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Nutrition Y 2 Exam 1 > Nutritional pharmacology > Flashcards

Nutritional pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mode of action for anti motility drugs?

A

inhibits opoid receptors which reduces peristalsis and increases water reabsorption

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2
Q

What are 2 side effects of anti motility drugs?

A

dehydration, nausea, constipation, diarrhoea

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3
Q

What indication is anti-motility drugs for?

A

acute adult diarrhoea

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4
Q

What is the mode of action for Ca-D-Glucarate?

A

Beta-glucaronidase is inhibits. It normally splits the oestrogen-glucuronide bond which reduces oestrogen

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5
Q

What is the interaction for Ca-D-glucarate?

A

Reduces oestrogen

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6
Q

What indication is Ca-D-glucarate?

A

Hormone related cancers

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7
Q

What is the mode of action for NSAIDs?

A

inhibit enzyme cyclooxygenase, which is involved with metabolism of arachadonic acid to inflammatory mediators

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8
Q

What is the indication for NSAIDs?

A

inflammation/pain relief

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9
Q

What are the side effects of NSAIDs?

A

dyspepsia, liver damage, ulcers, allergies

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10
Q

What are the interactions of NSAIDs?

A

Gingko because NSAIDs reduce platelet aggregation and the same properties so it is an additive effect

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11
Q

What is the mode of action for anti-depressants?

A

Inhibit reuptake of serotonin from synaptic cleft by SSRIs binding at 5-HT reuptake transporter causing accumulation of 5-HT (a precursor to serotonin)

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12
Q

What are the 3 side effects of anti-depressants?

A

Anxiety, insomnia, GIT problems

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13
Q

What are the interactions of anti-depressants?

A

5-HTP – additive effect as 5-HTP is a precursor to serotonin and st.john wort – additive effect

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14
Q

What is the mode of action of Benzodiazepines?

A

Bind to GABA causes an increase in GABA A receptor activity which relaxes muscles

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15
Q

What are the indications for Benzodiazepines?

A

Muscle relaxant, insomnia, minimizes drug withdrawal

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16
Q

What are the 2 side effects of Benzodiazepines?

A

Drowsiness, muscle weakness

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17
Q

What is the 3 mode of action for Parkinson disease drugs?

A

Dopamine pre-cursors (L-dopa) is release, agonist of dopamine or inhibits breakdown of dopamine (either MAOB inhibitors or COMT inhibitors)

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18
Q

What is the interaction for parkinson’s disease drugs?

A

B6 will enhance the effects of these drugs because B6 is necessary to convert levodopa to dopamine. B6 is used by the enzyme aromatic amino acid decarboxylase

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19
Q

What is the mode of action for decongestants?

A

Epherdrine constricts nasal blood vessels limiting oedema and nasal secretions

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20
Q

What indication is for decongestants?

A

Nasal congestion

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21
Q

What are 2 side effects of decongestants?

A

Local irritation, headache

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22
Q

What substance can cause adverse side effects such as hypertension with decongestants?

A

caffeine

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23
Q

What is the mode of action for anti-histamines?

A

Antagonizing H1 histamine receptor

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24
Q

What 3 diseases do people take anti-histamines for?

A

Allergies, hay fever, pruritis

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25
Q

What are 2 side effects of anti-histamines?

A

Muscle pain, drowsiness, arrhythmias(rare)

Drowsiness, dry mouth (with drowsy anti-histamines)

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26
Q

What interaction is there for anti-histamines?

A

Quercetin – work similarly and enhance drug effects

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27
Q

What are the 2 modes of action for mast cell stabilizers?

A

Stabilizes mast cell membranes and prevents histamine release

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28
Q

What are mast cell stabilizers used for? (2)

A

Hayfever and allergies

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29
Q

What are 2 side effects of mast cell stabilizers?

A

Throat irritation, cough, nausea

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30
Q

What is the mode of action for corticosteroids when taken for asthma?

A

Depresses inflammation in bronchial mucosa

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31
Q

What are some side effects (3) for corticosteroids?

A

Cushings syndrome, immune system suppressed, candidiasis, adrenal suppression

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32
Q

What food interacts with corticosteroids?

A

Liquorice – can potentiate duration of corticosteroids

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33
Q

What is the mode of action for statins?

A

Inhibit HMG reductase – enzymes involved with cholesterol synthesis

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34
Q

What are some (2) side effects of statins?

A

GIT probs, fatigue, headaches

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35
Q

What nutrient causes interaction with statins?

A

Red yeast competes with HMG-CoA reductase and increase lowering blood cholesterol

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36
Q

What is the mode of action for anti-coagulants?

A

Block vitamin k

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37
Q

What 2 conditions do anti-coagulants treat?

A

DV thrombosis, pulmonary embolism

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38
Q

What is the main side effect of anti-coagulants?

A

haemorrhage

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39
Q

What is the main nutrient, which causes interactions with anti-coagulants

A

Vitamin E inhibits platelet aggregation and interferes with vit K production causing an additive effect.

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40
Q

What is the mode of action for nitrates?

A

Nitrates decomposes to nitric oxide which is a vasodilator

41
Q

What 2 conditions do nitrates treat?

A

Angina, left ventricular failures

42
Q

What are 2 side effects of nitrates?

A

Hypotension, tachycardia, dizziness

43
Q

What interact is involved with nitrates?

A

L-arginine converts to NO by NOS (nitric oxide synthase – enzyme) and enhances effects of nitrates

44
Q

Alpha-adrenoreceptor blockers – What is the mode of action?

A

Block adrenaline receptors which normally causes vasoconstriction but blocking it causes vasodilation.

45
Q

What condition does alpha-adrenoreceptor blocks treat?

A

Resistant hypertension, BPH

46
Q

What are 3 side effects of alpha-adrenoreceptor blockers?

A

Hypotension, tachycardia, dizziness, GIT problems

47
Q

What nutrient enhances the effects of alpha-adrenoreceptor blockers?

A

CoQ10 can enhance arterial relaxation so it will enhance the drugs effects

48
Q

What is the mode of action for Ca channel blockers?

A

Blocks influx of Ca to heart and vascular muscle

49
Q

What diseases (2) does Ca channel blockers treat?

A

Angina and hypertension

50
Q

What is the main caution needed to be considered with Ca-channel blockers?

A

Withdrawal needs to be slowly done to prevent liver/kidney impairment

51
Q

What is the mode of action for angiotensin II antagonist?

A

Block action of angiotensin II at angiotensin receptor which stops vasoconstriction

52
Q

What indications (2) uses angiotensin II antagonist?

A

Heart failure and hypertension

53
Q

What are 2 side effects of angiotensin II antagonist?

A

Hypotension, electrolyte imbalance, renal impairment

54
Q

What is the mode of action for beta blockers?

A

Beta blockers block noradrenaline (normally causes narrow arteries and heart beats faster) but beta blockers causes arteries to widen, slows heart and decreases force of contraction

55
Q

What 4 conditions/diseases uses beta blockers?

A

Angina, hypertension, heart attack, diabetes

56
Q

What are 2 side effects of beta blockers?

A

GIT probs, hypotension, shortness of breath

57
Q

What is the mode of action for diuretics?

A

Increase water reuptake of primary filtrate from the loop of henle which decreases blood vol and pressure

58
Q

What 2 conditions use diuretics?

A

Hypertension, heart failure, oedema

59
Q

What are 2 side effects of diuretics?

A

Hypotension, GIT probs, diabetes, gout

60
Q

Explain how calcium interacts with thiazide diuretics.

A

Causes milk-alkali syndrome which causes renal failure because thiazide reduce Ca excretion

61
Q

What is the mode of action for cardiac glycosides?

A

Increases Ca influx causing increases in myocardium force of contraction

62
Q

What are 2 indications for cardiac glycosides?

A

Heart failure, atrial fibrillation

63
Q

What are 4 side effects of cardiac glycosides?

A

Mg decrease, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia

64
Q

What is the difference between osmotic and stimulant laxatives?

A

Osmotic laxative – stimulates peristalsis by increasing faecal mass or using magnesium sulfate to increase water in colon drawing fluid from body.
Stimulant laxative – increase intestinal motility

65
Q

What is the main side effect of laxatives?

A

Lazy bowel

66
Q

What is the mode of action for PPIs?

A

Inhibit proton pump in gastric parietal cells

67
Q

What 2 indications use PPIs?

A

GERD, ulcers, NSAIDs, H.pyloric + 2 antibiotics

68
Q

What are 2 side effects of PPIs?

A

Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation

69
Q

What is the difference between general sale list (GSL), pharmacy only medication (P) and prescription only medication (POM)?

A

GSL - able to be sold anywhere, limit on strength
P - only sold in pharmacy and supervised by a pharmacist
POM - only sold on prescription

70
Q

What are controlled drugs?

A

e.g. morphine
Controls on who may prescribe, how the prescription is written, how much is prescribed and how the medicines are stored in pharmacy

71
Q

How are drugs named?

A

3 names: proprietary or brand name, generic name and chemical name

72
Q

What are some predictable adverse effects?

A

exaggerated physiological effect, side effect, toxicity, cumulative toxicity, latrogenic (caused by physician)

73
Q

What are some unpredictable adverse effects?

A

Allergy - hypersensitivity reaction to a drug

idiosyncratic - disturbance in enzyme function, congenital or acquired

74
Q

What is the difference between pharmodynamics and pharmacokinetics?

A

Pharmacodynamics - what the drug does to the body.

Pharmacokinetic - what the body does to the drug; absorption, metabolism and elimination of drug

75
Q

What are 5 considerations for administration methods?

A

cheap, easy to administer, good patient compliance, speed of onset, bioavailability

76
Q

What are some enteral administrations?

A

oral - tablets, capsules, powders
sublingual (under the tongue) - bypass first pass effect
enemas/suppositories - bypass first pass effect

77
Q

What administration bypass first pass effect?

A

enemas/suppositories and sublinguals

78
Q

What are parenteral administration? Why do we use parenteral administration?

A

(injection, inhalation, topical) routes are rapid, good for drugs poorly absorbed from gut, irritants

79
Q

What are the 4 types of injections?

A

subcutaneous, intra-muscular, intravenous, intra-arterial

80
Q

Whats an example of a drug that can accumulate in body tissues?

A

tetracyclines have an affinity for calcium and accumulate in bones
chloroquine (anti-malarial) is attracted to melanin and accumulates in retina causing retinopathy

81
Q

What is the blood brain barrier?

A

protective mechanism that stops harmful substances from reaching the brain. Astrocytes maintain tight junctions that create a barrier between capillaries and brain tissue

82
Q

What is the first pass effect?

A

if drugs are administered orally they are absorbed into the portal circulation and go directly to liver causing drug concentration to be reduced and bioavailability to be reduced

83
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

degree of absorption of active substances into bloodstream following oral doses

84
Q

What is meant by enteric-coating?

A

drugs designed to withstand action of stomach acid by coat in in acid insoluble layer

85
Q

What are 4 factors which affect drug metabolism?

A

age, sex, genetic, factors affect CP450 (inducer or inhibitors

86
Q

What is the difference between phase I and phase II metabolism in the liver?

A

Phase I - drug is made more lipophobic to reduce chance of reabsorption by kidney
Phase II - conjugate to reduce it effects and aid excretion

87
Q

What is the cytochrome P-450?

A

it a series of enzymes which help phase I work turning toxins into polar less lipid soluble molecules

88
Q

How are drugs excreted?

A

renal excretion - drugs that are lipid soluble

hepatic excretion - biles is a major excretion route

89
Q

What is meant by half life?

A

the time it takes for a drugs concentration in the body to fall by half

90
Q

What is meant by a loading dose?

A

a large dose is given initially follow by small maintenance doses to help the drug reach therapeutic levels faster

91
Q

What is the difference between an agonist and antagonist?

A

Agonist - drug binds to receptors and stimulates response

antagonist - drug that binds to a receptor and blocks the effect of an agonist

92
Q

Why is grapefruit a common interaction between drugs and food?

A

grapefruit selectively inhibits CYP3A4 (an enzymes in p450) so grapefruit does not break down CYP34A substrates and increases peak levels

93
Q

What other food causes similar interactions to grapefruit?

A

pomegranate juice

94
Q

What food causes interaction in MAOI anti-depressants?

A

tyramine - aubergine, avo, figs, grapes

95
Q

What is the worst offender for nutrient depletion?

A

Antacids - neutralising stomach acid

96
Q

What interaction is for antacids?

A

vitamin D - stimulates a protein to transport calcium which also binds and transport Al. Increase Al levels can lead to toxicity

97
Q

What are 5 side effects of the oral contraceptive pill?

A

nausea, vomiting, weight gain, breast tenderness, hypertension

98
Q

What are oestrogen agonist for?

A

management of menopause symptoms

99
Q

What nutrient is interacted with oestrogen agonists?

A

vit C

Nutrition Y 2 Exam 1 (8 decks)

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