone growth near physis, etc.

A

Rickets

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7
Q

What are the many risk factors of ketosis and pregnancy toxemia?

A

Inadequate or poor quality feed, multiple fetuses, other concurrent meta. issues

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8
Q

CS of pregnancy toxemia:

A

Can be vague or lethal signs
acute onset of depression and anorexia, no localizing signs of other dz
temperature is n but
as condition progresses, animal becomes weaker, recumbent, comatose, dead

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9
Q

___ from rumen to the liver causes increased demand for E– not enough glucose causes adipose tissue to be metabolized and ketoacidosis

A

VFA

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10
Q

Increased fat breakdown and ___ production without enough glucose =

A

ketone; ketoacidosis

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11
Q

Diagnosis of keto acidosis:

A

Measure bodily fluid beta-hydroxybutyrate, should be less than 1.2-1.4 mmol/L to be considered ketoacidosis

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12
Q

what most efficiency makes up glucose?

A

2 propionates

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13
Q

What is the tx for keto acidosis?

A

Reverse negative energy balance and consider C-section or induce parturition in beef cattle, sheep and goats. Get them eating ASAP (including dairy cattle)
Remember not to put bicarb and Ca in the same fluid bag, it will precipitate

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14
Q

What is worse than pregnancy toxemia/ketosis??

A

fatty liver syndrome

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15
Q

What is most common in obese dairy cattle that are in early lactation or late gestation?

A

Fatty liver syndrome

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16
Q

What is the best diagnostic test for fatty liver syndrome and can it be done in the field?

A

Liver biopsy, yes can be done in the field

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17
Q

TX and prognosis for fatty liver syndrome–

A

Tx same as preg toxemia or ketosis plus giving choline and niacin to decrease fat breakdown in adipose tissue
prognosis is guarded to poor

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18
Q

Neuro diseases of ruminants overview:

A

Usually presumptive diagnosis, not def. diagnosis
hard to know the cause
common
sheep, goats, and calves can be hopped and hemi-walked like a dog or cat during a neuro exam

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19
Q

Polioencephalomalacia (polio)

A

Caused by high grain overload or sulfur in water, causes acute cerebral dysfunction,

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20
Q

What are the diff diagnosis for polioencephalamalacia (polio)

A

Lead poisoning, salt toxicity, vitamin A deficiency, nervous coccidiosis = al more likely if multiple animals are infected

Also, can be brain abscess or tumor, head trauma, bacteria meningoencephalitis, rabies

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21
Q

Pathogenesis of polio involves _____ which are enzymes that degrade ____ and cause disruption of normal microflora

A

Thiaminases; thiamine

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22
Q

Is there a test for polio? What about tx?

A

No test for polio;

Tx is thiamine with epi because anaphylaxis may occur when treating polio patient with thiamine

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23
Q

What is there is a neuro issue in many of the whole group? Differential diagnosis–

A

vit a def, nervous coccidiosis, salt toxicity

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24
Q

Salt toxicity-who is most at risk?

A

Neonates being bottle fed are most at risk- incorrect mixing of milk replacer, not enough water

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25
Q

Salt toxicity, how fast can we decrease plasma and CNS sodium?

A

slowly over several days

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26
Q

What causes lead poisoning??

A

inadequate feed or phosphorus deficiency can increase indiscriminate eating, increasing risk for lead toxicity
CS similar to salt toxicity

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27
Q

What is unique about lead poisoning?

A

Can cause peripheral neuropathy in horses but not encephalopathy

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28
Q

What will we see on CBC with lead poisoning? What about in the bones on rads???

A

see mild anemia and basophilic stippling of erythrocytes on CBC and “lead line” on rads that is the transverse radiodense region in the metaphysis of long bones

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29
Q

What supplement can help with lead poisoning to reverse the signs of intoxication??

A

Thiamine

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30
Q

Listeriosis affects CN __ and ___ and can lead to ___

A

CN 7 and 8; can lead to abortions

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31
Q

What is found in in poorly preserved silage, moldy/rotten hay in bottom of feed bunks, prefers cool moist conditions that is gram positive bacteria???

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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32
Q

? is a meningeal worm, DH is white tailed deer and prognosis is guarded, control access to areas with snails/Slugs

A

Parelaphostrongylus tenius

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33
Q

Parelaphostrongylus tenius is tx/prevented with use of what months in high risk areas?

A

Ivermectin monthly

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34
Q

What are downer cows? What is “alert” downer cow? What about “depressed” Downer cow?

A

Cows presented for recumbency and inability to stand, differentiate alert downer from depressed downer
Alert- willing to eat drink and scoot
Depressed- does not want to eat nor drink, may be persistently in lateral recumbency, may have systemic signs of illness and inflammation

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35
Q

Def. diagnosis of downer cows includes:

A

Starvation, metabolic diseases, sepsis/ SIRS

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36
Q

What is critically impt when dealing with downer cows??

A

it is CRITICALLY important that recumbent cows be moved onto grass, dirt, deep sand, or deep bedding with straw/shaving

Do not let down cows be left to lie on concrete—or dirt. They need bedding

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37
Q

What metabolic derangements will be seen with Downer cows? What should we do to r/o spinal issues???

A

have hypocalcemia or other metabolic disorders, consider CSF tap to rule in spinal lymphosarcoma/abscess

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38
Q

TX for Downer cows:

A

floating tanks, supportive care, good bedding, NSAIDs, make her move once a day at least, address all underlying metabolic issues, steroids

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39
Q

Prognosis and prevention with Downer cows:

A

Prognosis is good to poor depending on combo of problems and speed of which they are addressed
Prevention-correct management problems that lead to peripartum metabolic problems, select calving ease bulls and monitor close up cows to minimize dystocia and to address it rapidly

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40
Q

Clostridial diseases are obligate anaerobic, gram positive, normal inhabitants of the gut/rumen and environment. T/F

A

True!!!

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41
Q

_____ diseases are obligate anaerobic, gram positive, normal inhabitants of the gut/rumen and environment. T/F

A

Clostridial

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42
Q

How is clostridial different from Bacillus spp. (Anthrax)??

A

Differentiate Anthrax from Clostridium because Bacillus (anthrax) is a FACULTATIVE ANAEROBE clostridium is OBLIGATE ANAEROBE

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43
Q

Clostridial perfringens type A

A

Jejunal hemorrhage syndrome (JHS), Calf bloat/clostridial abomasitis
Highly sporadic and found in calves and adults

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44
Q

Clostridial perfringens type C-

A

hemorrhagic enteritis

trypsin inhibited by colostrum

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45
Q

Clostridial perfringens type D-

A 
overeating disease (usually in small ruminants) 
Activated by high starches, pancreatic enzymes
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46
Q

What are the primary concerns with Type C (beta) and Type D (epsilon) toxins?

A

Cause gas gangrene, cellular necrosis, capillary leakage and edema

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47
Q

CS of C. perfringens for types A and C

A

Types A and C- hemorrhagic diarrhea, protein losing enteropathy, sudden death

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48
Q

CS for C. perfringens for type D:

A

Type D- new feedlot animals, fresh/early lactation dairy animals, CNS signs

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49
Q

What is the final result of clostridial disease. What is the diagnosis??

A

Post mortem- sudden death (especially in well-growing calves/lambs), ulceration of the mucosal lining of rumen/GI, evidence of undigested milk/grain in rumen/abomasum, pulpy kidneys and myocardial petechiation
Sudden death!!
Testing is usually presumptive diagnosis, may culture intestinal contents and request toxin identification, can do PCR

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50
Q

TX of clostridial perfringens:

A

systemic penicillin – EXTRA label, antitoxin therapy- for severe disease, but NOT cross protective

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51
Q

Prevention of Clostridial diseases for different types:

A

check particle size of feed stuff and vaccination against type C and type D, not Type A
Make sure feed is not too finely ground
Need about 0.5 long stem roughage for rumen health
Type A vaccines are available, not widely used (sporadic disease)

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52
Q

C. chauvoei- blackleg, where is it found? CS?

A

found in soil, GI, physiological conditions allow for reactivation (bruising, other muscular damage), iatrogenic (contaminated equipment)
CS- febrile, crepitus, dark red/black dry muscle areas on necropsy

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53
Q

C. chauvoei (Blackleg) testing–

A

help differentiate from C. septicum/soredlloo/novyi type B via culture of affected tissues (fresh tissue less than a day old) and PCR

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54
Q

Tx of C. chauvoei (Blackleg)

A

is early treatment with penicillin, sterilely open wound with exposure to oxygen (Fasciotomy/fenestration), supportive care – treatment is usually unrewarding-disease discovered late and rapid insult

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55
Q

Prevention of C. chauvoei (Blackleg)–>

A

vaccination more than 3 months of age, move herd away from the contaminated area, clean equipment, prophylactic penicillin in affected herds

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56
Q

C. tetani involves bacteria undergoing autolysis and releasing ____ toxins (TeNT or tetanospasmin) and _____

A

spasmogenic toxins; tetanolysin

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57
Q

Testing for C. tetani-

A

Real time PCR of tetanospasmin gene

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58
Q

Tx of C. tetani-

A

sedation, penicillin, tetanus antitoxin, supportive

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59
Q

Tetanus antitoxin has immediate immunity within __-__ days

A

7-14 days

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60
Q

C. septicum

A

Malignant edema (gas gangrene), found in soil, route of transmission is unknown, accompaniment in clostridial myositis (blackleg), GI microflora

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61
Q

What toxin is involved with C. septicum that disrupts cell membranes and causes necrosis?

A

Alpha toxin

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62
Q

Diagnosis of C. septicum:

A

edema with necro-hemorrhagic fluid (ventral neck/brisket, forelimbs), sloughing of skin, pain on palpation, toxemia (ANTEmortem)
subQ and interstitial tissues more commonly effected than muscle (compared to C. chauvoei)

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63
Q

___ and ___ have the same tx and prevention:

A

C. septicum and C. chauvoei

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64
Q

What is “the sudden death disease” where CS is acute death, necrotic lesions of the head, neck, and ventrum

A

C. sordelli

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65
Q

C. sordelli testing-

A

Culture, biochemical testing of affected tissue

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66
Q

Diagnosis of C. sordelli-

What is the tx??

A

Diagnosis often from acute death/postmortem; Tx is penicillin

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67
Q

What is the prevention for C. sordelli??

A

Vaccination, toxoid/whole bacterium for outbreaks

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68
Q

C. botulinum is caused by what?

A

Ingestion of pre-formed exotoxin: botulinum neurotoxin (BoNT) or spore, later activating under anaerobic conditions of gut

Consumption of contaminated hay/haylage or silage
Contaminated poultry litter (NPN)

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69
Q

C. botulinum is reportable in many states but not MS. T/F

A

True!!

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70
Q

Botulism CS

A

flaccid paralysis
general weakness, limb incoordination, hindlimb and tail paresis/paralysis, tongue weakness (early), tongue protrusion/paralysis, abnormal recumbent positions

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71
Q

What is the testing for botulism? Tx for botulism?

A

culture usually;

tx is usually unrewarding, expensive, may take weeks, supportive care, penicillin MAY kill active C. botulinum

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72
Q

What causes these CS- fast clinical course, icterus, postmortem- acute death, hepatic necrotic infarcts with thickened hyperemic areas

A

Fasciola hepatifica in the liver

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73
Q

C. novyi (Type B) aka Black disease Tx and prevention

A

Tx is pen if found early, but high rates of rapid death expected
Prevention is Fluke control- eliminate intermediate host- freshwater snails, Albendazole (Valbazen), can vax!!!

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74
Q

____ aka red water disease

A

C. haemolyticum

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75
Q

____ is often in conjunction with C. novyi type B

A

C. haemolyticum -Redwater Disease

76
Q

Big head disease–

A

Acute disease in young rams- caused by C.novyi type B, C. sordelli, and/or C. chauvoei
Rams fighting/headbutting, leads to inoculation opportunities within the head, face, neck, and other extremities, edematous swelling

77
Q

Big head disease prevention–

A

Prevent with vaccination – multivalent subQ in the neck, know withdrawals for meat Most have 21 day but be sure to check the label, lipid-based vaccines typically 60- day withdrawal

78
Q

Treatment for clostridial diseases DOES NOT include …

A

metronidazole—- BANNED IN CATTLE AND SHEEP

79
Q

Anaplasma spp.

A

-gram neg obligate intracellular rickettsial bacteria, infectious and non contagious diseases

80
Q

A. centrale vs. A. marginale and A. phagocytophilum

A

A. centrale- sporadic, causes mild disease 2. A. phagocytophilum- northern US, rare, disease of neutrophils in small animals, horses, humans (zoonotic)
(equine and human granulocytic ehrlichiosis (EGE, HGE))
**A. marginale affects RBCs but A. phagocytophilum affects WBC

81
Q

A. ____ is found globally and has a strong assoc. between age and disease severity. Increased age means increased dz severity

A

A. marginale

82
Q

Anaplasma can have PI carriers, with older animals being most susceptible to clinical disease. T/F

A

Truee!!

83
Q

Diagnosis of anaplasma

A

Acute disease- blood smear, anticoagulated blood. May not always capture the organism on blood smear –does not rule out disease
Difficult to make postmortem diagnosis- no specific lesions
Very difficult to culture

84
Q

What is the most sensitive but also the most expensive diagnostic test for anaplasma???

A

PCR

85
Q

Tx and control of Anaplasma-

A

Minimize stress- quiet areas, supportive care
Injectable oxytetracycline

Enrofloxacin (conditionally approved label)
(Blood transfusion, esp. if PCV < 15)

86
Q

Prevention and control of Anaplasma–

A

No approved vaccines in the US, conditionally labeled vaccine available-does not prevent carriers
Tick/vector control- includes management practices
Carriers controversial decision, oral/free-choice mineral chlortetracycline
Required VFD–testing and culling, vector control

87
Q

BLV and bovine lymphoma causative agent–

A

Causative agent of enzootic bovine leukosis causing lymphosarcoma in adult cattle

88
Q

Transmission of BLV and bovine lymphoma

A

Common in southeast US
Mostly infects lymphocytes, can infect monocytes, PMNs, neutrophils- passed via biological fluids or mechanical vectors like sx equipment **most common, in utero transfer is possible but not common

89
Q

T/F avoid picking up pot belly pigs by the legs

A

True

90
Q

areas of IV access for pigs

A
  • ear vein
  • lateral abdominal vein
  • caudal superficial epigastric
  • cephalic
  • saphenous
  • jugular cutdown
91
Q

IM access in pigs

A
  • neck caudal to ear

- epaxials

92
Q

normal temp in pig

A
  • 101.5 to 103.5

- VPBP are 101-103.3

93
Q

HR of pigs

A

70-100

94
Q

respiratory rate of pigs

A

20-30 breaths per minute

95
Q

normal findings in pigs on PE

A
  • ocular discharge (dark brown)
  • aural exudate
  • shedding once or twice a year
96
Q

pig diet

A

Omnivores with fiber

97
Q

When should you ntr a pig? What about spay?

A

8-10 weeks ntr; spay at 3 months of age

98
Q

T/F there are no RV labeled for pigs?

A

True!!!

99
Q

recommended vaccines for pigs

A
  • erysipelas
  • leptospirosis
  • parvo
  • bordetella
  • pasteurella

Every puppy loves playing ball

100
Q

Puberty of pigs occurs at __-__ months

A

2-4 months

101
Q

What is the estrous cycle of the pig? What about the estrus cycle? Gestation of pigs?

A

Estrous is 19-22 days
Estrus is 3 days
Gestation is 110 days

102
Q

Litter size of pigs is usually ____ piglets

What is the n birthweight of piglets?

A

5; 250-450 g (VERRRY sensitive to cold temps)

103
Q

colostrum in piglets

A

15-20 ml in first 12 hours

104
Q

iron injections in piglets

A

50-100 mg in the first two days of life

105
Q

When do we wean the piglets?

A

4-6 weeks

106
Q

diseases of regulatory concern in pigs

A
  • pseudorabies
  • vesicular stomatitis
  • brucella suis
  • foot and mouth disease
107
Q

What 3 diseases can cause arthritis in pigs???

A
  • erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
  • mycoplasma hyopneumonia
  • strep suis
108
Q

uterine tumors in pigs

A
  • leiomyomas and endometrial carcinoma
  • in old intact females
  • causes progressive abdominal distention
109
Q

What anaplasma is rare?

A

A. phagocytophilum

110
Q

convalescence of anaplasmosis

A
  • period where RBCs may start to return to normal

- low production, abortions

111
Q

signs of acute anemia occur when

A

when 50% or more of the RBCs are lost

112
Q

CS of acute anaplasmosis

A
  • anemia and hypoxia
  • febrile
  • icterus
  • extravascular hemolysis
  • no hemoglobinuria
113
Q

diagnosis of acute disease of anaplasmosis

A

Blood smear but does not rule out, very hard to culture. PCR is most sensitive but is very expensive

114
Q

Bovine Leukemia Virus

A
  • oncogenic retrovirus
  • enveloped
  • positive sense ssRNA
  • causative agent of enzootic bovine leukosis
115
Q

prevalence of bovine leukemia virus

A
  • older adults that have never previously exposed at highest risk
  • increases with herd size
  • highest rate of disease in southeast US
  • export restrictions/testing requirements in US
116
Q

transmission of bovine leukemia virus

A
  • infects lymphocytes
  • blood transfer, needles, rectal palpation sleeves
  • horizontal transmission
117
Q

3 syndromes with bovine leukemia virus

A
  • clinically normal
  • persistent lymphocytosis
  • enzootic bovine leukosis
118
Q

most common syndrome with bovine leukemia virus

A
  • clinically normal

- 65%

119
Q

persistent lymphocytosis with bovine leukemia virus

A
  • 30%
  • not neoplastic
  • may have reactive lymphocytes
  • serve as reservoirs
  • can cause decreased production
120
Q

systemic lymphosarcoma with bovine leukemia virus

A
  • usually 4-8 years old

- only 5%

121
Q

sporadic bovine leukosis

A
  • less than 5%
  • highly fatal neoplasia
  • lack viral infectivity (not related to bovine leukemia virus)
122
Q

sporadic bovine leukosis juvenile form

A
  • grave prognosis
  • < 6 months of age
  • diffuse lymph node enlargement
  • lymphocytosis
123
Q

sporadic bovine leukosis thymic form

A
  • < 2 years old
  • thymic enlargement (ventral cervical)
  • bloat
  • grave prognosis
124
Q

Sporadic bovine leukosis, cutaneous form:

A
  • 1-3 years old
  • animal may undergo remission and relapse
  • plaque like nodules that ulcerate
  • poor prognosis
125
Q

What is the most impt nematode and the most damaging one in cattle in the mid-south?

A

Brown stomach worms (Ostertagia ostertagi)-

126
Q

What diseases might we want to vaccinate beef cattle for?

A

environmental issues, cow sources of Clostridia, IBR, BVD, BRSV, P13, BLV, Mannheimia, Moraxella bovis, Pasteurella, etc.

127
Q

Tips on vaccines

A

a. Follow BQA guidelines, split the vaccine on each side of the animals, use subQ routes over IM- which stays in the body longer, use lower dose vaccine products, watch what products you give on the same side of the neck (MLV products GO LOWWWW)- live products must migrate and will cancel out other vaccines in some cases
b. Booster no longer than 3 weeks
c. Keep vaccines cool and out of sunlight
d. Mix vaccines as they are needed (modified live products)
e. Gram negative bacterins (brucella, lepto, pasteruella, vibro, pinekeyes, H. somnus, etc)
f. Boil needles if reused or just use new ones
g. Use of MLV viral vaccines in calves, replacement heifers, and open/prebreeding adult cows (stimulates humoral and CMI- immunity lasts longer, better fatal protection)
h. Heifers need at least 2 doses prior to breeding

128
Q

Heifers need at least two doses of vaccines prior to breeding- explain this:

A

MLV vaccines can abort cows (IBR fraction) if they have not received that MLV vaccine before

129
Q

What is the number one bacterial concern in cattle that causes SUDDEN DEATH?

A

Clostridial diseases

130
Q

___ vaccines have high efficacy and long duration of immunity (DOI)

A

Clostridial

131
Q

What is the causative agent of sudden death dz?

A

Clostridium sordelii

132
Q

What is the causative agent of malignant edema?

A

Clostridium septicum

133
Q

What is the causative agent of black dz?

A

Clostridium novyi type B

134
Q

What is the causative agent of red water dz?

A

Clostridium haemolyticum

135
Q

Which clostridial dz is associated w/ iatrogenic spread via contaminated equipment?

A

C. chauvoei (blackleg)

136
Q

What is the incubation period for Anaplasma?

A

2-4 weeks

137
Q

Which animals are most at risk for bovine leukemia virus?

A

Older animals w/o previous exposure

- SE US = highest rate of dz

138
Q

Bovine leukemia virus

- transmission?

A

Blood transfer
- mechanical vectors: sx equipment, needles, palpation sleeves
- bio vectors: biting insects & mosquitoes
In utero transfer possible
Infections lymphocytes

139
Q

What are the 3 syndromes of bovine leukemia virus?

A
  1. Clinically normal
    - low level viremia, sero+
    - 65% of infected animals
  2. Persistent lymphocytosis
    - benign elevation of lymphocytes
    - 30% of infected animals
  3. Enzootic bovine leukosis
    - highly fatal adult systemic lymphosarcoma
    - 5% of infected animals
140
Q

What are the forms of sporadic bovine leukosis?

A 
(non-viremic, fatal neoplasia)
Juvenile form: < 6 mo
- diffuse lymph node enlargement
Thymic form: < 2 y/o
- thymic enlargement
Cutaneous form: 1-3 y/o
- cutaneous plaques
- remission & relapse
141
Q

Who regulates animal biologics?

A

USDA and APHIS

142
Q

What are the 3 main branches of APHIS? What do they do?

A

Animal care = inspections, animal welfare
Plant protection & quarantine = animal imports
Vet services = animal health, policy, dx, biologics

143
Q

What are the titles/jobs that fall under vet services of APHIS?

A

Area vet in charge, State epidemiologist, Veterinary Medical Officers, and
USDA Animal Health Technicians!!

144
Q

What are the state dz programs/traceability?

A 
Cattle/swine/cervid brucellosis
Cattle/cervid TB
Swine pseudorabies
Scrapie
Chronic wasting dz
National poultry improvement plan
- pullorum, mycopllasma, avian flu
145
Q

Who defines VCPR??

A

When it applies to food safety & ELDU → FDA

When it applies to vet med practice → state

146
Q

What are the 2 tiers of federal accreditation?

A

Category 1 - only dogs & cats + some exotic pets
- no food animals, pet pigs, birds, horses, fish, etc
Category 2 - all animals

147
Q

Term for: senior member of USDA APHIS VS vet staff in a particular state

A

AVIC

- area vet in charge

148
Q

What is required for a vet to become USDA accredited?

A 
State license
Take IAT
Orientation session w/ USDA
Apply for accreditation
(accreditation good for 3 yrs)
149
Q

Which federal agency regulates animal health including disease monitoring and surveillance and interstate animal movements?

A

USDA, APHIS

150
Q

Current trichomoniasis regulations state that bulls over 18 months of age need to be tested prior to sale.

  • Which of these bulls need to be tested?
  • Is this a state or federal requirement?
A

Know how to age cow by teeth

State

151
Q

Who can test animals for BSE under the federal surveillance program?

A

Any state or fed regulatory animal health official, or any accredited private practitioner

152
Q

What are the livestock diseases involved in a state-federal cooperative agreement program?

A

Bovine TB, bovine brucellosis, swine brucellosis, swine pseudorabies, scrapie, BSE

153
Q

When can a livestock owner be required to get a Premise ID number?

A

If they participate in any USDA livestock programs

154
Q

Tips on bacterial vaccines and endotoxins

A

i. Endotoxin levels increase if the vaccine gets too hot
ii. Dairy cattle are more susceptible than beef
iii. Dairy and stress cattle- no more than 2 gram negative vaccines at once
iv. Smaller/younger calves are more susceptible than larger
v. Beef (not stressed)- no more than 3 gram negative vaccines at one time

155
Q

What are the 3 parts to biosecurity in useful vax programs of dairy herds?

A

a. Prepurchase testing
b. Quarantine for at least 42 days
c. Vaccination of new arrivals for diseases on the farm

156
Q

What vaccines are safer to use in all classes of cattle but must be boostered and only stimulates the humoral response?

A

Killed vax

157
Q

What vaccine may not have to be boostered and:

  • stimulates both humoral and cell mediated immunity
  • goes low
A

MLV

158
Q

When should vax be boostered?

A

no less than 3 weeks

159
Q

gram negative vaccines

A
  • no more than 2 in stressed cattle
  • no more than 3 in healthy cattle
  • can cause endotoxemia
160
Q

when to use MLV

A

-in calves, replacement heifers, and open/prebreeding cows

161
Q

when to use killed vaccines

A

-in pregnant cows if not previously vaccinated with the MLV

162
Q

heifer vaccines

A

-should have at least 2 doses prior to breeding

163
Q

Tips for vax against Lepto:

A
  • start early to prevent the carrier state of L. harjo

- no vaccine can clear the carrier state

164
Q

tips on vaccinating against clostridia

A
  • # 1 bacteria of concern in cattle
  • can cause sudden death
  • try to booster these diseases at every opportunity
165
Q

vaccines of adult cows prebreeding

A
  • vaccinate for reproductive diseases(often difficult to do)
  • lepto, vibrio, IBR, BVD
166
Q

vaccines of bulls

A

-vaccinate 2x a year at BSE and weaning

167
Q

vibrio vaccine

A
  • 2x the dose of vibrin

- need to adjust the dose based on weight

168
Q

vaccines of calves

A
  • give initial vaccines 3-4 weeks prior to weaning

- or give 1st dose at weaning and revaccinate in 3-4 weeks

169
Q

gram negative diseases

A

E. coli, salmonella, pasterurella, histophilus, campylobacter, mannheimia

170
Q

____ is found in the cell wall of most gram neg bacteria

A

Endotoxin

171
Q

why vaccinate dairy cattle

A
  • more vital in dairy cows due to close confinement and comingling of cattle
  • dairy cattle immunity is not as effective as beef
  • even more important to use the right product at the right time
172
Q

calf problems in dairy cattle

A

Diarrhea and pneumonia

173
Q

most common parasites that affect the normal immune response in dairy cattle

A

Nematodes and cocidia

174
Q

environmental diseases in dairy cattle

A
  • salmonella
  • e coli
  • environmental mastitis
175
Q

animal sources of mastitis

A

Staph, step, mycoplasma

176
Q

vaccine sites in dairy cattle

A

use each side of the animal to stimulate different lymph glands

177
Q

lepto vaccine in dairy cattle

A

-illegal in lactating cows

178
Q

What is the number one disease and pathogen in post weaning dairy calves???

A

Pneumonia and Pasteurella

179
Q

Category 1 means ____ training units but category 2 is ___ training units
Renew for both is every ____ ___

A

3;6;

Renewal for both is every 3 years

180
Q

The area vet in charge is the member of the _____ _____ vet staff of a particular state

A

USDA APHIS VS

181
Q

pre-signing health certificates falls against the rules of….

A

AVMA policy on CVI

182
Q

What are three diseases that are involved with state disease programs which may or may not be federally funded:

A

Johne’s disease, Trichomoniasis, BVDV

183
Q

___ ____ is necessary for some regulatory programs like BSE, ADT

A

Aging cattle

184
Q

isteriosis is a relative common cause of abn referable to inflammation of the brain stem in ruminants. Which tx is more appropriate for a patient with signs that you believe are due to acute listeriosis?

A

Procaine pen given SubQ for 10-14 days and dex IM for 1-3 days

185
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of classical clostridial myositis?

A

C. tetani

186
Q

The number one risk period for new intramammary infections occurs when?

A

Dry off period

187
Q

You are presented with a 1-year-old Suffolk lamb that is being shown by a young 4H member. This is their first show lamb and they have worked very hard on their project. The owner has called you because his lamb is acting very lethargic and stopped eating 2 days ago, it is receiving 1.5 lb of calf starter twice a day and half flake of grass hay. When you ask whether the lamb has been urinating, they claim that they urine looked dark brown. With a sinking feeling you inform the owner that the lamb is likely suffering from:

A

Copper toxicity

FAM And Ambulatory (6 decks)

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