Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

shelf exam study materials > Neurology: PreTest > Flashcards

Neurology: PreTest Flashcards

1
Q

Imaging to look at demyelinating disorder

A

T2-weighted MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Can Parkinson’s be one-side dominant/focal?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cause of tremor in the hands: most obvious when the patient is awake and trying to perform an action

A

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Phenytoin toxicity presentation

A
  • nystagmus
  • ataxia
  • dysarthria
  • impaired judgement
  • lethargy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CN injury that leads to increased sensitivity to sound

A
  • CNVII
  • facial nerve innervates the stapedius muscle of the middle ear
  • m. paralysis ==> undamped transmission of acoustic signals ==> hyperacusis
  • hyperacusis = damage to the facial n. close to its origin bc branch to stapedius muscle is one of the first
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fasciculations under the tongue ==> CN injury?

A

CN XII

can occur w/brainstem dz (stroke or bulbar ALS) vs. transection of CN XII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Warm water in ear canal ==>

A
  • warm water indicates to brain that the head is moving to the side that is being warmed
  • eyes deviate to the opposite side to maintain fixation on their targets
  • reflex nystagmus toward the ear that is being stimulated develops as the brain tries to establish refixation while the vestibular signals repeatedly prompt deviation of the eyes contralateral to the warm stimulus.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bell’s palsy complication

A
  • injury to facial n. ==> abberant regeneration
  • ==> fibers intended for certain areas are mixed up ==> abnormally coordinated facial movements (i.e. mouth twitch with wink/blink)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tentorium cerebelli =

A

fold of meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Calcified vs. vascular lesions of CT

A
  • Calcified masses appear hyper- dense without contrast enhancement
  • vascular lesions may appear dense w/intravenous contrast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dydiadochokinesia testing/cause

A
  • rapid tapping of one side of hand/tapping heel or toe-heel tapping
  • 2/2 cerebellar damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

EEG wave in relaxed, closed eyes adult

A
  • α wave activity 8 to 13 Hz over the posterior aspects of head
  • α activity disappears with eye opening,less obvious as drowsiness increases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Test for inflammatory myopathy

A
  • CPK
  • EMG
  • M. biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CSF in Guillain-Barre

A
  • xanthochromic (i.e., yellow) because of the high protein content of the fluid
  • viscous 2/2 protein
  • protein up to/> 1g
  • normal cell count
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CSF in subarachnoid hemorrhage

A
  • yellow
  • RBCs +++
  • slightly elevated WBC count
  • elevated protein
  • slightly elevated opening pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Sx/presentation of subarachnoid hemorrhage

A
  • sudden severe H/A
  • head trauma/LOC
  • neck stiffness
  • photophobia
  • vomiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pure sensory stroke is most likely with damage to the?

A

thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

pure motor stroke is most likely with damage to the?

A

internal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Nucleus ambiguus locations/nerves

A
  • ventrolateral medulla

- motor neurons ==> CNIX and CNX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Nucleus ambiguus injury ==> deficits?

A
  • hoarseness

- dysphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Wallenberg syndrome definition

A
  • lateral medullary syndrome -infarction involving some or all of the structures @ lateral medulla:
  • nucleus and descending tract of CNV
  • nucleus ambiguus
  • lateral spinothalamic tracts
  • inferior cerebellar peduncle
  • descending sympathetic fibers, vagus, and glossopharyngeal nerves.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Deficits in Wallenberg/lateral medullary syndrome

A
  • ipsilateral ataxia and ipsilateral Horner syndrome
  • CNV ==> ipsilateral loss of facial pain and temperature + ipsilateral impairment of the corneal reflex
  • lateral spinothalamic ==> pain and temp disturbances contralateral to the injury @ the limbs/trunk
  • n. ambiguus ==> dysphagia and dysphonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common cause of Wallenberg/lateral medullary syndrome

A

vertebral artery occlusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most common cause of cerebral hemorrhage in pt.s w/out HTN

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) (congophilic angiopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Typical presentation of Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) (congophilic angiopathy)

A
  • deposition of β-amyloid protein (the same as that found in Alzheimer’s disease) in brain blood vessels ==> disruption of the vessel walls
  • age 70+ and may present with multiple cortical hemorrhages (might be detected with gradient echo MRI)
  • with or without a history of dementia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lesion that is the same on enhanced and unenhanced CT = ?

A

hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mycotic aneurysm characteristics

A
  • small aneurysm that develops from an infected embolus from endocarditis
  • bleeding usually ==> subarachnoid space
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Brain/neuro abnormality assoc. w/Sturge-Weber

A
  • leptomeningeal angiomas

- hemiparesis or hemiatrophy on the side of the body opposite the port-wine nevus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hemangioblastoma associations

A
  1. Polycystic kidney disease

2. VHL/telangiectasia of the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm characteristics

A

-small/microscopic
-assoc. w/chronic HTN
-most commonly @ lenticulostriate
==> putamen hematoma OR @ dentate nucleus of cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A lesion at which vessel will ==> CNIII palsy

A

post. communicating artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Presentation of internal carotid artery disease

A

episodes of ipsilateral transient monocular blindness (amaurosis fugax) and contralateral transient ischemic attacks consisting of motor weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Evaluation of TIA w/vision impairment + contralateral weakness

A

Carotid a. doppler US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Adverse effects of phenytoin infusion

A

cardiac arryhthmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Carbamazepine: oral vs. IV

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Adverse effects of phenobarbitol infusion

A

hypotension
respiratory depression/arrest
less effects on cardiac activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Initial eval in new simple partial seizure

A

imaging: preferably MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Most common complication of temporal lobectomy

A
  • visual field defect due to interruptions of fibers from optic tract
  • sup. quadrantanopsia > hemianopsia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Characteristics of Jacksonian march

A
  • sequential seizure,
  • focal seizure activity (mostly motor) that spreads
  • often secondarily generalizes, ==> generalized TC seizure
  • hand/face = common site for the start
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Good drug in complex partial seizures w/out gen. in a young person

A

carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Characteristics of West syndrome

A
  • generalized seizure disorder of infants characterized by recurrent spasms
  • EEG pattern = hypsarrhythmia, and retardation
  • assoc. w/other dz including tuberous sclerosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Tx for infantile spasms

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Absence sz. tx

A
  1. ethosuximide

2. divalproez sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Classic vs. Basilar migraine

A
  • character and severity of neurologic deficits assoc. w/basilar migraine are distinct.
  • visual change ==> blindness
  • irritability ==> psychosis
  • mild hemiparesis ==> transient quadriplegia
  • Stupor, syncope, and even coma may appear and persist for hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Causes/assoc. w/trigeminal neuralgia

A
  • MS
  • basilar artery aneurysms
  • acoustic schwannomas
  • posterior fossa meningiomas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

trigeminal neuralgia vs. atypical facial pain

A
  • trigeminal = paroxysmal, lancinating vs. atypical = deep, constant
  • trigeminal = unilater vs. atypical unilateral or bilateral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cluster H/A characteristics

A

-clustered in time/season
-origin @ eye ==> temporal area
-men > women
-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

trauma to elbow ==> n. imjury? ==> deficits?

A

-ulnar n. injury

==> weakness @ interosseus and ulnar lumbrical m. of hand ==> clawhand deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

humerus injury + inability to flex elbow ==> dx?

A

musculocutaneous n. injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

wristdrop ==> n/ injury?

A

radial n.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

tx of neuro problems assoc. w/epidural hematoma

A

craniotomy

52
Q

eldery person w/minor trauma followed by progressive dementia ==> dx?

A

chronic subdural hematoma

53
Q

Common site of injury in MVC with head hitting windshield

A
  • temporal lobe
  • cribiform plate
  • middle cranial fossa
54
Q

Common long-term CN deficit after traumatic head injury (e.g. MVC)

A

anosmia +/- ageusia 2/2 avulsion of olfactory n. rootlets

55
Q

Most common neuro injury associated w/sarcoid

A

CNVII ==> facial paresis

56
Q

Most common cause of fungal meningitis

A

cryptococcus

57
Q

Neurologic lesion associated with Schistosoma mansoni

A
  • S.mansoniisendemicin Puerto Rico and may produce a subacutely evolving paraparesis
  • granulomatous lesions around fluke ova crush the cord
58
Q

Characteristics of taenia echinococcus infection

A
  • Echinococcosisisusually acquired by eating tissue from infected sheep
  • Children > adults
  • ==> encephalic hydatidosis = major cyst w/multiple compartments w/smaller cysts
  • hydatid cyst can be ~tumor ==> focal deficits
59
Q

Imaging if suspected mass or infection?

A

Contrast CT = greater sensitivity than noncon CT for tumor or abscess

60
Q

Characteristics/tx of PML

A
  • common in HIV/immunosuppressed
  • caused by JC virus
  • no antiviral tx; use HAART in HIV
61
Q

Typical location of herpes encephalitis

A
  • HSV-1

- typically @ medial temporal or orbito-frontal

62
Q

Lesions caused by toxoplasmosis in AIDS patients

A

granulomas and abscesses

63
Q

CNS infections of both HIV and CMV ==> ?

A

microglial nodules

64
Q

Most common CN injury with Lyme dz?

A

CNVII ==> facial paralysis

65
Q

The medication most appropriate in patients with CNS involvement by B. burgdorferi is ?

A

Ceftriaxone

66
Q

most common site for abscess formation in the brain?

A

gray-white jxn

67
Q

fungal malignant external otitis and osteomyelitis of the base of the skull in HIV patients is most commonly caused by ?

A

aspergillus

68
Q

Characteristics of spongiform encephalopathy?

A
  • usually Creutzfeldt-Jakob dz
  • dementia, tremor, ataxia, and myoclonus
  • MRI = a subtle increase in signal @ basal ganglia bilaterally
  • EEG = disorganized background activity with periodic sharp-wave discharges bilaterally
  • normal CSF
  • can be transmitted from human brain tissue (grafts) or growth hormone
69
Q

Tabes dorsalis characteristics

A
  • treponema pallidum
  • leptomeningitis ==> degen. of posterior columns of the spinal cord and dorsal root ganglia
  • gait ataxia and positive Romberg sign
  • loss of Bladder and bowel control
  • argyll robertson pupils
70
Q

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis characteristics

A
  • occurs in children/young adults who had measles
  • demylenating dz ==> death in 1-3yrs
  • CSF: increased gamma globulin/oligoclonal bands
71
Q

Bartonella hensalae characteristics

A
  • cat-scratch dz
  • regional adenitis, freq. w/epitrochlear nodes
  • ==> meningitis
72
Q

most common sources of primary brain tumors = ?

A

glial cells

73
Q

most common type of primary brain tumors = ?

A

astrocytoma

74
Q

tumor type that is common in patients with AIDS, but otherwise extremely rare = ?

A

primary lymphoma

75
Q

Characteristics of hypothalamic hamartoma

A
  • nonneoplastic malformation of neurons and glia @ ~hypothalamus
  • ==> neuroendocrine changes: prec. puberty, acromegaly
  • assoc. w/paroxysms of laughter
76
Q

Complication of tumor @ posterior fossa

A

herniation

77
Q

Complication of NF1

A

optic tumors (e.g. optic glioma)

78
Q

Complication of lung cancer that ==> lethargy, weakness, areflexia

A
  • hypercalcemia
  • 2/2 parathyroid-related peptide secreted by tumor
  • can ==> convulsions, coma
79
Q

B-glucosidase deficiency ==> ?

A
  • ==> Gaucher dz
  • glucosulceramide accumulation
  • ==> HSM, CNS dz
80
Q

Anatomic change in brain 2/2 hepatic dz

A
  • increased alz. type II astrocytes

- EtOH/thiamine def. ==> decreased purkinje cells @ cerebellum

81
Q

(CSF) protein content with either uremic encephalopathy or hypertensive encephalopathy = ?

A

usually ~60-10

82
Q

most common neurologic complication of chronic renal failure = ?

A

peripheral neuropathy

83
Q

Tx of restless leg syndrome

A

clonazepam, gabapentin, L-dopa, and opiates

84
Q

visual field cut most often seen with vitamin B12 defi- ciency = ?

A

Centrocecal scotoma

85
Q

Onset of benzodiazepine w/drawal

A

may be early but can be delayed by 7-10 days

86
Q

Vitamin E deficiency ==> ?

A
  • onset @ childhood
  • spinocerebellar degeneration, polyneuropathy, and pigmentary retinopathy
  • common sx = ataxia
87
Q

Characteristics of Pickwickian syndrome

A

Obesity associated with hyper- somnia qualifies as Pickwickian syndrome if the patient exhibits other characteristic features, such as sleep apnea.

88
Q

Cleaning fluid ingestion ==>

A

hepatic toxicity

89
Q

Characteristics of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A
  • wet, wacky, wobbly
  • chronic, communicating form of hydrocephalus affecting elderly adults
  • may relate to prior episodes of trauma, infection, or subarachnoid hemorrhage
  • triad of gait disturbance, dementia, and incontinence
90
Q

Complication of VP shunt placement

A

subdural hematoma (2/2 decreased pressure ==> shearing of bridging veins)

91
Q

Med shown to slow progress/improve outcomes in alzheimers dz?

A
  • donepezil

- Vitamin E

92
Q

Clinical features of Alzheimer’s dz?

A
  • memory impairment, aphasia, apraxia, and neuropsychiatric impairment
  • language disturbance: decreased fluency, dysnomia, and transcortical sensory aphasia,
93
Q

CJD characteristics

A

ataxia, clumsiness, or dysarthria, as well as diplopia, distorted vision, blurred vision, field defects, changes in color perception, and visual agnosia

94
Q

Caudate atrophy in huntington’s dz ==> ?

A
  • deformation of frontal tip of lateral ventricle

- lateral ventricle = ~rhomboid

95
Q

Lewy bodies = ?

A

intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies

96
Q

Trihexyphenidyl (Artane): MOA, use

A
  • anticholinergic drug

- decrease signs of parkinsonism caused by drugs that interfere with dopamine

97
Q

Miegs’ syndrome characteristicsq

A

focal dystonia characterized by blepharospasm, forceful jaw opening, lip retrac- tion, neck contractions, and tongue thrusting

98
Q

CSF in MS

A

-Persistently elevated IgG, even between flares

99
Q

evoked response pattern that is most often abnormal in patients with early MS = ?

A

-visual evoked response 2/2 optic neuritis commonly occuring early in dz

100
Q

Canavan’s dz characteristics

A
  • developmental regression @ ~ 6 months of age
  • defect in N-acetylaspartic acid metabolism ==>
  • macrocephaly
  • extensor posturing and rigidity
  • myoclonic seizures
101
Q

What worsens MS?

A

hot weather, fatigue, illness

102
Q

Leber’s optic atrophy characteristics

A
  • centrocecal scotoma

- mitoDNA inheritance

103
Q

White matter dz assoc. w/adrenal dysfxn?

A
  • adrenoleukodystrophy
  • some x-linked
  • presents in childhood
  • limb ataxia, nystagmus, mental retardation
104
Q

Triorthocresyl phosphate poisoning ==> ?

A
  • in rat poison/roach powder/insecticide
  • ==> HA, vomiting, abdominal cramps, sweating, wheezing, twitching
  • massive motor polyneuropathy ==> death
105
Q

Acute lead poisoning in children ==>

A

massive brain edema

106
Q

Mercury poisoning ==> ?

A
  • “mad hatter” (felt/hat manufacture)

- personality changes, tremor, and ataxia

107
Q

Arsenic poisoning ==> ?

A
  • TC seizures vs. encephalopathy
  • hemolysis
  • polyneuropathy
108
Q

Ergot poisoning ==> ?

A
  • Ergot = vasoconstricting agent derived from the rye fungus, Claviceps purpurea
  • degeneration of the posterior columns and dorsal roots + peripheral neuropathy
109
Q

Manganese poisoning ==> ?

A

~wilson’s disease

-parkinsonism

110
Q

Agents that can induce parkinsonism

A
  • phenothiazines
  • butyrophenones
  • metoclopramide (Reglan)
  • manganes
111
Q

Tunnel vision vs. concentric constriction

A
  • @ CC: area perceived enlarges as the test screen is moved farther away from the patient, but the overall visual field is always smaller than the normal visual field
  • @ TV: same size field even as the test screen is removed further away = conversion d/o
112
Q

Characteristics of retinitis pigmentosa

A
  • most common form of retinal degen.
  • hereditary degenerative disease @ retinal receptors and adjacent pigment cells ==> pigment accumulation at periphery
  • ==> optic disc pallor
113
Q

Absent red reflex ==> dx?

A
  • congenital cataracts

- white reflex = Rb?

114
Q

acute/abrupt central scotoma = dx?

A

methyl alcohol intoxication

115
Q

Papillitis vs. papilledema

A
  • papillitis = inflammation of optic n. head ==> vision loss + pain with eye movement
  • papilledema = elevated ICP, no major visual loss
116
Q

Injuries to the macula or fovea centralis ==> ?

A

severe loss of visual acuity

117
Q

Pt w/double vision. that disappears if she covers either eye ==> dx?

A
  • CN 6 palsy

- most common oculomotor palsy

118
Q

Most common CN involved in facial zoster?

A

CN IV (because shares n. sheath w.opthalmic division of trigeminal)

119
Q

Evidence of internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO) indicates ??

A

mesenchephalic or pontine injury

120
Q

ocular bobbing characteristics and inidication

A
  • ocular bobbing = rapid downward deviation of both eyes followed by slow upward conjugate eye movements probably
  • develops with pontine damage (or occ. cerebellar damage)
121
Q

Characteristics of retinal a. occlusion

A
  • retina appears cloudy and grayish yellow with narrowed arterioles
  • fovea appears cherry red
  • vessels appear to have segmented columns of blood
122
Q

Characteristics of benign tonic pupillary dilatation

A
  • poorly responsive, dilated pupils @ young, healthy woman
  • no change in vision
  • +/- absent reflexes
123
Q

Argyll Robertson Pupil

A
  • 2/2 neurosyphilis

- reacts poorly to light but accommodates well

124
Q

Optic neuritis ==> visual field cuts?

A

loss of both visual fields in a single eye

125
Q

Damage to L. occipital lobe ==> visual field cuts?

A

right homonymous hemianopsia

126
Q

Lesion impinging on optic chiasm from one side ==> visual field cuts?

A
  • field cut in the contralateral field of the contralateral eye
  • ipsilateral eye may exhibit little more than an enlarged blind spot that impinges on central vision = “centrocecal scotoma”

shelf exam study materials (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions