Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Shelf Exam Study Materials > OBGYN UWorld Facts > Flashcards

OBGYN UWorld Facts Flashcards

1
Q

PPD2 w/bilateral breast tenderness, warmth, redness, and tense ==> dx?

A
  • likely breast engorgement
  • most common during first 24-72h after delivery due to milk accumulation
  • usually resolves @ 3-5 days
  • tx = cool compresses, anti-inflammatory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mastitis presentation

A
  • fever
  • unilateral, isolated area of warmth, redness, tenderness on breast
  • due to plugged milk ducts + infection
  • tx = anti-staphylococcal agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sheehan syndrome presentation

A
  • ischemic necrosis (usually associated w/peri-partum bleeding) ==> hypopituitarism
  • hypopituitarism ==>
    • decreased prolactin ==> lactation failure
    • hypothyroidism ==> lethargy, weight gain,etc.
    • hypogonadism/amenhorrhea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Common causes of hypopituitarism after pregnancy

A
  • sheehan sydnrome
  • lymphocytic hypophysitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lymphocytic hypophysitis presentation

A
  • H/A
  • visual disturbance
  • hypopituitarism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most accurate dating method

A
  • first-trimester US w/crown rump length
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Management of hypothyroidism during pregnancy

A
  • Most women will require increased dose of levothyroxine, esp. during first trimester
  • usually frequently check TSH, every 2-3 months
  • usually elevated levels of total T3/T4 due to increased TBG
  • important to manage hypothyroidism b/c can lead to defects in fetus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Early deceleration definition and etiology

A
  • Early =
    • symmetric w/contraction
    • nadir of deceleration corresponds to peak of contraction
    • gradual = >30s from onset to nadir
  • Etiology
    • fetal head compression
    • can be normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Late develeration definition and etiology

A
  • Late
    • delayed compared to contraction
    • nadir occurs after peak of contraction
    • gradual - >30s from onset to nadir
  • etiology
    • uteroplacental insufficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Variable deceleration definition and etiolgy

A
  • Variable
    • can be, but not necc., associated with contractions
    • abrupt -
    • decrease >15/min over >15s (but less than 2 min)
  • etiology
    • cord compression
    • oligohydramnios
    • cord prolapse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Differential diagnosis of vaginitis

A
  • bacterial vaginosis = gardnerella vaginalis
  • trichomoniasis = trichomonas vaginalis
  • candida vaginitis = candida albicans
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bacterial vaginosis: exam findings, lab/wet mount findings, tx

A
  • Exam
    • thin, off-white discharge w/fishy odor
    • no inflammation
  • Lab
    • pH>4.5 (basic)
    • clue cells
    • positive whiff test = amine odor w/KOH
  • Tx = metronidazole (w/out partner tx)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Trichomoniasis: exam findings, lab/wet mount findings, tx

A
  • Exam
    • thin, yellow-green, malodorous, frothy discharge
    • vaginal inflammation
  • Lab
    • pH > 4.5
    • motile trichomonads
  • Tx
    • metronidazole + sexual partner tx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Candida vaginalis (yeast infection): exam findings, lab/wet mount findings, tx

A
  • Exam
    • thick, cottage cheese discharge
    • vaginal inflammation
  • Lab
    • normal pH (3.8-4.2)
    • pseudohyphae
  • tx
    • oral fluconazole
    • intravaginal nystatin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Secondary amenorrhea definition

A
  • absence of menses for >=3 cycles or >=6 months in women who menstruated previously
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Evaluation of secondary amenorrhea

A
  1. Pregnancy test
  2. If negative + hx of prior uterine procedure or infection ==> hysteroscopy
  3. If negative w/out uterine procedure or infection hx ==> check prolactin, TSH, FSH
    1. Increased prolactin ==> brain MRI
    2. Increased TSH ==> hypothyroidism
    3. Increased FSH ==> premature ovarian failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Baby born with microcephaly, hypoplasia of diastal phalanges of fingers/toes, excess hair, & cleft palate ==> dx?

A
  • fetal hydantoin syndrome = small body size, microcephaly, dital hypoplasia, midface hypoplasia, hirsutism, cleft palate,, rib anomalies, developmental delay
  • associated w/exposure to anticonvulsant medication during fetal development
  • esp. phenytoin and carbamazepine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Presentation of congenital syphilis

A
  • rhinitis
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • skin lesions
  • later findings…
    • interstitial keratitis
    • hutchunson teeth
    • saddle nose
    • saber shins
    • deafness/CNS invovlement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Presentation of fetal alcohol syndrome

A
  • midface hypoplasia
  • microcephaly
  • stunted growth
  • CNS damage ==>
    • hyperactivity
    • cognitive disability
    • learning disability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dx and risks of PCOS

A
  • PCOS
    • suspected in any women with menstrual irregularity and clinical/biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism
    • no need to see ovarian cysts to make dx
  • unopposed estrogen ==> increased risk for endometrial carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Approach to management of endometriosis

A
  1. suspected endometriosis ==>
  2. if no contraindications or immediate need for dx ==> NSAIDs +/- combined hormonal contraceptives
    1. if no improvement ==> laparascopy
  3. if following conditions, proceed directly to laparoscopy ==>
    1. contraindications to medical therapy
    2. need for dx
    3. exclude malignancy or adnexal mass
    4. treat infertility
    5. urinary tract/bowel obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Presentation/risks of endometriosis

A
  • usually affects mulliparous women age 25-35
  • ectopic endometrial tissue @: ovaries, ant/post cul-de-sac, broad ligaments, uterosacral ligmanets
    • also @ fallopian tubes, sigmoid colon, appendix, round ligmanets
  • often dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, chronic pelvic pain that is worse before the onset of menses
  • pelvic exam:
    • rectovaginal tenderness
    • tenderness w/movement of uterus
  • can lead to infertility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Indications for prophylactic anti-D immune globulin administration (for unsensitized RH-neg pregnant patient)

A
  • @ 28-32 weeks
  • w/in 72hours of delivery of Rh-positive infant or spontaneous, threatened or induced abortion
  • ectopic pregnancy
  • hydatidiform molar pregnancy
  • chorionic villus samping, amniocentesis
  • abdominal trauma
  • 2nd and 3rd trimester bleeding
  • external cephalic version
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Major types of vaginal cancer

A
  • squamous cell carcinoma
  • clear cell adenocarcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Squamous cell vaginal cancer: epidemiology, risk factors, location, clinical features

A
  • Age > 60
  • Risk factors
    • HPV 16/18
    • Hx of cervial dysplasia/cancer
    • cigarette use
  • Location: upper 1/3 of posterior vaginal wall
  • Clinical features
    • malodorous vaginal discharge
    • postmenopausal or postcoital vaginal bleeding
    • irregular mass, plaque, ulcer on vagina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Clear cell adenocarcinoma: Epidemiology, Risk factors, location, clinical features

A
  • Age
  • Risk factors
    • in utero exposure to diethylstilbestrol
  • location: upper 1/3 of anterior vaginal wall
  • clinical
    • malodorous vaginal discharge
    • postmenopausal or postcoital vaginal bleeding
    • irregular mass, plaque, ucler on vagina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

General presentation of uterine fibroids (leiomyoma)

A
  • uterine leiomyoma = benign smooth muscle cell tumor of myometrium
    • most common pelvic tumor found in women
    • higher rates in African American women
  • can cause extrinsic compression of bladder/colon ==> sx of urinary frequency or constipation
  • can distort/enlarge uterus
  • ==> heavy/prolonged menstrual bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Raloxifene: MOA, use, contraindications

A
  • MOA = mixed agonist/antagonist of estrogen receptors
    • @ breast/vaginal tissue = antagonist
    • @ bone = agonist
  • use = first-line in prevention of osteoporosis
    • decreases breast cancer risk
  • risks/contraindications
    • increased risk of thromboembolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Definition and management of IUFD

A
  • IUFD = death of fetus in utero occuring after 20 weeks and before onset of labor
  • after dx of IUFD (lack of cardiac activity on US) ==> coagulation profile to check for DIC
    • low-normal fibrinogen can indicate developing consumptive coagulopathy
  • if coagulation derangement is suspected ==> immediate delivery
  • if coagulation parameters are normal ==> expectant management vs. induction based on patient preference
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Common liver disorders of pregnancy (3)

A
  • intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
  • HELLP syndrome
  • acute fatty liver of pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy: presentation, lab abnormalities

A
  • presentation: intense pruritis
  • laboratory abnormalities
    • elevated bile acids
    • elevated liver aminotransferases
  • ICP = dx of exclusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

HELLP syndrome: presentation, lab abnormalities

A
  • presentation
    • Pre-E
    • RUQ pain
    • N/V
  • lab abnormalities
    • hemolysis (elevated bili’s)
    • moderate elevation in aminotransferases
    • thrombocytopenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy: presentation, lab abnormalities

A
  • presentation
    • malaise
    • RUQ pain
    • N/V
    • sequelae of liver failure
  • lab abnormalities
    • hypoglycemia
    • mildly elevated liver aminotransferases
    • elevated bilirubin
    • possibly DIC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Presentation of pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP)

A
  • skin condition that develops during 3rd trimester
  • red papules within striae with sparing of umbilicus
    • sometimes extend to extremities
    • palms, soles, face are rarely involved
  • no lab or liver abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Initial step in management with decreased fetal movement

A
  • non-stress tess
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Criteria for reactive/nonreactive NST

A
  • w/in 20 mins: at least 2 accelerations > 15bpm for at least 15s = reactive
  • nonreactive if those are not met
    • most common cause = fetal sleep cycle
    • nonreactive ==> vibroacoustic stimulations to awake fetus and try again
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Normal amniotic fluid index

A

between 5-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio meaning

A
  • test that can be run on amniotic fluid and is an indicator of fetal lung maturity
    *
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Types of spontaneous abortion

A
  • Threatened
  • Incomplete, inevitable, missed
  • Septic
40
Q

Management of threatened abortion

A
  • expectant management until either:
    • symptom resolution OR
    • progression to inevitable, incomplete, missed abortion
41
Q

Management of incomplete, inevitable, or missed abortion

A
  • hemodynamically unstable, heavy bleeding: surgical evacuation (e.g. dilation and suction curettage)
  • hemodynamically stable, mild bleeding: expectant management, PGs, or surgical evacuation
42
Q

Management of septic abortion

A
  • blood and endometrial cultures
  • broad-spectrum antibiotics
  • surgical evacuation of uterine contents
43
Q

Severe features in Pre-E

A
  • BP >160/110
    • on 2 occasions 4 hours apart w/bed rest
  • thrombocytopenia
  • serum Cr > 1.1 or doubling of serum Cr
  • elevated transaminases
  • pulmonary edema
  • new-onset visual or cerebral symptoms
44
Q

Treatment of hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy

A
  • IV hydralazine and labetalol
  • oral nifedipine
45
Q

Criteria for dx of PID

A
  • fever > 38C
  • leukocytosis
  • elevated ESR
  • purulent cervical discharge
  • adnexal tenderness
  • cervical motion tenderness
  • lower abdominal tenderness
46
Q

Management of PID

A
  • if stable and can take PO meds, can be managed as an outpatient
  • hospitalization and parenteral antibiotics recommended for:
    • high fever
    • no response to oral abx
    • inability to take PO abx 2/2 N/V
    • pregnancy
    • concerns about compliance
  • IV abx regimens for inpatients:
    • cefoxitin or cefotetan/doxycycline +
    • clindamycin/gentamycin
47
Q

Missed AB: clinical presentation, cervix, US findings

A
  • clinical
    • variable from no sx to light vaginal bleeding
    • decrease of pregnancy sx
  • cervix = closed
  • US
    • nonviable fetus
48
Q

Inevitable AB: clinical presentation, cervix, US findings

A
  • clinical
    • vaginal bleeding, uterine cramps
    • possible intrauterine fetus w/heartbeat
  • cervix = open
  • US = fetus with possible heartbeat
49
Q

Incomplete AB: clinical presentation, cervix, US findings

A
  • clinical
    • vaginal bleeding w/passage of large clots or tissue
    • uterine cramps
    • products of concetion often visualized in dilated cervical os
  • cervix = open
  • US findings = products of conception often in cervix
50
Q

Threatened AB: clinical presentation, cervix, US findings

A
  • clinical
    • variable amount of vaginal bleeding
    • pregnancy can proceed to viable birth
  • cervix = closed
  • US = viable preganancy
51
Q

Septic AB: clinical presentation, cervix, US

A
  • clinical
    • fever, malaise, signs of sepsis
    • foul-smelling vaginal discharge, CMT, uterine tenderness
    • rarely occurs after SAB, usually with induced AB
  • cervix = usually open
  • US = retained products of conception
52
Q

Approach to AUB in post-menopausal women

A
  • high risk for endometrial cancer ==>
    • endometrial sampling OR
    • transvaginal US
53
Q

Major causes of AUB in pre-menopausal women

A
  1. Rule-out pregnancy w/serum B-hCG
  2. Structural causes:
    1. fibroids
    2. adenomyosis
    3. endometrial polyp
  3. Non-structural causes
    1. coagulopathy
    2. infection
  4. Ovulatory dysfunction: prolactinoma, PCOS, thyroid disorder, eating disorder, severe weight loss
54
Q

Evaluation of AUB in pre-menopausal women

A
  1. CBC, coag studies, TSH
  2. Prolactin, androgens, FSH, LH
  3. Pelvic US
  4. Endometrial sampling for persistent symptoms, age > 45, risk factors for endometrial cancer
55
Q

B-hCG discriminatory zone definition

A
  • serum B-hCG = 1,500 - 2,000
  • levels at which an intrauterine pregancy should be seen on TVUS
56
Q

Quant B-hCG purpose

A
  • evaluate pregnancies of unknown location and/or SABs
  • B-hCG usuall doubles every 48hours in viable pregnancies, but does not in ectopic or nonviable pregnancies
57
Q

Method for evaluation of possible cervical incompetence

A
  • TVUS to measure cervical length
  • CL > 25mm @ 24 weeks
  • CL
58
Q

Clinical presentation of congenital rubella

A
  • sensorineural hearing loss
  • illectual disability
  • cardiac anomalies
  • cataracts, glaucoma
59
Q

Presentation of endometritis

A
  • fever, uterine tenderness in post-partum period
  • often assoc. w/foul-smelling lochia
  • risk factors
    • prolonged ROM/labor
    • operative baginal delivery
    • c-section
60
Q

Typical presentation/managment of ruptured ectopic

A
  • positive B-hCG with empty uterus
  • lightheadedness, diffuse abdominal pain, adnexal tenderness
  • hemodynamic instability
  • typical management involves surgical evaluation
61
Q

Endometritis causal organisms

A
  • typically polymicrobial
    • gram positive
    • gram negative
    • aerobic
    • anaerobic
62
Q

Tx of endometritis

A

IV clindamycin and gentamicin

63
Q

Vasa previa vs. Placenta previa

A
  • both painless antepartum hemorrhage
  • vasa previa = fetal vessels cross fetal membranes in lower segment of uterus between fetus and internal cervical os
    • ==> rapid deterioration of fetal heart tracing once starts bleeding
64
Q

Advice regarding vaccines right before and during pregnancy

A
  • women should avoid live vaccines immediately before/during pregnancy
    • e.g. MMR, rubella
  • women given rubella vaccine relatively close to pregnancy have not shown adverse effects
65
Q

Cervical cancer screening guidelines

A
  • immunocompromised individuals
    • @ onset of sexual intercouse
    • every 6 months for first year then annually
    • 21-29
      • cytology every 3 years
  • 30-65
    • cytology every 3 years OR
    • cytology plus HPV every 5 years
  • >65 = no screening if prev. negative on screening
  • hysterectomy (w/cervix removed)
    • no screening of no hx of precancerous/cancerus lesion and no exposure to DES in utero
66
Q

Rh-negative mother anti-D immune globulin administration timing and dosing

A
  • first dose @ 28 weeks + repeat dose w/in 72hours of delivery
  • standard dose = 300 micrograms
  • increased dosing may be required after delivery, placental abruption, or procedures
  • Kleihauer-Betke test used to determine dose
67
Q

Kleihauer-Betke test procedure

A
  • used to calculate neccesary Rhogam dose
  • maternal serum on slide
  • apply acidic solution ==> lysing of adult RBCs ==> “ghost cells”
  • fetal RBCs remain brightly colored
  • dose calculated based on % of fetal cells remaining
68
Q

Test to confirm IUFD

A

realt time US to demonstrate absence of fetal cardiac activity

69
Q

Characteristics of aromatase deficiency

A
  • caused by absence/poor function of aromatase = enzyme that converts androgens into estrogens
  • masculinization of mother during pregnancy that resolves with delivery
  • if XX, normal internal female genitalia, but with virilization of external genitalia
    • clitoromegaly
    • delayed puberty
    • undetectable circulating estrogens
    • polycystic ovaries
    • osteoporosis
70
Q

CAH charactericteristics

A
  • commonly: 21-a-hydroxylase deficiency
  • leads to salt wasting
  • can lead to virilization in females
71
Q

Characteristics of McCune-Albright syndrome

A
  • triad: cafe-au-lait, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, autonomous endocrine hyperfxn
  • can lead to gonadotropin-independent precocious puberty
72
Q

Kallman syndrome characteristics

A
  • hypogonadotropic hypogonadism with anosmia
  • leads to delayed puberty
  • in females: low/absent LH and FSH
73
Q

Management of asymptomatic bacturia/acute cystitis in pregnancy

A
  • Nitrofurantoin for 5-7days OR
  • Amox or Amox-Clav for 3-7 days OR
  • Single-dose Fosfomycin
  • AVOID:
    • fluoroquinolones in all trimesters
    • avoid TMP-SMX in 1st and 3rd trimester
74
Q

Genital warts cause, appearance, tx

A
  • cause = HPV
  • clusters of pink lesions on genitalia
  • tx w/trichloroacetic acid or podophyliin in office
75
Q

Types of prenatal testing for aneuploidy + timing, adv./disadv.

A
  • first-trimester combined test = PAPP, B-hCG, nuchal transluceny
    • 9-13 weeks
  • second-trimester quad screen = a-fetoprotein, B-hCG, inhibin A, estriol
    • 15-20 weeks
  • chorionic villouis sampling ==> karyotype/dx
    • 10-13 weeks
  • amniocentesis ==> karyotype/dx
    • 15-20 weeks
  • second trimester US ==> fetal anatomy
    • 15-20 weeks
  • cell-free fetal DNA
    • >10 weeks
76
Q

Major disorders of sexual development

A
  • complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
  • mullerian agenesis
  • transverse vaginal septum
  • turner syndrome
77
Q

Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome: karyotype, cause, reproductive organs, breast development, axillary/pubic hair

A
  • XY w/X-linked mutation of androgen receptor
  • externally female appearing, absent uterus/upper vagina, cryptorchid testes
    • breast development
  • minimal/absent axillary/pubic hair
78
Q

Mullerian agenesis: karyotype, cause, reproductive organs, breast development, axillary/pubic hair

A
  • XX w/out formation of mullerian ductal system
  • externally female appearing, absent or rudimentary uterus/upper vagina; normal ovaries
    • breast development
  • normal axillary/pubic hair
79
Q

Transverse vaginal septum: karyotype, cause, reproductive organs, breast development, axillary/pubic hair

A
  • XX w/malformation of urogenital sinus and mullerian ducts
  • externally female appearing, normal uterus uterus, abnormal vagina, normal ovaries
    • breast development
  • normal axillary/pubic hair
80
Q

Tamoxifen MOA and risks

A
  • MOA: mixed estrogen agonist/antagonist
  • commonly used in tx of ER positive breast cancer
  • increases risk of uterine related cancer:
    • endometrial cancer
    • uterine sarcoma
81
Q

Common physiologic changes in pregnancy: renal/urinary

A
  • increased GFR, decreased BUN/Cr
    • mechanism = increased CO and renal blood flow due to progesterone
    • increased renal excretion
  • urinary frequency, nocturia
    • increased urine output, sodium excretion
  • mild hyponatremia
    • hormones reset threshold for increased ADH release from pituitary
82
Q

Common physiologic changes in pregnancy: Heme

A
  • dilutional anemia
    • 2/2 increased plasma volume and RBC mass
  • prothrombotic state
    • hormone-mediated decrease in total protein S antigen and activity
    • increase in fibrinogen and coagulation facotrs
83
Q

Common physiologic changes in pregnancy: CV/Pulm

A
  • increased CO and HR
    • increased blood volume
    • decreased systemic vascular resistance
  • chronic respiratory alkalosis w/metabolic compensation (increased PaO2 and decreased PaCO2)
    • progesterone directly stimulates central respiratory centers to increase tidal volume and minute ventilation
84
Q

Normal ABG in pregnancy

A
  • pH = 7.45 (increased)
  • PCO2 = 28 (decreased)
  • HCO3 = 18 (decreased)
85
Q

Evaluation of decreased fetal movement

A
  1. NST
  2. Contraction stress test (CST)
  3. biophysical profile
86
Q

Normal & Abnormal CST results

A
  • normal =
    • >3 ctx lasting 30-40s in 10 min (induced)
    • no late or recurrent variable decels
  • abnormal
    • late decels following >50% of ctx
  • equivical
    • recurrent variables
    • intermittent late decels
87
Q

Tx for infertility in premature ovarian failure

A

in-vitro fertilization w/donor oocyte

88
Q

Initial uncomplicated neonatal care

A
  • initial physical assessment
  • removal airway secretions
  • dry and warm infant
  • early preventative measures
    • gonococcal opthalmia prevention
    • vitamin K administration
89
Q

Components of biophysical profile

A
  1. nonstress test
  2. amniotic fluid volume
  3. fetal movements
  4. fetal tone
  5. fetal breathing movements
  6. scoring: 0=abnormal, 2=normal
90
Q

Risk factors for osteoporosis

A
  • advacned age
  • thin body habitus
  • tobacco use
  • excess alcohol consumption
  • corticosteroid use
  • menopause
  • malnutrition
  • Fhx of osteoporosis
  • Asian or Caucasion
91
Q

STI screening recommendations in pregnant women

A
  • screen all for:
    • syphillis, HIV, Hep B
  • screen women
  • gonorrhea, chlamydia
  • screen women @ increased risk for:
  • hep C
92
Q

Cause of abdominal pain in HELLP syndrome

A

2/2 liver swelling with distension of hepatic (Glisson’s) capsule

93
Q

Mechanism of pulmonary edema in severe pre-e

A
  • increased systemic vascular resistance
  • increased capillary permeability
  • increased pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure
  • decreased albumin
94
Q

Management/prognosis of Erb-Duchenne palsy

A
  • reassurance
  • most spontaneously recover arm fxn within a few months
95
Q

Risks/definition of fetal macrosomia

A
  • fetal macrosomia = >4kg (4000g)
  • maternal risks
    • advanced age
    • DM
    • excessive weight gain in preg or pre-existing obesity
    • multiparity
  • fetal risks
    • african-american or hispanic ethnicity
    • male sex
    • post-term pregnancy

Shelf Exam Study Materials (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions