old questions Flashcards

1
Q

history to rule out “central vertigo”

A
  • diplopia
  • dysarthria
  • paresthesia/ numbness
  • ataxia gait/ imbalance
  • focal weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the physical maneuver to confirm peripheral vertigo?

A

Dix-Hallpike maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

risk factors of AOM?

A
  • daycare, nursery contact
  • expose to second-handed smoking
  • bottle-feeding/ shorter duration of breastfeeding, soother, pacifier
  • crowded living condition
  • any type of feeding in a supine/flat position
  • enlarged tonsils + adenoids, anatomic anomaly (e.g. cleft palate
    ?? male, white ethinicity, family hx, first nation or Inuit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Indications of ENT referral for tympanostomy

A
  • persistent effusion ( >3 months)
  • (bilateral) hearing loss
  • speech delay/ language problems
  • recurrent episodes of AOM (> 3 episodes in 6 mo, > 4 episodes in 12 mo)
  • atelectasis/ retraction of the tympanic membrane

&- cleft palate/ craniofacial malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

diagnosis criteria of panic attack

A

4 of 13 - peak in 10 minutes

STUDENTS Fear the 3Cs 
S   sweating 
T   trembling 
U   unsteadiness, dizziness 
D   DEREALIZATION 
E   excess HR, palpitation 
N  nausea 
T   tingling 
S   SOB 

Fear of death/going crazy

3Cs
choking
chest pain +/- agoraphobia
chills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

DM microvasculopathy and macrovasculopathy

A

micro

  • nephropathy
  • retinopathy
  • neuropathy

Macro-

  • CVD
  • CVA
  • PAD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

screening methods for DM microvascular diseases

A
  • Urine test for albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR)
  • neurological exam/ ankle reflex test/ monofilament testing/ vibration testing/ propioception testing
  • optometrist/ ophthalmology referral for eye exam
  • foot exam/ referral to podiatrist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

lifestyle that can cause primary hypothalamic-pituitary dysfunction and subsequent anovulation

A
  • excessive stress
  • excessive exercise
  • excessive dieting/ an eating disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What hormonal diseases/conditions could be responsible for anovulatory cycles?

A
  • polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
  • thyroid disorder
  • Cushing’s syndrome/ congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • prolactinemia/ hyperprolactinemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Clinical manifestations of cirrhosis

A
∙ Encephalopathy 
∙ Xanthelasma 
∙ Icterus 
∙ Jaundice 
∙ Fetor hapticus 
∙ Spider angioma 
∙ Gynecomastia 
∙ Muscle wasting 
∙ Bruising 
∙ Testicular atrophy 
∙ Ankle edema 
∙ Palmar erythema 
∙ Asterixis 
∙ Dupuytren‘s contracture 
∙ Leuconycia 
∙ Clubbing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ten adverse effects of SSRIs

A

CV

  • prolonged QT interval
  • hyponatremia

GI

  • dyspepsia, nausea, loss of appetite
  • gastrointestinal bleeding
  • xerostomia
Neuro-psychi
- suicidal thought
- insomnia 
- seizure 
- somnolence 
- tremor 
- asthenia (lack of energy) 
- falls and fractures (elderly, first 6 weeks)
GU
- impotence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Serotonin syndrome - symptoms

A

Fever > 38.5
Confusion/ delirium
sustained clonus/ rigidity
rhabdomyolysis

hyperreflexia 
diaphoresis
agitation/ restlessness 
inducible clonus 
side-to-side eye movements (ocular clonus)
nervousness 
insomnia 
tremor 
nausea/diarrhea 
dilated pupils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

diagnosis of serotonin syndrome

A

[Hunter’s criteria ]
Requires one of the following features or groups of features:
- spontaneous clonus;
- inducible clonus with agitation or diaphoresis;
- ocular clonus with agitation or diaphoresis;
- tremor and hyperreflexia;
- hypertonia;
- temperature above 100.4°F (38°C) with ocular or inducible clonus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Management of serotonin syndrome

A
  • withdrawal of the offending serotonergic drugs
  • provision of supportive care
    [ antidote ]
  • Cyproheptadine, a serotonin 2A antagonist, is usually recommended and is the most widely used antidote
  • Benzodiazepines may be used for control of agitation and tremor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Five classes of medications for dyslipidemia

A
Statins
Nicontinics (niacin) 
Fibrates (eg fenofibrate) 
Resins (eg cholestyramine) 
Ezitimibe (ezetrol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Inclusion criteria of polymyalgia rheumatica

A
  • Age > 50 y/o
  • duration > 2 weeks (some guideline say 1 month)
  • abrupt onset
  • morning stiffness > 45min
  • bilateral shoulder +/- pelvic girdle pain
  • elevated ESR/CRP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Exclusion criteria of polymyalgia rheumatica

A
Malignancy 
infection 
Giant cell arteritis 
inflammatory or non-inflammatory conditions 
drug induced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what condition can combine with polymyalgia rheumatica

A

giant cell arteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

treatment of polymyalgia rheumatica

A

prednisone 15-20mg daily while monitoring ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Treatment for scabies

A

Apply Permethrin 5 % cream from neck down to sole for 8-14 hours, repeat 7 days later if necessary

21
Q

Lice treatment

A

Pyrethrins (>2mo) or Permethrin apply to dry air + scalp, let sit for 10 min, rinse with cool water and avoid body exposure, repeat in 7d

22
Q

Epidemiology: Which parameters depend on disease prevalence?

A

Positive and negative predictive value (not specificity or sensitivity)

23
Q

Panic attack symptoms and diagnosis criteria

A

4 out of 13 peak in 10 minutes
- STUDENTS Fear the 3Cs -

sweating 
tremor 
unsteadiness/ dizziness 
derealization
excess HR, PALPITATION
nausea
tingling 
sob

Fear : death, going crazy

Choking
Chest pain
Chills

24
Q

Four types of antidepressants

A

∙ Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
∙ Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
∙ Benzodiazepine
∙ Tricyclinic antidepressant
∙ Monoamine oxidase inhibitor

25
Neonate with jaundice, 10 questions to ask mother
``` ∙ Complications during pregnancy ∙ Gestational diabetes ∙ Blood type (for ABO or Rh incompatibility) ∙ Breast feeding or formula ∙ Intake ∙ Birth trauma (cephalohematoma) ∙ Group B Strep status ∙ Infections ∙ Premature? ∙ Medications ∙ When jaundice started (before or after 24 hours) ```
26
Complications of phototherapy
``` ∙ Dehydration ∙ Hyperthermia ∙ Erythematous rash ∙ Loose bowel movements ∙ Retinal degeneration ```
27
Non-infections complications of strep throat (GAS)
∙ Acute rheumatic fever ∙ acute glomerulonephritis - pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections (PANDAS) (The disorders whose symptoms get worse include obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) and tic disorders such as Tourette's syndrome) ** Scarlet fever needs penicillin to treat
28
Treatment of strep throat
penicillin V or amoxicillin for 10 days
29
Noninfectious causes of macroscopic hematuria in a child
``` recurrent: IgA nephropathy, benign familial hematuria, Alport’s syndrome Acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis Systemic lupus erythematosus Henoch-Schonlein purpura Goodpasture’s disease ``` ``` Acute pyelonephritis Acute interstitial nephritis Tuberculosis Hematologic (sickle cell disease, coagulopathies von Willebrand’s disease, renal vein thrombosis, thrombocytopenia) ``` Urinary tract Bacterial or viral (adenovirus) infection–related ``` Nephrolithiasis and hypercalciuria Structural anomalies, congenital anomalies, polycystic kidney disease Trauma Tumors Exercise Medications ```
30
Causes of asymptomatic isolated | microscopic hematuria in children
``` Common Undetermined Benign familial Idiopathic hypercalciuria IgA nephropathy Sickle cell trait or anemia Transplant ``` ``` Less common Alport nephritis Post-infectious glomerulonephritis Trauma Exercise Nephrolithiasis Henoch-Schonlein purpura ```
31
clinical presentation of Hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy)
classic signs of complete mole - Vaginal bleeding - Hyperemesis - Hyperthyroidism other symptoms: Excessive uterine size Hypertension of pregnancy
32
Most important risk factor of Hydatidiform Mole
mother's age
33
clinical features of Bacterial Vaginosis
[most common cause of vaginal discharge, 50% asymptomatic] - transparent/grey thin vaginal discharge - fish odor - NO vulva/ vaginal irritation
34
diagnostic test of bacterial vaginosis
Whiff test ++ | saline wet mount shows >20% clue cells
35
treatment of bacterial vaginosis
Treat only symptomatic Increase PROM during pregnancy, avoid vaginal route Metronidazole 500mg BID for 7 days OR metronidazole 0.75% cream 5g intravaginally for 5 d
36
pathogen of chicken pox
varicella zoster virus (VZV)
37
what are the complications of chickenpox
- secondary bacterial infection (most common): e.g. pneumonia, pharyngitis, AOM, gastroenteritis - cerebral ataxia - encephalitis - fetal varicella syndrome (for pregnant women)
38
prevention/prophylaxis of chickenpox
For immunocompromised persons, pregnant women and exposed infants - varicella-zoster immune globulin, which must be given within 96 hours of exposure to be effective - A one-week course of high-dose acyclovir started early can prevent chickenpox
39
Generalized rash over trunk and limbs, along the Langer lines, 2 weeks after a herald patch on trunk can associated with flu-like symptoms the most likely diagnosis and ddx
Pityriasis rosea ``` DDx: secondary syphilis seborrheic dermatitis nummular eczema pityriasis lichenoides chronica tinea corporis viral exanthems lichen planus drug eruption ```
40
treatment of pityriasis rosea
self-limited course within a few months oral antihistamine or topical steroid for symptoms mgt phototherapy for severe cases
41
DDx with rosacea
- Acne vulgaris - photodermatitis - seborrheic dermatitis - systemic lupus erythematosus - carcinoid syndrome
42
management of rosacea
- avoid triggers - use mild cleansing agents - use photoprotection - topical metronidazole or azelaic acid or brimonidine; for papulopustular rosacea, can try topical ivermectin - ocular rosacea: lid hygiene + artificial tears +/- topical cyclosporine - severe phymatous: oral doxycycline or tetracycline
43
what is the best predictor of response to Naloxone? and what is the dosage?
Respiratory rate < 12 /min | Naloxone 0.4mg IV or 2mg intranasal q4min
44
Universal Antidotes in altered mental status
- Dextrose: 50mL of D50W or Glucagon 1mg IM - Oxygen: 100% O2 in carbon monoxide poisoning - Naloxone (Narcan): - -- 2mg initially up to 10mg - -- 0.1mg initially doubled every 2 minutes up to 10mg - Thiamine - -- given 100mg IV/IM/PO with 25g dextrose (50mL of D50W) to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy
45
Antidotes to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy
Given 100mg IV/IM/PO with 25g dextrose (50mL of D50W)
46
a/e of isotretinoin
``` Severe birth defects Miscarriage, Stillbirth Photosensitivity Dry skin, severely chapped lips depression, suicidal burning, redness, itching, or other signs of eye inflammation IBD Pruritis Dry mucous membranes nosebleeds Bone or joint pain ```
47
STEMI management
depends on duration from onset of symptoms = or < 12 hours: Reperfusion goals 1) Door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 90 min 2) Door-to-needle (fibrinolysis) goal of 30 min
48
Absolute contraindication of fibrinolysis for STEMI
Absolute contraindication: - intracranial hemorrhage - cerebral lesion - malignancy - head/facial trauma < 3 mo - ischemic stroke < 3 mo - active bleeding (excluding menses) - aortic dissection - intracranial/ intraspinal surgery < 2 mo - severe uncontrolled HTN
49
relative contraindications of fibrinolysis for STEMI
relative contraindication | - hx poorly controlled HTN