OBGYN Flashcards

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1
Q

What separates normal hemodilution of pregnancy from other anemias

A

hemodilution does not effect MCV

Thalassemias, Iron, and folate deficiencies do change MCV

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2
Q

The increased minute ventilation during pregnancy causes an acid base what?

A

compensated respiratory alkalosis

ph ↑ co2 and bicarb ↓ (RO)

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3
Q

The Resp rate does not change in pregnancy, but the ______ is increased which increases the minute ventilation, which is responsible for the _______ (acid base)

A

Tidal volume up

respiratory alkalosis in pregnancy is normal acid base status

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4
Q

Use of ______ increases the susceptibility of pulmonary edema, especially with the use of isotonic fluids.

A

multiple tocolytics

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5
Q

The cardiac output increases up to 33% due to _______ in pregnant people.

A

increases in both the heart rate and stroke volume

Up to 95% of women will have a systolic murmur due to the increased volume.

Diastolic murmurs are always abnormal.

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6
Q

_____ murmurs are always abnormal in prego

A

Diastolic

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7
Q

what is the symmetry `of hydronephrosis of pregnancy

A

The dilation is unequal (R > L)

sigmoid cushions left ureter

right ureter compressed by uterus and right ovarian vein complex

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8
Q

the _______ are the most common site of metastatic disease in patients with gestational trophoblastic disease (molar prego)

A

lungs

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9
Q

weight gain in pregnancy for underweight (BMI

A

total weight gain 28 – 40 pounds;

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10
Q

weight gain in pregnancy for normal weight (BMI 18.5 – 24.9 kg/m2)

A

total weight gain 25 – 35 pounds; pounds.

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11
Q

weight gain in pregnancy for overweight (BMI 25 – 29.9 kg/m2)

A

total weight gain 15 - 25 pounds

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12
Q

weight gain in pregnancy for obese (BMI > 30 kg/m2)

A

total weight gain 11 - 20 pounds.

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13
Q

How would you screen a couple for sickle cell?

A

HgB electrophoresis

smear likely wont show sickling, esp. in carriers

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14
Q

Valproic acid in prego is is associated with an increased risk for ____________________

A

neural tube defects, hydrocephalus and craniofacial malformations.

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15
Q

Women with poorly controlled DM immediately prior to conception/ during organogenesis have a 8 fold risk of having a fetus with _______________-

A

central nervous system (neural tube defects) and the cardiovascular defects

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16
Q

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a prenatal test that diagnoses ________ by sampling placenta chorionic villi

A

genetic disorders (tri-21, CF, etc)

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17
Q

If there is a history of a FDR with colon cancer before age 60, then begin screening with colonoscopy at age ________, and repeat every five years.

A

40, or 10 years before the youngest relative diagnosis

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18
Q

Bone density screening is recommended for women beginning at age _____ unless they have pre-existing risk factors which warrant earlier screening.

A

65

Unless they have pre-existing risk factors

19
Q

Risk factors for osteoporosis are:

A
early menopause
glucocorticoid therapy
sedentary lifestyle
alcohol consumption
hyperthyroidism
hyperparathyroidism
anticonvulsant therapy
 vitamin D deficiency
family history of early or severe osteoporosis
chronic liver or renal disease.
20
Q

______________ is the number one killer of women

A

Heart disease

21
Q

__________ is the most effective screening test for Down syndrome.

A

Cell-free DNA screening

22
Q

Associated risks of gestational diabetes.

A
Shoulder dystocia
metabolic disturbances
preeclampsia
polyhydramnios
 fetal macrosomia
23
Q

According to ACOG, the recommended dose of folate for non-high risk patients is at least ______

A

0.6 mg/day.

24
Q

women with a previous pregnancy complicated by a fetal neural tube defect should ingest _____ daily before conception and through the first trimester

A

4 mg of folic acid

25
Q

Incorrect dating, specifically _________, is the most common explanation for an elevated MSAFP.

A

under-estimation of gestational age

26
Q

Ibuprofen is safe to take until around ___________, when premature closure of the ductus arteriosis is a risk.

A

32 weeks gestation

27
Q

All women with + cultures for GBS/ hx of baby with GBS should receive antibiotics in this time frame?

A

antibiotics in labor always.No culture nessiciary ever

no ab’s if a c-section is performed before onset of labor in a woman with intact amniotic membranes.

28
Q

If the fetal heart rate cannot be confirmed using external methods, then the most reliable way to document fetal well-being is to?

A

apply a fetal scalp electrode

ultrasound is good, but can’t do continuous monitoring

29
Q

Umbilical cord prolapse occurs in 1% of births and shows _________ on fetal monitoring

A

Sustained fetal bradycardia is usually observed.

30
Q

Late decelerations are associated with ___________

A

uteroplacental insufficiency.

31
Q

Once an umbilical cord prolapse is diagnosed, what do you do?

A

expeditious cesarean section.

do not replace the umbilical cord into the uterus or allow the patient to continue to labor or perform a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery.

32
Q

_____________ babies are more common with type 1 diabetes than with gestational diabetes

A

Small

33
Q

_______________ is a warning sign that the infant may be septic.

A

Fetal tachycardia coupled with minimal variability

A septic infant will typically appear pale, lethargic and have a high temperature.

34
Q

A septic infant will typically appear ____________

A

pale, lethargic and have a high temperature.

35
Q

Infants born to diabetic mothers are at increased risk for developing?

A
polycythemia
hyperbilirubinemia
 hypoglycemia, 
hypocalcemia a
respiratory distress.
36
Q

How do you treat the baby of HIV + moms?

A

Treat the infant with zidovudine (AZT) immediately after delivery

37
Q

define uterine atony

A

floppy uterus that wont contract

major cause of postpartum hemorrhage

38
Q

The safest method to suppress lactation is ____________

A

breast binding, ice packs, and analgesics.

39
Q

After delivery, large amounts of prolactin continue to be secreted, milk is produced after the inhibitory action of ___________ is lifted.

A

estrogen and progesterone

40
Q

The discriminatory zone for hCG is?

A

the serum level above which a gestational sac should be visualized by ultrasound examination if an IUP is present

usually= 2000

41
Q

Beta-hCG in a normal pregnancy level should rise by at least ______ until the pregnancy is ____ old

A

50% every 48 hours

42 days

42
Q

Criteria for methotrexate therapy for treatment of an ectopic pregnancy.

A
  • hemodynamic stability
  • non-ruptured ectopic pregnancy
  • size of ectopic mass
43
Q

What are the 2 treatments for ectopic

A

ruptured/ no follow up= laparoscopy

safe/ reliable = methotrexate