OBJECTIVES! Flashcards
parts of papez circuit involved in emotional processing?
cingulate cortex and the hypothalamus
Nociceptors exist as free nerve endings activated only when the stimulus is ___.
strong enough to cause damage.
___ nociceptors have fast responses
thermal/mechanical
___ nociceptors are myelinated
thermal/mechanical
___ nociceptors are unmeylinated
polymodal
thermal/mechanical noiceptors are assocaited with ___ pain
sharp, prickling pain
polymodal nociceptors are assocaited with
with high intensity mechanical, chemical, hot, and cold stimuli.
Nociceptive specific neurons are found in___of the spinal cord
Lamina 1
nocipceptive specific neurons have ___ receptor fields
small
nocieptive specific neurons carry
only info about noceipcetion
. Wide dynamic range neurons (WDR) are found in ___ of the spinal cord
Lamina 5
Wide dynamic range neurons carry information
from both mechanoreceptors and noiceptors
Wide dynamic range neurons have ___ receptor fields
larger
. hyperalgesia is what happens when you have increased sensitivity to the ____.
surrounding unharmed region of a damaged area
with hyperalgesia Subsequent stimuli result in the
enhanced sensation of pain
referred pain is the result of a ____
lack of nociceptive output neurons in the dorsal horn that are dedicated to visceral pain
dissociated sensory loss is when you have reduced sensation of epicritic sensation in the opposite side of the body from where you have ___.
reduced sensation of temperature and pain
Pain modulation can occur as the result of the descending pathway synapsing with
an opiate containing interneuron
The opiate containing interneruon synapses with the ascending pathway in the dorsal horn releasing enkephalin that dampens
both presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons
first neurons that get binocular input are in the ___
striate cortex, not the lgn
X optic nerve —>
complete scotoma
X optic chiasm:
bitemporal hemiopia.
X optic tract on the right
lose left visual field
lesion of optic radiations
Quadrantanopia
leison of occipital cortex typically causes ___ hemianopias
macular sparing
If Meyer’s loop (temporal pathway) is lesioned, the Quadrantanopia is ____ superior
if Baum’s loop (parietal pathway) is lesioned in the optic radiations, the Quadrantanopia is ___
inferior
lgn cells are binocular or monocular?
monocular.. they have functional segregation
The V2 thin stripes contain __ cells.
color
Common properties of receptive fields in the retina and LGN (3)
center surround organization
mix of cells with on/off center
retinotopically ordered
The cell bodies of most mossy fibers entering the cerebellum are located in the ____
pons
The expansion of the lateral cerebellar hemisphere in humans indicates that the cerebellum is capable of ___
contributing to more than just motor function
___ shows prominent activation during
extremely difficult problem solving tasks in humans?
Dentate nucleus
The appearance of oscillating movements of the hand while reaching toward a target is
referred to as ___
intention tremor
The use of ethanol to control symptoms of essential tremor is effective because ethanol (2)
- inhibits normal excitation
- facilitates GABAergic function
REM amount ____ throughout the night
increases
Stage __ lessens throghuout the night
4
order of sleep cycle?
1-2-3-4-rem-2-3-4-rem-2-3-4..
order of amount of time we spend in each sleep stage? from most to least
stage
2
3/4
rem
1
during alert what waves do you have
beta
during awake but drowsy what waves do you have
alpha
during stage 1 what waves do you have
theta waves
during stage 2 what waves do you have
sleep spindles and k complexes
during stage 3 and 4 what waves do you have
delta
during stage __ you have parasympathetic control, lower vital signs, resotratorive sleep
4
___ tone dominantes during rem
syympathetic
stage 2
low voltage, fast, random activity
awake but drowsy, alpha waves
the motor sysytem is ___ organized
heirarchially
highest levels in motor system heirarchy are concerned with
complex planning and selection (at the expense of time!)
motor system is ___ segregated
functionally
____ local circuit neurons control more dextrious mvoement
short distance (lateral)
Lateral premotor cortex is involved in
selection of motor responses based one xternal cues
Medial premotor cortex is involved with
learned sequences, repsonse to intenral cues
supplementary mtoor area and the cingulate motor area are found in the
medial premotor cortex
pre-sma is invovled with
learning sequencies
define association cortex
everything that is not a primary motor, primary sensory, or premotor area
association areas receives inputs from multiple areas and tie them together in some manner that was not possible in the
intiial sensory areas
generate more meaningful repsonses
all neocortical association areas have at least ___ layers
5, most have 6
facial recognition neurons are located in the
fusiform gyrus (temporal lobe)
planning neurons are found in the
frontal cortex
attention neurons are found in the
parietal lobe
reach neurons are found in the
parietal lobe
grasp neurons are a part of the ___ pathway
what/ventral
mirror neurons are found in the
inferior frontal gyrus
instructed delay neurons around found in the
prefrontal cortex
Brodmann Areas represent a particular anatomical structure corresponded to a particular ____.
function
Primary emotions are reflexive and involve the (3)
amygdala, hypothalamus, and PAG
what is included in the papez circuit
___ is the synapse site of the limbic system in the thalamus
mediodorsal n.
primary emotions are linked with ___ reflexes
autonomic
Fear response involves direct connections from
thalamus to amygdala
Amygdala connects to __ and __ for fight-or-flight response
PAG and LC
Stimulation of ___ PAG = fight-or-flight,
Dorsal
lesion of Dorsal PAG
affective defense & “sham rage”
lesion fo ventral pag
quiet, biting
All major emotion structures are connected to
the __
PAG
secondary emotions and involve the ___
cortical limbic structures
fear response
thalamus -> amygdala –>
ACC (upstream) and the PAG and LC (downstream pathways)
fear response
Memory of event is encoded in the__ and __
amygdala and cortex
Risk factor for depression: No ____ control of amygdala = increased fear and anxiety.
anterior cingulate control
seeing pain ifnlicted on others activates what pain system
medial pain system and lateral pain system
when asked to rate unpleasantness of a noxious heat simtulus
they activated the ___ and ___
acc and PAG (=medial pain system)
what does the medial pain system include?
- acc
- anterior mCC
- amygdala
- anteriro insula
- midline and intralaminar thalamus
what are the major functions of the medial pain system? (5)
- enable limbic system to assign emotion weight to stim.
- anticipation/learning
- nocifensive behavior
- pain empathy
- pain inhibition
___ nociceptors have fast responses
thermal/mechanical
___ nociceptors are myelinated
thermal/mechanical
___ nociceptors are unmeylinated
polymodal
thermal/mechanical noiceptors are assocaited with ___ pain
sharp, prickling pain
polymodal nociceptors are assocaited with
with high intensity mechanical, chemical, hot, and cold stimuli.
Nociceptive specific neurons are found in___of the spinal cord
Lamina 1
Electrical stimulation of___ or ___results in the inhibition of dorsal horn neurons that respond to noxious stimulation.
periaquedcutal gray or rostroventral medulla
Electrical stimulation in either the PAG or rostroventral medulla results in the inhibition of dorsal horn neurons that respond to noxious stimulation.
this effect cna be eliminated with X of the
dorsolateral funiculus (which is carrying this descending information)
Administration of low doses of opiates directly into __ and ___ produce analgesia
PAG and rostroventral medulla
The descending inhibition of spinothalamic tract neurons appears to be mediated by the activation of ____ interneurons in the dorsal horn.
enkephalin
The descending axons of serotonergic and noradrenergic neurons from the nucleus raphe contact (2)
- dendrites of ALS neurons
- inhbiitory neurons in superficial dorsal horn
The ___ contains a high density of enkephalin- and dynorphin-containing interneurons
superficial dorsal horn
opiates and opioid peptides regulate nociceptive transmission by releasing
glutamate, substance P, and other transmitters
gp receive input to and from areas projecting back to prefrontal areas involved in ____
short term memory
esion at Wilbrand’s Knee looks like
Junctional Syndrome or Ant.
Chiasmal Syndrome = complete loss of one eye
+ sup. field defect in other eye, “pie in the sky”
* Autonomic Dysreflexia with SCI =
extreme blood pressure swings (240/160) + low heart rate
The “indirect pathway” from cortex to spinal cord enables ___ postural adjustments.
feed-forward
The “indirect pathway” from cortex to spinal cord plays an important role in ___
weight shifts
indirect pathway Indirect: brainstem UMNs –> anteromedial white matter (rubrospinal and extrapyramidal tracts) –> interneurons –> ___ muscles
axial and proximal muscles
Long distance interneurons are medial or ventral
medial
Long distance interneurons are medial, go to ___ muscles
proximal
Short distance interneurons are lateral, go to ___ muscles
distal
direct pathway goes to ___ muscles
distal
Most direct corticomotor innervation comes from the___
primary motor cortex (M1)
in the cortex Motor units are controlled by___ or ___ cells
Betz cells or other large, non-Betz pyramidal cells
Lateral premotor cortex is involved in
selection of motor responses based one xternal cues
Medial premotor cortex is involved with
learned sequences, repsonse to intenral cues
supplementary mtoor area and the cingulate motor area are found in the
medial premotor cortex
pre-sma is invovled with
learning sequencies
3 association areas?
i. Pre-SMA: learning sequences ii.Parietal and Temporal cortex - Dorsal pathway - Ventral pathway i. Prefrontal cortex: decision making, working memory, monitoring outcomes
____ areas are not “cortical motor areas” even though they’re in the cortex.
association
facial recognition neurons are located in the
fusiform gyrus (temporal lobe)
planning neurons are found in the
frontal cortex
attention neurons are found in the
parietal lobe
reach neurons are found in the
parietal lobe
grasp neurons are a part of the ___ pathway
what/ventral
mirror neurons are found in the
inferior frontal gyrus
instructed delay neurons around found in the
prefrontal cortex
Brodmann Areas represent a particular anatomical structure corresponded to a particular ____.
function
what kind of pores do electrical synapses have? what do they let in
very large pores for unselective ion diffusion
describe the 2nd epsp after facilitation
2nd EPSP larger than the 1st because Ca clearance is slower than Ca entry into cell
Vesicle release is quantal/discrete: each vesicle =
1 mini end plate potential
how do miniend plate potentials cause depolarization?
Many MEPPs make up the endplate potential, EPP, causing depolarization
EPSP & IPSP amplitude & direction depend on
ion permeability and membrane voltage
chemical syanspes provide potentiation for
- excitation and inhbiiton
- plasticity and remodeling
how many chemical transmitters can a single neuron release?
many
synaptic potentials are passive events that become progressively smaller at
greater distances ro
glutamate binds to ___ receptors
metabotropic and ionotropic
gaba binds to ___ receptors
ionotropic and metabotropic
clonic seizures involve
repetitive movements (like shaking)
tonic clonic seizures involve
start as tonic, then become clonic
when do febrile seizures occur
occurring in childhood after 1 month of age
what are febrile seizures associated with?
associated with a febrile illness not caused by CNS infection
no hx of previous seizures & not acutely symptomatic
febrile seizure is a ___ channelopathy
Na 1.1
Generalized Epilepsy with Febrile Seizures Plus invovles mutations in
SCN1B or SCN1A
with Generalized Epilepsy with Febrile Seizures Plus you get a loss of
loss of fast inactivation –> Na channel gain
of function –> persistent Na current
with Severe Myoclonic Epilepsy of Infancy you get a loss of
loss of high frequency action potential --\> loss of inhibitory function of GABAergic cortical interneurons & Pukinje cells --\> seizures & ataxia
what is the range of severity of Na 1.1 channelpathies?
sx of Benign Familial Neonatal Convulsion
brief generalized and partial seizures that usual resolve by age 6 weeks
Ca and Cl Channelopathies in Epilepsy Both can lead to
idiopathic generalized epilepsy
Antiepileptic drugs decrease the ___ of neurons
hyper-excitability
2 mechanism in which antielipetic drugs work?
- block Na channels
- increase inhibitory neurons via GABA
wjhat regulates the function of Na and Ca channels?
B subuniots
ictal refers to
seizure period or events due to seizure
aura is ictal or preictal?
ictal
prodrome is precital or ictal?
preictal
variations of simple partial seizures?
with:
- motor signs
- with somatosensory sx
- ANS sx
- psychic sx
what is the pathophysiology of seizures with SMEI?
loss of high frequency AP —> loss of inhibiotry function of gabaeric cortical interneurons –> seizures
to tx SMEI you have to reestablish
gabergic transmission
how do benzos work for SMEI?
inc response of post synaptic gaba
how does tiagabine work for SMEI?
dec reuptake of GABA
tx of febrile plus involves
antipletpic meds that potentially bind tommutant channels and stabilize folding of proteins
K channelpathies mostly invovle cells with __ current
M current (close to resting ptoential and is regualted by msucarnic and other g protein)
with tympanometry
In conductive hearing losses more sound is ____ then in the normal middle ear.
reflected
Pathologies that result in conductive losses:
- otitis media
- otoschlerosis
- ear wax build up
High frequencies are represented ___ in the nuclei
dorsally
Within area AI, neurons of similar best frequency are arrayed
in a strip or belt-like
Within area AI, neurons of similar best frequency are arrayed in a strip or belt-like
structure that runs perpendicular to the___ axis.
high-to-low
frequency tonotopic
___-dimensional spatial organization in
the auditory cortex.
three
what did patch clamp recording show?
provided evidence for single channels
what is different about K channel and Na channel properties?
K channels have longer latency time and longer duration
also obviously different dierection
(Na on left, K on right)
charactersitics that vary with K channels
- low voltage vs. high voltage activation (voltage dependence)
- how fast the population reaches maximum conductance (rate of activation)
- how fast they inactivate (some dont even inactivate)
BK K+ channels have ___ inactivation
fast
___ and ___ are nonainactivating K channels
IK and SK
order of channel activation
inactivation pattern of Kv4.1 channels?
inactivate rapdily after depolarization
channelpathies in voltage gated Ca channels
congential stationary night blindness
familial hemiplegic migraine
episodic ataxia type 2
channelpathies in Na channels
generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures
channelpathies in K channels
benign familial neonatal convulsion
what toxins block Na channels?
ttx and saxitoxin
what toxins inactivate Na channels?
Batrachotoxin (frogs)
what does a-toxin do?
prolongs the duration of Na channels
what does b-toxins do?
shift voltage activation of Na channels
which toxins blod K channels?
apaminin (bees) and dendrotoxin (wasps)
what does TEA block?
K channels and AcH receptors
What blocks Ca channels?
ω-conotoxins (cone snails) and ω-agatoxin (spiders) block Ca channels
active ion transports work ___ a electrochemical gradient
against
how do active ion transporters and channels differ?
active ion transporters having slow binding and unbinding
also are slower transport than channels
w-conotoxins blocks ___ channels
n type Ca
w-agatoxin blocks ___ channels
P/Q type Ca channels
____ form a compelx with the ion they transport
active ion transporters
how do ion exchangers work?
they don’t use energy
but trade an intracellular ion for an extracellular one
how do ion co-transporters work?
transport two or more moelcules in the SAME DIRECTION ACROSS A MEMBRANE
what do neurons of the olfactory epithelium need to survive?
contact with & tropic support from olfactory bulb to survive
what layers in the olfactroy bulb go right to the olfactory cortex
mitral and tufted cells
Odors are identified by overall activation pattern of
glomeruli across the whole bulb
Taste buds are all on ___.
papillae
Each bud has ___ receptor & basal (stem) cells
50-100
Microvilli on ___ taste cells _get initial stimulus _
Type II
Microvilli on Type II taste cells get initial stimulus –> gap junction –> ___ cells
type III
Pattern code theory of taste encoding
tastes are encoded by differential firing pattern across a population of axons.
what supports pattern code theory of taste encoding
supported by single axons responding to many different
primary stimuli, although they have a maximal response
to only one stimulus.
what is the labeled line theory of taste encoding
each neuron/axon is responsible for one specific taste.
what supports the labeled line theory of taste encoding
specific gene knockouts that can rescue
or delete the perception of individual taste qualities.
ex. deletion of PLCβ2 causes loss of sucrose, glutamate, and quinine tastes.
Bulbar neurons project to the___
piriform cortex
All of the G protein activating receptors have a common tertiary structure with___ transmembrane domains
7
Neurons expressing a particular OR are located where?
they are limited to a particular region (or zone) of the epithelium.
Within a zone, neurons expressing a particular OR can be either:
homogeneously distributed or have a clustered distribution pattern.
olfactory neurons are ___ tuned
broadly
where is there pattern activation in response to odorants?
- in the epihtelium
- in the bulb
A single chemical would be composed of how many odotypes?
many
what does the solitary n. projec tto
- vpm
- hypothalamus
- amygdala
what do all taste fields respond to?
all tastants
each___ is most sensitive to a particular taste quality.
taste field
disadvantages to CT
- ionizing radiation
- not as good for soft tissue
- lower spatial resolution
disadvantages to MRI
- long study duration
- no ferromagnetic or electronic devices
- small as hell – claustrophobia
on MRS, creatine indciates
glial
on MRS, lactate indicates
ischemia
limitations of FMRI includes
spatial and temporal resolution
disadvantages of PET?
- need a cyclotron to make radioisotope
- radiation exposure
what are 5 applications of imaging mdoalities?
- map nml brain development
- alzheimers disease
- image guieded neurosurgery
- schizopehnia
- pain )in high vs. low sensitvity pts)
advantages of pet?
functional imaging
physiological variables can be determined
what to use when looking at brain perfusion?
pet
what to use when looking at metabolism?
PET
what to use when looking at chemical structure?
MRI
a ___ is applied with MRS
RF pulse
on MRS ___ is raised in tumor tissue
choline
what imaging modalities have fairly poor spatial resolution
pet
FMRI
ct
with studies can provide functional imaging
pet and mri
disorders to study with ct
hemorrhages, generalized atrophy
disorders to study with mri
tumor
demyination
degenerate disorders
disorders to study with pet
psychiatric/addictive/degenerative disorders
epilepsy
