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FAM And Ambulatory > Ambulatory Study Material > Flashcards

Ambulatory Study Material Flashcards

1
Q

Herpes 1 and 4 in horses

A

the equine vaccine decreases virus but does not prevent neurological form of the disease
The two most significant are EHV-1, which causes respiratory disease, abortion, and neurologic disease; and EHV-4, which primarily causes respiratory disease and only occasionally can cause abortion or neurologic disease.

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2
Q

Fescue toxicosis typically does not cause abortion but can cause what other reproductive signs…

A

Agalactia, long gestation, red bag, retained fetal membranes and early embryonic death

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3
Q

Heifers should be vaccinated for Brucellosis at which age?

A

4-12 months bc they are unlikely to be preg and you do not want to induce infection in bulls which wil cause orchitis

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4
Q

what abx has the shortest meat withdrawal drug and time

A

Ceftiofur (all forms); milk is zero bc does not cross milk plasma barrier, meat withdrawal is 4-14 days

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5
Q

Shortest meat withdrawal drugs (2) and time

A

Naxcel, Exanel (Ceftiofur) which is ZEROOO days for milk and 4 days for meat withdrawal
Exceed is also a Ceftiofur and has a 14 day meat withdrawal and no milk withdrawal

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6
Q

What 3 drugs are used in bovine OvSync protocols?

A

GnRH (7 days), Prostaglandins (2 days), GnRH (18 hours)

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7
Q

What is the most common reason for use of abx in cows?

A

mastitis

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7
Q

These two contagious mastitis agents are difficult to treat with antibiotics

A

Mycoplasma bovis (lacks cell wall), Staph aureus (microabscesses and creates biofilm around the cell wall)

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8
Q

This type of ovarian cyst can cause persistent estrus in a cow

A

Follicular cyst

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9
Q

Which 4 treatments can be used to treat bovine ovarian cysts?

A

PGF-2 alpha, GnRH, Progesterone and HcG

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10
Q

What do we use to tx pyometra in cows?

A

PGF2 alpha

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11
Q

Which 2 combinations of vitamins and minerals may be used to treat retained fetal membranes in cows?

A

Vit D, Calcium; Vit E, Selenium

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12
Q

Bovine pregnancy signs at 1 month (30-35 days; earliest signs)

A

Vesicle

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13
Q

Bovine pregnancy sign at 2 months

A

Mouse sized fetus
3 months dime sized placentomes and rate sized fetus
4 months quarter size placentomes and small cat sized fetus
5 months small dog sized fetus

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14
Q

Female fetus twin that develops abnormal (95% infertile) under the influence of testosterone

A

Freemartin

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15
Q

in cows, what initiates parturition

A

fetal cortisol

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16
Q

How long is Ferguson’s reflex present after calving?

A

5 days

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17
Q

a calf should have a minimum of what % of body weight colostrum, within a maximum time frame of ?

A

10% (body weight), 2-6 hours

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18
Q

The use of these vaccines should be limited to 3 at a time in healthy cows and 2 at a time in at-risk or heifers

A

Gram negative (due to endotoxin)

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19
Q

50% of persistently infected BVDV calves die before weaning due to these two causes

A

Mucosal disease (CE virus superinfection), immunosuppression

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20
Q

Where is GnRH secreted?

A

hypothalamus

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21
Q

Where are LH and FSH secreted?

A

Anterior pituitary

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22
Q

where is progesterone secreted?

A

CL

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23
Q

where is prostaglandin secreted?

A

Uterus

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24
Q

Where is estrogen secreted?

A

Follicle

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25
Q

In cows, uterine involution should be complete by this time

A

30-40 days

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26
Q

Average age at first calving for heifers

A

24 months

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27
Q

When should pregnant cattle be moved to the transition group (heifers and cows)?

A

4 weeks (heifers), 3 weeks (cows)

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28
Q

What are the 3 prebreeding vaccines that should be given to heifers/cows?

A

IBR, BVDV, Lepto (hardjo), vibrio (campylobacter)

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29
Q

Drugs prohibited for ELDU in food animals

A

Chloramphenicol, clenbuterol, DES, nitroimidazoles, nitrofurans, sulfonamides (lactating cattle), fluoroquinolones, glycopeptides

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30
Q

Antibiotic labeled for clostridial infections

A

PPG

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31
Q

4 tx labeled for metritis

A

Ceftiofur, oxytetracycline, tylosin, urea (uterine bolus)

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32
Q

At what DIM is peak lactation?

A

45-90

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33
Q

Higher production of this VFA leads to milk with higher butterfat content

A

acetic acid

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34
Q

Higher production of this VFA leads to higher milk production

A

Propionate

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35
Q

Most common cause of contagious mastitis in the US

A

Staph aureus

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36
Q

What are the 4 groups of environmental mastitis pathogens?

A

Strep (dysgalactia, uberis), Coliforms (E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Citrobacter), Pseudomonas, yeasts

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37
Q

What are the 3 ketone bodies?

A

BHBA (betahydroxybutyrate) breaks down to acetyloacetate, which reduces to acetone and CO2

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38
Q

What is the cow side diagnostic test of choice for ketosis?

A

Blood or milk BHBA

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39
Q

Name the five most common periparturent diseases of cattle.

A

Mastitis, metritis, ketosis, hypocalcemia, displaced abomasum

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40
Q

3 most common generalized neurologic disease in adult cattle

A

Polio(encephalomalacia), listeria, lead poisoning

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41
Q

Criteria used to determine if a mare can be induced for labor

A

Gestation length, colostral electrolytes, cervical softening, fetal PPP (presentation, position, posture)

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42
Q

average milk production of a Holstein

A

23, 000 lbs/ lactation

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43
Q

what criteria are used to determine if a dairy heifer is ready to be bred?

A

65% mature size, cycling, adequate pelvic area

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44
Q

How long is estrus in a cow?

A

18 hours, ovulates at the end

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45
Q

what are the 3 VFA’s?

A

Acetate, propionate, butyrate

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46
Q

characteristics of mastitis milk

A

elevated pH
decrease in lactose, caesium, k
increase in Na, Cl
increased amount of SCC

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47
Q

Contagious mastitis pathogens

A

Strep ag
Staph aureus
mycoplasma bovis

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48
Q

CS of milk fever

A

hypersenstivity, off feed, excitable, unable to rise, s-shaped neck, rumen stasis

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49
Q

complications of a long term down cow

A

muscle damage/compartmental crush syndrome
increased incidence of LDA
mastitis
decreased milk production
increased traumatic injuries

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50
Q

toxic effect of Ca

A

cardiac arrest and arrhythmias
tx: epi and magnesium

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51
Q

How to prevent milk fever?

A

Ca:P ratio to.7:1
anionic cation ration for close up cows

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52
Q

What are the ketone bodies?

A

acetone, acetylacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate

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53
Q

type 1 ketosis

A

spontaneous, 3-6w postpartum

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54
Q

type 2 ketosis

A

hepatic lipidosis

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55
Q

acid base and electrolyte disturbances associated with LDA

A

hypokalemia
hypocalcemia
metabolic alkalosis

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56
Q

5 most common periparturent diseases of cattle

A

mastitis
ketosis
metritis
hepatic lipidosis
LDA

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57
Q

when does metritis commonly occur

A

7-14 days post calving

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58
Q

Polioencephalomalacia

A

due to thiamine deficiency
stargazing, blindness, ataxia, dorsomedial strabismus
tx: thiamine, pred

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59
Q

Lead toxicity CS and TX–>

A

central blindness and diarrhea
tx: CaEDTA, oral binders, rumenotomy

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60
Q

Salt toxicity signs

A

head pressing, blindness, paddling, dog sitting

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61
Q

2 most common causes of lateralized neurological disease in cattle

A

listeria
TEME aka Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis assoc. With Histophilus

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62
Q

2 most common causes of hyper-excitability in a fresh cow

A

hypocalcemia
hypomagnesemia

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63
Q

circling disease

A

listeria

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64
Q

vit a deficiency

A

blindness, ataxia, convulsions

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65
Q

bovine bonkers

A

urea toxicosis

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66
Q

Aujeskis disease

A

pseudorabies

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67
Q

Malignant Catarrhal Fever

A

hemorrhagic diarrhea, uveitis, bloody urine, CNS signs, mucopurulent exudate

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68
Q

3 DDx Right heart failure

A

hardware disease
lymphoma
endocarditis

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69
Q

primary differential for unilateral jugular distention

A

hardware diseae

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70
Q

what vaccines should adult beef cattle get prior to breeding

A

Lepto, BVD, Campylobacter and IBR

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71
Q

Clostridium chauvoei aka

A

blackleg

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72
Q

trichophyton verrucosum aka

A

ringworm

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73
Q

ringworm aka

A

trichophyton verrucosum

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74
Q

Bacillary Hemoglobinuria (Red Water Disease) aka

A

clostridium haemolyticum

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75
Q

Malignant edema aka

A

Clostridium septicum

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76
Q

order of eruption of permanent teeth (horse

A

2.5, 3.5, 4.5

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77
Q

core vaccines suggested by the AAEP

A

rabies
WNV
EEE/WEE
tetanus

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78
Q

3 possible sources of bleeding in castration

A

improperly applied emasculators
crushing cord that is too large
movement of the horse

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79
Q

management options for a hydrocele

A

remove vaginal tunic
scrotal ablation

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80
Q

mycoplasma pneumonia

A

most common casuse of chronic pneumonia and non-productive cough in pigs

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81
Q

priapism

A

persistent erection without stimulation

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82
Q

phimosis

A

inability to extrude the penis

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83
Q

Define:
1. Paraphimosis
2. phimosis
3. priapism

A
  1. Inability to retract the penis
  2. inability to extrude the penis
  3. persistent erection without stimulation
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84
Q

5 criteria for mare being induced

A

normal fetal presentation
verifiable pregnancy length of 335 days
presence of pre colostrum electrolytes
cervical softening

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85
Q

when do most EED occur

A

first 60 days

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86
Q

when do endometrial cups disappear

A

130 days

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87
Q

when do endometrial cups form

A

35 days of pregnancy

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88
Q

when does the fertilzed ovum move from the oviduct into the uterus

A

40-45 days

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89
Q

what is the appropriate technique used to manipulate the mare’s cycle to expedite her transition back to cycling in the winter

A

putting them under light in the winter, continue for 60 days

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90
Q

high intrinsic reproductive rates (R0) for diseases leads to…

A

higher levels of herd immunity required to prevent propagation of epidemic

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91
Q

what form of bacteria is found in water, manure, and mud

A

Coliform bacteria

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92
Q

Coliform bacteria is found in ____, ___ and ____

A

manure, mud, and water

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93
Q

Accepted standard length for a lactation period in dairy cattle is…

A

305 days

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94
Q

primary bacterial agents involved with BRD (bovine respiratory disease) are:

A

Mannheimia, Mycoplasma, and Pasturella

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95
Q

if specificity of a herd is 65% what does this mean?

A

65% of the herd are apparently healthy

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96
Q

What chemicals do we use for disinfecting animal and outdoor pens?

A

Oxidizing agents

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97
Q

A 21 preg rate in cattle being 64% means….

A

95% of the calf crop during a 63 day calving season

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98
Q

How many days is normal estrous in cattle?

A

21 days

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99
Q

What is threshold level?

A

the minimum density of susceptibility of animals required to cause contact-epidemics to occur

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100
Q

the type of vaccine which is most likely to cause a cell mediated response to viral pathogen is….

A

whole virus modified live vaccine

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101
Q

what is the amplifier host?

A

animal that is usually not adversely affected by a disease but the number of infectious units increases in the animal

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102
Q

IH of taenia saginata

A

cattle/bovine

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103
Q

what disease is currently involved with federal and state control programs in cattle

A

brucellosis

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104
Q

_ is a bacteria that can result in violation of increased SCC bacteria in dairy cattle

A

strep agalactia

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105
Q

_ is a bacteria that can result in violation of increased SCC bacteria in dairy cattle

A

strep agalactia

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106
Q

What are the 3 main contagious causes of mastitis in dairy cattle???

A

Strep agalactia, Staph aureus, Mycoplasma bovis

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107
Q

What bacteria causes gangrene mastitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

108
Q

What bacterial agent causes high SCC in milk?

A

Strep agalactiae

109
Q

What method do we use to prevent contagious mastitis? How can we prevent environmental mastitis?

A

Contagious mastitis- use POST dipping teat protocols and for environmental, use PRE dipping teat protocols

110
Q

_______ causes outbreaks of mastitis with history of swollen joints, esp. disease that occurred in the past of the infected individual(s)

A

Mycoplasma

111
Q

What is a very very contagious bacterial agent that is also able to resist treatments

A

Mycoplasma

112
Q

What are all of the GI pathogens in hutch calves that we need to look out for

A

E. coli, Rotavirus, coronavirus, coccidia

113
Q

___ causing pneumonia is the most common cause of mortality in post-weaning dairy calves

A

Pasteruella

114
Q

Breed dairy heifers at _____-____ months
Avg. age at first calving is usually ______ months old and avg. conception rate of AI at estrus is __-___% but with a bull timing it, it is ____%

A

Breed dairy heifers at 13-15 months
Avg. age at first calving is usually 22 months old and avg. conception rate of AI at estrus is50-60% but with a bull timing it, it is 40%

115
Q

Move to transition grp at __ weeks before what happens?

A

at 4 weeks old before expected changes to cause rumen flora accumulation and to use anionic salts which prevent hypoCALCEMIA

Also wanna increase propionic acids and decrease anionic acids with use of VFC’s

116
Q

What is the ideal pH of the urine in the transition grp?

A

5.7-6.4 pH

117
Q

What is the number one main risk period for mastitis and how do we prevent it?

A

Dry off period; we use 1mm for prevention

118
Q

increased ____ diets promote acetic acid which does what?

A

forage; More buttermilk fat

119
Q

What does forage diet do?

A

Increases acetic acid production which means more buttermilk fat

120
Q

What does diets high in starch promote?

A

more propionic acids which causes more milk production

121
Q

What diet causes more milk production? How about buttermilk fat?

A

Propionic acid; acetic acid

122
Q

rumeninsin decreases ______ and ______ VFA’s

A

acetic and propionic acids

123
Q

What percent of carbs (grains and forages) make up a consistent diet in ruminants?

A

70%

124
Q

What are the disadvantages of concentrates?

A

Laminitis, SARA, rumenitis, liver abscesses

125
Q

What is the legal limit of SCC in bulk tank?

A

750,000 cells/CFU

126
Q

What do you do if you cattle are affected with mycoplasma bovis?

A

CULLLL

127
Q

What is the most common cause of laminitis of dairy cattle?

A

hairy heel wart, caused by Treponoma denticola

128
Q

What is the tx for hairy heels wart?

A

Tetracycline in water

129
Q

PPE level ___ is the lowest and __ is the highest

A

D; A

130
Q

BVDV exists as a persistently infected animal, mucosal disease, transitional/transient infection and the virus is a member of the ____ virus family and is generally associated with ______, ________ and _______

A

Pestivirus;
early embryonic death, immunosuppressants, congenital abn

131
Q

What is prohibited drug from ELDU in cattle and other food animals?

A

Fluoroquinolones, vancomycin, metronid, and Nitrofurans

132
Q

How soon after giving prostaglandins do you expect parturition?

A

48 hours after giving it, parturition may occur anytime between 2 and 7 days but 2 days is the avg.

133
Q

what causes rumen acidosis leading to rumen ulcers?

A

Feeding high conc levels or suddenly changing the amount of conc fed can result in a drop of rumen pH below 5.5

134
Q

how can we help minimize rumen ulcers in high-producing dairy cattle?

A

feeding buffers like sodium bicarbonate

135
Q

what causes epizootic bovine abortions (EBA) aka Foothill abortions

A

Ornithodoros coriaceus tick vector
this vector can be found in fetal thymuses and causes late abortions and abortion storms in the last trimester, the cows will be healthy but the aborted fetuses will have hepatosplenomegaly, and generalized lymphadenopathy

136
Q

how can you prevent epizootic bovine abortions aka foothill abortions

A

exposure to endemic areas before breeding and/or controlling tick vector populations or prophylactic abx use in high risk regions

137
Q

What is a toxin that causes last trimester abortions and cow are usually moribund after delivery and hemorrhage?

A

Ponderosa pine needles

138
Q

high mtn disease testing results telling you they have it…

A

PAP (pulm. arterial pressure) testing done at 6,000 ft or above on animals over 12 months showing less than 40mmHg pressure

139
Q

what causes the appearance of the reticulated (Nutmeg) liver?

A

the appearance occurs bc there are red central veins and sinusoids between tan areas of swollen hepatocytes. This occurs when right sided heart failure from passive congestion of the sinusoids of hepatocellular hypoxia. Pericardial effusion causes right sided heart failure and is the case of the liver’s appearance

140
Q

What do you think this cow has?
A rancher bought these cattle a few days ago and now they are showing ataxia, head tilt, knuckling, staggering, coughing, RR abn, and have fevers. On CSF tap they all have xanthochromia, increased protein, and increased number of neutrophils.

A

Histophilus somni infection.
This is a systemic infection that may start in the resp. tract in young and stressed often transported cattle. Early tx is abx

141
Q

Mycoplasma is a common cause of _______.

A

Otitis media and externa

142
Q

what does a cow show with otitis media-externa (usually caused by M. bovis)

A

unilateral ear droop, eye ptosis on the same side as the ear droop, epiphora of that same eye, and head tilt on the affected side

143
Q

What do we see CS of a cow with polioencephalomalacia???

A

stargazing, head pressing, depression, blindness
it is caused by a thiamine deficiency

144
Q

doing a mcmasters fecal on cattle, when should you deworm?

A

Minimum of 300-400 strongyle types per gram of feces with or without any CS

145
Q

average milk produced of a holstein

A

23,000 lbs/lactation

146
Q

What criteria are used to determine if a dairy heifer is ready to be bred??

A

she is 65% of mature size at least and is cycling with a decent pelvic area and is more than 15 months old

147
Q

how long is estrus in a cow?

A

18 hours

148
Q

characteristics of mastitis milk

A

elevated pH
decrease in lactose, caesium, k
increase in Na, Cl
increased amount of SCC

149
Q

contagious mastitis pathogens

A

Strep ag
Staph aureus
mycoplasma bovis

150
Q

Environmental mastitis pathogens

A

E coli
Klebsiella
Staph pseudo
serratia
proteus
pasturella
nocardia

151
Q

C/S of milk fever

A

hypersenstivity, off feed, excitable, unable to rise, s-shaped neck, rumen stasis

152
Q

complications of a long term down cow

A

muscle damage/compartmental crush syndrome
increased incidence of LDA
mastitis
decreased milk production
increased traumatic injuries

153
Q

toxic effect of Ca

A

cardiac arrest and arrhythmias
tx: epi and magnesium

154
Q

Prevent milk fever

A

Ca:P ratio to 7:1
anionic cation ration for close up cows

155
Q

type 1 ketosis vs. type 2 ketosis

A

Type 1- spontaneous, 3-6w postpartum
type 2- ketosis
hepatic lipidosis

156
Q

Why do cows displace their abomasums?

A

decreased rumen fill and the void left by recent calving

157
Q

acid base and electrolyte disturbances associated with LDA

A

hypokalemia
hypocalcemia
metabolic alkalosis

158
Q

5 most common periparturent diseases of cattle

A

mastitis
ketosis
metritis
hepatic lipidosis
LDA

159
Q

what vaccines should adult beef cattle get prior to breeding

A

lepto
bvd
campy
ibr

160
Q

order of eruption of permanent teeth (horse

A

2.5, 3.5, 4.5

161
Q

which nerve is blocked to desensitize the maxilla and/or rostral mandible

A

Trigeminal

162
Q

What are caps?

A

deciduous teeth that have not been lost and sit on top of the permanent teeth, are lost once permanent teeth fully erupt

163
Q

core vaccines suggested by the AAEP

A

rabies
WNV
EEE/WEE
tetanus

164
Q

3 possible sources of bleeding in castration

A

improperly applied emasculators
crushing cord that is too large
movement of the horse

165
Q

what is the appropriate technique used to manipulate the mare’s cycle to expidite her transition back to cycling in the winter

A

putting them under light in the winter, continue for 60 days

166
Q

pigs housed indoors are more likely to suffer from this respiratory disease

A

actinobacillus pleuropneumonia

167
Q

pig with nose deviated to the side likely has what virus?

A

Bordetella aka atrophic rhinitis

168
Q

rules of thumb in cattle nutrition–>

A

min. of 7% of crude protein needed for proper rumen function, min of 0.5% body weight per day of long-stemmed roughage and proper rumen function, max of 7%-9% crude fat in ruminant diet

169
Q

target weaning weight is __-__% of dam’s mature bw

A

40-45%

170
Q

70% of calf grows in the last __ months of gestation

A

3 months

171
Q

how long do calves stay in hutches on dairys?

A

birth to about 6-8 weeks old

172
Q

what diet is fed to the transition group (that is the 4 week period of heifers and 3 week period for cows in the dairy before calving)

A

anionic salt ration to cause metabolic acidosis so body will draw calcium from the bones via PTH and calcium carbonate will bond with free H+ since acidic and the Ca+ left over will be free in the body to prevent hypocalcemia from smooth muscle contractions during parturition. Also need low K+ and Na+ in the forages (DCAD)

173
Q

what is the ideal pH when the anionic diet is fed to the transition group (that is the 4 week period of heifers and 3 week period for cows in the dairy before calving)

A

pH of around 5.5-6.5 is ideal.

174
Q

why do we continue giving monesin to lactating cows?

A

it is safe for lactating cows and allows for more propionate so more lactose leading to more milk production

175
Q

what is the number one abx use on dairies?

A

mastitis

176
Q

high bulk tank SCC is usually due to _____ mastitis

A

subclinical

177
Q

high forage means more acetic acid which means more ____

A

buttermilk fat

178
Q

high forage means more ______

A

acetic acid

179
Q

high starch means higher _____ which means more _____

A

propionic acid; high milk production

180
Q

increase feed density in what months?

A

summer months

181
Q

what marks the beginning of a dairy cow’s next lactation?

A

The dry period, which should be 60 days prior to expected calving (during the dry period you should use IMM tubes and feed her differently- less protein, fat and carbs then actively lactating cows!!!!!)

182
Q

dry off cow vax

A

Lepto 5-way, Viral MLV, Clostridia 7-way, E.coli mastitis, +/- Rota/corona

183
Q

what is the goal BCS of dry cow in the southeast?

A

3.0-3.25

184
Q

what are DCAD diets?

A

Dietary-Cation-Anion-Diets
which are diets that influence blood acid-base status which effects calcium homeostasis
* cation rations–> results in metabolic alkalosis which depresses tissue response to PTH and is ideal for use in the NON-PREPARTUM COWS (aka the non-transition cow group)
*anion rations–> results in metabolic acidosis so calcium carbonate can be released from the bone due to response from PTH to correct the metabolic acidosis, therefore the carbonate buffers free acid and leaves calcium in excess by itself to be used during PRE-PARTURITION aka the Transition group

185
Q

what number of SCC means infection?

A

> 200,000 cells/mL = Infection

186
Q

legal limit of SCC in bulk tank is..

A

<750,000 cells/mL

187
Q

what influences SCC?

A

Age of cow, stress on gland, breed and some genetics, infectious agents present/mastitis, stage of lactation

188
Q

major loss of contagious mastitis is clinical or subclinical, what about in environmental mastitis???

A

contagious= subclinical
enviro. = clinical mastitis

189
Q

what are the most common causative agents of mastitis?

A
  1. strep agalactiae
  2. staph aureus
  3. M. bovis
190
Q

what are some environmental mastitis pathogens?

A

Coliforms (GRAM -), strep agalactiae, strep uberis, pseudomonas, Nocardia (GRAM +), yeast

191
Q

what is an easier infection to tx for mastitis?

A

Strep agalactiae
TX is IMM infusion during lactation of dry period and dry cow mgmt

192
Q

what is the most common agent associated with heifer mastitis?

A

Coagulase neg STAPH- most common pathogen in heifers

193
Q

summer mastitis aka

A

T. pyogenes- will cause nasty abscesses of the udder, no tx kill the quarter

194
Q

what mastitis agent is zoonotic and infected individuals should be culled?

A

Nocardia infections

195
Q

why do MLV go lower on the neck than other vaccines?

A

Because the live vaccines must migrate and can cancel out the MLV when they do and this is where the lowest priced cuts of meat are

196
Q

the number one bacteria of concern in cattle is…and what is the most common CS of it?

A

Clostridium; most common CS of all clostridial infections is sudden death

197
Q

what are sources of nitrates?

A

plants, commercial fertilizers, highest level found in plants that are just about to flower

198
Q

What is more toxic, nitrate or nitrite??

A

nirite!! is more toxic

199
Q

will wilting of the plant cause decreased levels of nitrate?

A

NOOO

200
Q

how is the concentration of nitrate and cyanide different?

A

Nitrate has its higher conc. at the bottom of the stem (closer to the ground) and cyanide has more conc. at the top

201
Q

who is most susceptible to nitrate poisoning?

A

ruminants

202
Q

how does nitrate cause death from toxicity?

A

tissue anoxia since nitrite oxidizes Hgb to ferrous iron and converts to ferric iron, and converts all the Hgb to iron

203
Q

what are some signs of chronic exposure to nitrate toxicity?

A

Poor growth, abortions, Vit A def, goiter, morbidity

204
Q

brownish colored mm and darkened chocolate colored blood= ______ toxicity

A

Nitrate toxicity

205
Q

tx of nitrate toxicity–

A

Methylene blue- converts Hgb back to

206
Q

what is the test that is done to test for Nitrates?

A

Diphenylamine test, if it turns blue then the sample contains potentially dangerous levels of nitrate

207
Q

color of cattle or ruminant coat being dull and copper colored means it is likely def. in what mineral?

A

Copper

208
Q

what animal is most sensitive to salt toxicity?

A

Swine

209
Q

pathophysiology of lead toxicosis and what are some of the CS???

A

causes rupture of lysosomes and release of acids, causes GI signs first then grinding teeth, neuro signs, some twitching and head bobbing

210
Q

Cyanide MOA

A

inhibits cytochrome oxidase and causes cellular hypoxia

211
Q

Grazing stunted plants in a drought is a common cause of ___ poisoning

A

cyanide (which is usually seen with wilting plants, usually after first frost of the fall)

212
Q

MM will be BRIGHT red with this toxicity—>

A

cyanide

213
Q

rumen smelling like bitter almonds and bright red blood that clots slowly means it has what toxicity?

A

Cyanide

214
Q

Tx cyanide toxicity =

A

Sodium thiosulfate IV repeated as needed and supportive care like O2

215
Q

Test for cyanide toxicity–

A

Picrate test where the prussic acid strip is used for cyanide testing of plant material and if positive will turn bright yellow

216
Q

young or old plants have more cyanide in them?

A

young

217
Q

ALL Mycotoxins are

A

Immunosuppressive

218
Q

what are mycotoxins?

A

secondary metabolites of fungus that make a toxin in another organism

219
Q

more than ___ ppm fumonisin (a type of mycotoxin) is toxic in cattle

A

50ppm

220
Q

what mycotoxin inhibits the release of prolactin and affects the milk production because of that?

A

Ergotism

221
Q

what mycotoxin inhibits the release of prolactin and affects the milk production because of that?

A

Ergotism

222
Q

pigs sneezing with nasal discharge

A

atrophic rhinitis caused by bordetella

223
Q

how long is estrous cycle in dairy cow

A

21 days with estrus 18 hours

224
Q

name contagious mastitis pathogens

A

strep agalactiae
staph aureus
mycoplasma bovis

225
Q

type 1 ketosis

A

spontaneous and/or underfedding/pregnancy toxemia in first 3-6 weeks postpartum - respond well to treatment

226
Q

type 2 ketosis

A

fat cow/hepatic lipidosis - any cow that mobilizes fat to liver in late pregnancy that carries over into early lactation
doesnt respond well to treatment

227
Q

when does metritis in cows usually occur?

A

first 7-14 days post calving

228
Q

what would be the two most common causes for hyperexcitability in recently freshened dairy cow

A

hypocalcemia
hypomagnesemia

229
Q

Theilers disease aka idiopathic acute hepatic disease- what are the CS?

A

Acute depression, anorexia, severe icterus, photosensitization, hepatoencephalopathy, pica (means excessive swallowing)

230
Q

fetal sizes

A
  • 60 d = mouse
  • 90 d = rat
  • 120 d = small cat
  • 150 d = large cat
  • 180 d = beagle dog
231
Q

Placentomes sizes

A
  • 90 d: dime
  • 120 d: quarter
  • 150 d: half dollar
  • 180 d: silver dollar
232
Q

why cant non protein nitrogen be fed as sole protein source?

A

it causes urea toxicity

233
Q

when are the most impt nutrient requirements in cattle?

A

late pregnancy

234
Q

Target BCS of beef in what time in their reproductive status?

A

Pre-calving 60-90 days- target BCS is 5.5-6
Pre-breeding and cycling is BCS 5.0
Pregnancy exam and weaning is min BCS 4.5

235
Q

we breed back around ___ DIM and milk for ___ days of the year

A

82 DIM; 305 days of the year

236
Q

we like a ____ day dry off period

A

2 weeks dry out, 2 weeks of mammary rest and 2 weeks for colostrum

237
Q

What is the “ideal calf cycle”?

A

birth to calving is 21-24 months
hutches to weaning around 6-8 weeks old
post wean in small groups til 12-13 months old then pregnant

238
Q

how many SCC means infection?

A

about 200,000 cells/mL

239
Q

influences of SCC

A

Infectious agents, age of cow (higher with older cows), season, stress on the gland, breed/genetics, milking fraction (first milk ration has higher cell count), mastitis infection, stage of lactation (end of lactation means decreased BCS and therefore more cell count because less milk so less dilutant)

240
Q

What is the most impt hormone of the estrous cycle

A

progesterone (P4)

241
Q

what does Progesterone do and where does it come from?

A

progesterone- comes from the CL- grows and ovulates the follicle

242
Q

what is the mechanism of release of hormones in the fertility cycle?

A

When P4 (progesterone drops)- GnRH increases and comes from the hypothalamus and goes to anterior pit to cause release of FSH- follicle grows and produces estrogen which causes estrogen to spike and goes back to hypothalamus where there is a surge of GnRH and causes follicle to ovulate by causing release of LH

243
Q

how do we tx follicular cysts?

A

Prostaglandins (PGF-2) (ONLY like one week AFTER GNRH OR HCG), GnRH, HcG, progesterone/CIDR

244
Q

T/F Follicular waves are biphasic or tri-phasic in cattle but we cannot predict which wave pattern they have, so we use ov sync and re-sync protocols

A

Trueee

245
Q

what causes luteolysis???

A

Prostaglandins from the uterine tissue

246
Q

what does CIDR contain?

A

progesterone

247
Q

pigs gestation

A

3 month 3 week 3 days so about 115 days

248
Q

horse gestation- melatonin inhibits ___

A

GnRH

249
Q

goat and sheep gestation

A

110 days

250
Q

fetal stress and _____ initiates parturition

A

cortisol

251
Q

What can you give cow to relax uterus during parturition?

A

Epinephrine, blocks oxytoxin and relaxes smooth muscle (uterus) like with Dr. Christiansen in that one fetotomy case

252
Q

maternal side of placentome is ____ and fetal side is ____ and there are protein bonds holding it together for the transfer of nutrients

A

caruncle; cotyledon

253
Q

cow aborted, what samples would you collect?

A

Dam’s blood, placenta, fetus
What is the most important one? Placenta

254
Q

number one cause of fetal loss in southeast in cattle?

A

heat stress

255
Q

where do we prefer to get out ketone bodies (BHBA, Acetyloacetate, acetone, CO2)?

A

Blood and milk, NOT urine like in cats

256
Q

subclinical BHBA level of ketosis? What about more 3.1mmol/L?

A

> 1.2mmol/L is subclinical, >3.1mmol/L is clinical

257
Q

what is ketosis? how do we tx?

A

negative energy balance; Dextrose 50%, steroid (increases appetite too which is good bc already in an E deficit), propylene glycol orally- can cause ruminal acidosis so feed rumen contents from another cow
tx MINIMUM OF FOUR DAYSSSS

258
Q

colostrum neonate needs 10% bw within ______-____ hours

A

2-6 hours

259
Q

where does lepto harjo bovis hide?

A

renally, hides in renal pelvis and contaminates renal tubules; give diuretic like furosemide IV to collect urine and test for it

260
Q

lepto tx in cattle to clear the carrier state?

A

Oxytetracycline (doxycycline in dogs and humans though)

261
Q

clostridial infections produce ___ so organ will be ____

A

gas; crepitus

262
Q

what mycotoxin is illegal to be in milk for human consumption?

A

aflatoxin; more than 0.5ppb

263
Q

order of pregnancy palpation from earliest to latest

A
  1. vesicle (earliest 30 days)
  2. membrane slip
  3. fetus
    4 placentomes (around 90 days)
264
Q

.

A

.

265
Q

what does colostrometer read for?

A

measures specific gravity- high quality colostrum will have SG greater than 1.050

266
Q

Cow in estrus lasts ____ hours and we AI them after _____ detection of heat

A

18 hours; AI them after 12 hours (and she will ovulate in 24 hours)

267
Q

when does cow ovulate after estrus?

A

24 hours

FAM And Ambulatory (6 decks)

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