OB Final Pt. 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The abdominal circumference measurement should be taken at the level of

A

stomach and portal vein

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2
Q

Which of the following anatomic structures should routinely be visualized at the BPD level?

a. choroid plexus
b. cerebellum
c. cisterna magna
d. cavum septum pellucidum

A

Cavum septum pellucidum

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3
Q

While scanning a patient in her 34th week, she complains of becoming nauseated, diaphoric and light headed.What action should be taken by the sonographer?

A

Placing patient in left lateral decubitus position

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4
Q

Sonographic findings suspicous for ectopic pregnancy include all of the following except:

a. sac eccentric to endometrial cavity
b. free fluid in posterior cul-de-sac
c. sac within endometrial cavity
d. adnexal ring

A

Sac eccentric to endometrial cavity

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5
Q

Reverberation artifact is responsible for all of the following except:

a. echoes in the anterior amniotic fluid
b. swirling echoes within the amniotic fluid
c. decreased visualization of the cerebral hemisphere closest to the transducer

A

swirling echoes within the amniotic fluid

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6
Q

The BPD measurement is most accurate

A

from 12 to 33 weeks LMP

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7
Q

Which CI is indicative of dolichocephaly?

a. .67
b. .78
c. .80
d. .89

A

.67

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8
Q

The focal mode (transmit zone) should be placed _________ the level of the structure that is being examined

A

at

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9
Q

The first action a sonographer should take when placing the transducer on the maternal abdomen is to determine

A

presence of fetal cardiac activity

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10
Q

Fetal blood passes from the umbilical vein to the portal vein to the inferior vena cava via the:

A

ductus venosus

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11
Q

Fertilization occurs at which site normally?

A

ampulla of fallopian tube

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12
Q

all of the following are true of femur length measurement except;
a. femur furthest from transducer should be measured
b, diaphysis should be measured
c. strong posterior acoustic shadow should be demonstrated
d. FL measurement not affected in asymmetric IUGR

A

femur furthest from transducer should be measured

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13
Q

Fetal lung maturity can be detected via amniocentesis by presence of

A

phsphatidyl-glycerol

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14
Q

a patient with an LMP of october 23, 2008, who became pregnancy this cycle should have and EDC of :

A

7/30/09

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15
Q

The most common location for an encephalocele is

A

occipital

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16
Q

The presence of an asymmetric encephalocele raises suspicion for

A

Limb body wall complex

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17
Q

The best scan plane to demonstrate spina bifidain a fetus is:

A

transverse

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18
Q

Which of the following is least likely to be a sonographic finding in a fetus with trisomy 21?

a. increased nuchal fold
b. endocardial cushion defect
c. shortened femur
d. clenched hands

A

clenched hands

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19
Q

Treatment for an incompetent cervix included the __________ procedures

A

MacDonald and Shirokdar

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20
Q

The placenta is considered thickened when it measures greater than _____ cm AP

A

5

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21
Q

Biophysical profile assessment with ultrasound does not include?

a. fetal breathing
b. fetal tone
c. amniotic fluid assessment
d. gross body movement
e. umbilical cord doppler

A

Umbilical cord Doppler

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22
Q

Which AFI is indicative of oligohydramnios?

a. 4.3cm
b. 9.2cm
c. 16.5cm
d. 25.6cm

A

4.3cm

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23
Q

Painless vaginal bleeding is the hallmark of:

A

Placenta previa

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24
Q

___________ is not a cause of nonimmune hydrops

A

Rh inoimmunization

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25
Skeletal anomalies are suspected when the long bones measure more than _________SD below the mean
2
26
The recipient twin in twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome exhibits: a. oligohydrops b. hydrops c. IUGR d. anemia
Hydrops
27
Sonographic visualization of a separating membrane is evidence of a ________ gestation
Diamniotic
28
The tricuspid valve inserts ____________ to the mitral valve
Inferior
29
a non-funtioning mass of lung tissue with its own blood supply from the aorta is:
Pulmonary sequestration
30
The most common congenital heart defect is
Ventricular septal defect
31
Oligohydramnios is associated with all of the following except: a. IUGR b. preterm c. fetal demise d. bilateral renal agenesis
Preterm labor
32
Causes of an increased MS-AFP do not include: a. placental hemorrhage b. hydatidaform mole c. neural tube defect d. chorioangioma
Hydatidaform mole
33
TORCH infections do not include a. toxoplasmosis b. hepatitis c. cytomegalovirus d. rubella
Hepatitis
34
While scanning a patient, marginal placenta previa is suspected. The first thing the sonographer should do is:
have the patient void and rescan
35
Lack of sonographic visualization of the cerebral hemispheres and cranium is diagnostic of
Anencephaly
36
While scanning a patient who is 16wks by known menstrual dates, the sonographer notes a large cystic mass at the posterior aspect of the fetal neck. The mass appears to contain septations. The intracranial structures are normal. This finding most likely represents:
Cystic hygroma
37
Sonographic findings in hydrops fetalis do not include fetal
hydronephrosis
38
RhoGam is administered to the mother during pregnancy to prevent
erythroblastosis fetalis
39
All of the following may be seen sonographically in maternal diabetes except: a. prematurely mature placenta b. macrosomia c. placetomegaly d. cardiac anomalies
Prematurely mature placenta
40
A 24 year old patient is scanned for routine dating of pregnancy. Examination of the fetal head reveals non-fused thalami, presence of the falx cerebri and a fluid filled cranium. The choroid plexi are present. These sonographic findings most likely indicate
Hydrocephalus
41
A 42-year old patient is referred for "large for dates". The amniotic fluid index measures 25.6cm. The stomach is not visualized sonographically in the abdomen. An echogenic mass is identified in the chest with cardiac axis deviation. These findings most likely represent?
Diaphragmatic hernia
42
A patient with a pregnancy history of G3P2012 has had how many term deliveries?
2
43
Fetal bradycardia is less than ___________ beats per minute.
100
44
___________ is a non-lethal long bone dysplasia
Type I osteogenesis imperfecta
45
Factors associated with placental abruption do not include a. primigravida b. trauma c. maternal age d. maternal hypertension
Primigravida
46
Which of the following would be least likely in which the mother had an abnormal hemoglobin A1C at 10wks of pregnancy? a. bilateral renal agenesis b. caudal regression syndrome c. ventriculoseptal defect d. placental abruption
Placental abruption
47
The echogenic structure seen normally in the right ventricle is the
Moderator band
48
Which of the following components of the biophysical profile would no be assessed with Ultrasound? a. amniotic fluid b. fetal breathing motion c. fetal heart accelerations d. fetal tone
fetal heart accelerations
49
Failure of the forebrain to devide results in
Holopronsencephaly
50
If the pre-implantation blastocyst splits during the first week of gestation, it results in a _________ pregnancy
Monochorionic, diamniotic
51
Fetal blood passes from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta via the
Ductus arteiosus
52
Which of the following is not a sign of preeclampsia? a. elevated blood pressure b. proteinuria c. edema d. abnormal glucose tolerance test
Abnormal glucose tolerance test
53
Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall is placenta
abruption
54
In an intrauterine pregnancy, a gestational sac should be seen using transvaginal sonography when the serum BgCG level reaches __________ mlu/ml 3IRP
1000
55
The most common fetal thoracic abnormality is
Pleural effusion
56
The S/D ratio in the umbilical artery should not exceed __________ in the 3rd trimester?
3:1
57
Sonographic visualization of the tibia and fibula in the same scanning plane as the metatarsals of the foot is associated with
Clubfoot
58
Fetal cells can be retrieved for Karyotyping by all of the following methods except: a. amniocentesis b. CVS c. umbilical blood sampling d. FISH
FISH
59
The "quad screen" derives a statistical risk of Trisomy 21 and 18 by using all of the maternal serum values except: a. alpha feto protein b. PAPP-A c. estriol d. human chorionic gonadotropin e. inhibin-A
PAPP-A
60
Chorionic maternal hypertension causes which of the following placental changes? a. immature b. enlarged c. prematurely mature d. accessory lobe
Prematurely mature
61
The effects of maternal infection on the fetus do not include a. IUGR b. cardiac anomalies c. cranial anomalies d. macrosomia
Macrosomia
62
Fetal skin thickening, called anasarca, is considered when the skin thickness reaches or exceeds ____ cm
0.5
63
hCG is secreted by:
Trophoblast/chorion
64
Pathologic features of Trisomy 18 include all of the following except: a. single umbilical artery b. clenched fists with overlapping fingers c. large choroid plexus cysts d. thickened nuchal fold
Thickened nuchal folds
65
Asymmetric intrauterine growth restriction is not assocciated with
Maternal infection
66
Sonographic detection of overlapping cranial bones, associated with fetal demise, is called ______________ sign
Spaulding
67
All of the following are sonographic findings in spina bifida except: a. banana sign b. lemon sign c. splaying of posterior elements d. strawberry cranium e. double bubble
Strawberry cranium and double bubble
68
False positive sonographic impression of placenta previa can be created by all of the following except: a. transperineal scanning b. focal myometrial contraction c. lower uterine segment myoma d. overdistended maternal urinary bladder
Transperineal scanning
69
Amnionicity and chorionicity are most easily determined sonographically:
In the first trimester
70
The normally herniated midgut usually returns to the fetal abdomen by ________ weeks
12
71
Which of the following would be least useful to evaluate in a fetus with a suspected skeletal dysplasia? a. mineralization of spine b. size and shape of thorax c. fetal gender d. hands and feet e. amniotic fluid index
Fetal gender
72
Which of the following would least likely be associated with thanatophoric dysplasia? a. cloverleaf skull b. severe micromelia c. polyhydramnios d. bowing of bones secondary to fractures
Bowing of bones secondary to fractures
73
All of the following would could cause a measurement of "large dates" except: a. multiple gestation b. IUGR c. H mole d. polyhydramnios
IUGR
74
Placental tissue covering the internal cervical os is known as :
Placenta previa
75
A 21 year old primigravida is referred for a sonographic examination for elevatied MS-AFP. The sonographer notes an echogenic mass lateral to the umbilical cord insertion. The mass is not contained within a membrane. This firnding is most likely
Gastroschisis
76
Decreased intraorbital distance is
Hypotelorism
77
A dilated fetal urinary bladder with a "Keyhole" sign in a male fetus is indicative of
Posterior urethral valve obstruction
78
Types of holoprosencephaly do not include: a. hemilobar b. semilobar c. lobar d. alobar
hemilobar