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Nutrition Y 2 Exam 1 > Assessment and diagnostics > Flashcards

Assessment and diagnostics Flashcards

1
Q

What are 4 examples of anthropometric testing?

A

waist, BMI, weight, body composition, heigh, waist-hip ratio

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2
Q

What can we use stool to investigate?

A

detection of parasites, yeast or bacteria; digestive function

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3
Q

What can we use saliva to test?

A

DNA, hormones, antibodies

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4
Q

What are 4 urine investigations?

A

hormones, intestinal permeability, detox metabolites, toxic metal clearance, mitochondria metabolites, bone turnover rate

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5
Q

What is an example of non-invasive and invasive tests?

A

Non-invasive: saliva, urine, stool

Invasive: blood

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6
Q

What 4 investigations can be done with blood?

A

blood glucose, nutritional status, allergies, homocysteine levels, lipid and cholesterol levels

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7
Q

What 2 measures can be made with hair?

A

minerals and toxic metal levels

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8
Q

What tests can be done in clinic? (6)

A

waist, waist-hip ratio, height, blood spotting test, urine dipstick, BMI, bio-impedance analysis

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9
Q

What is an adv and disadv of BMI?

A

Adv - indicator of CVD and type 2 diabetes

Disadv - cannot be used on learn muscular athletes

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10
Q

What are the RF numbers for waist numbers?

A

102 men

88 women

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11
Q

What are the numbers for waist-hip ratio indicating increased risk of CVD and type 2 diabetes?

A

> 0.9 men

>0.85 women

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12
Q

describe how bio impedance analysis works.

A

send an electric impulse through the body and the resistance is measure. Fat and muscle resist at different rates

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13
Q

Explain how the size of RBC determines the cause of anaemia.

A

small RBC - iron or B6 deficiency anaemia

large RBC - B12 or folate deficiency anaemia

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14
Q

Explain how the MCH determines the cause of anaemia.

A

high haemoglobin - B12 or folate

low haemoglobin - iron or B2

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15
Q

What is platelet count for?

A

evaluate blooding disorders

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16
Q

What is microcytic hypo chromic? What is macrocytic normochronic?

A

microcytic hypochronic - small, pale RBC (iron or B6)

Macro normochromic - large, normal coloured RBC (folate or B12)

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17
Q

What does serum ferritin indicate? What does ferritin have to drop below to indicate this disease?

A

most sensitive lab test for iron deficiency

33ug/L

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18
Q

What does high ferritin levels indicates?

A

high levels indicate CVD, cancer and oxidative stress

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19
Q

What is transferrin for?

A

iron is transport in blood bound to a protein called transferrin.

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20
Q

What is there reference range for transferrin? What does low and high transferrin indicate?

A

44.8-62.7 umol/L
low - haemochromatosis
high - iron deficiency anaemia

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21
Q

Explain why it is necessary to do B12 testing for anaemia.

A

we need to do B12 because full blood count can indicate anaemia but cannot be easily differentiate between folate and B12

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22
Q

Explain why MMA is tested alongside B12 for anaemia

A

MMA is necessary to help determine how B12 is used as a coenzyme. High MMA indicates low B12 because MMA converts to succinyl-CoA when there is sufficient B12.

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23
Q

What is the gold standard of B12 testing?

A

holotranscobalamin because it is the transport protein which uptakes B12 into cells

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24
Q

What is C-reactive protein for?

A

general marker for inflammation and infection

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25
Q

What is ESR used for and stand for?

A

It is the rate at which erythrocytes settle out of anti-coagulation in 1 hr and indicates inflammation

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26
Q

What does low ESR indicate

A

polycythemia, sickle cell anaemia, congestive heart disease

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27
Q

What is ALT and AST used to indicate?

A

ALT and AST indicate the degree of inflammation

ALT indicates liver damage only whereas AST indicate muscle damage in other organs like cardiovascular

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28
Q

What is ALP for and what does it indicate?

A

Alkaline phosphatase; enzymes found mainly in bile ducts of the liver and low levels indicate zinc deficiency

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29
Q

What is gamma GT a marker for? And what must be over to indicate high levels of this?

A

Marker for oxidation and over 40 for high oxidative damage

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30
Q

What diseases does LD (lactate dehydrogenase) indicate?

A

liver disease and myocardial disease, skeletal disease, liver disease, muscle disorders

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31
Q

What does the LFT test indicate?

A

inflammation and infection, damage of liver

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32
Q

What is the difference between LDL, HDL and VLDL?

A

LDL – cholesterol from liver to cells, HDL – cholesterol from cells to liver, VLDL – newly synthesized triglycerides move from liver to adipose tissue

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33
Q

What is hyperlipidaemia?

A

high lipid levels

34
Q

What is dyslipidemia?

A

disorder of lipoprotein metabolism include lipoprotein overproduction or deficiency

35
Q

Name 4 diseases which cause high TG.

A

overweight, diabetes, PCOS, hypothyroidism

36
Q

What are good markers for insulin resistance in overweight patients?

A

TG/HCL ratio

37
Q

What diseases do FSH indicate?

A

gonadal hypo function and suspected pituitary tumour

38
Q

what disease do high LH indicate?

A

primary gonadal failure

39
Q

What test confirms PCOS?

A

high FSH/LH

40
Q

What are increased testosterone levels in females and males indicate?

A

hiureutism in females, decreased level =testosterone failure in males

41
Q

What does progesterone indicate?

A

investigates fertility

42
Q

What 3 disease do PSAs indicate?

A

benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostate cancer, prostatitis,

43
Q

what does high TSH and low TSH indicate?

A

high - hypothyroidism

low - hyperthyroidism

44
Q

What is the RAST test?

A

test for IgE antibodies to diagnose allergies

45
Q

what is the first line of allergy testing?

A

skin prick allergy testing

46
Q

What diseases are indicated by high and low levels of WBC?

A

high - high adrenal levels, high refined food intake, intestinal parasites, asthma, adrenal dysfunction
low - raw food diet, food allergies, B12, B6 and folate anaemia, chronic intestinal parasite

47
Q

What does MMA stand for?

A

Methylmalonic acid

48
Q

What are some over the counter tests?

A

blood glucose, blood cholesterol, food intolerances, PSA, litmus paper (pH saliva/urine), pregnancy test/ovulation test, H.pylori test

49
Q

How do I calculate BMI?

A

weight/(H x H)

50
Q

How do you take waist circumference?

A

find top of hip bone, find bottom of rib cage. mid point between. Breath in and take measurement

51
Q

How do you calculate hip-waist ratio?

A

Gw/Gh

52
Q

What do high homocysteine levels indicate?

A

risk for CVD, strokes and other inflammatory diseases

53
Q

What does haemoglobin A1C/glycated haemoglobin for?

A

blood glucose levels over past 3-4 month

54
Q

What insulin levels indicate hypoglycaemia?

A

less than 5 mU/L

55
Q

What are auto-antibiodies?

A

immunoglobulins towards self that are high in autoimmune states

56
Q

What are the 3 thyroid antibodies we can test for?

A

anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO), anti-thyroglobulin antibodies (TG), anti-thyrotropin receptor (TRAbs) antibodies

57
Q

What do subclinical hypothyroidism test results show?

A

high TSH but normal T4

58
Q

What are the disadvantages of RAST test?

A

expensive, you need to know what specific antibodies are tested

59
Q

how do skin prick allergy testing work?

A

localised IgE mediated histamine release by mast cells causes a red, swollen, itchy skin

60
Q

List 8 common IgE allergens.

A

latex, peanut, dog fur, penicillin, egg, gluten, cows milk, cheese

61
Q

What is the most nutritionally relevant vit D test?

A

25-OH-Vitamin D

62
Q

What do low levels of vit D indicate?

A

increased inflammation, autoimmunity, cancer, infections

63
Q

What is number is vit D consider deficient?

A

25 nmol/L is agree to be deficient but 50nmol/L is what many labs believe

64
Q

What is gold zone for vitamin D?

A

70-80nmol/L

65
Q

What is organic acid testing?

A

tested via urine for organic acids, provides a metabolic snap shot of a clients overall health giving neurotransmitter health, digestive state, mitochondrial health and detox ability

66
Q

How can we test for food intolerances?

A

IgE mediated allergies (true allergy - involves degranulation of mast cells) or IgG mediated intolerances (not truly immunologically mediated)

67
Q

how do IgE mediated allergies work?

A

IgE antibodies form to an antigen and then bind to mast cells receptors triggering mast cell degranulation and histamine release

68
Q

How does increased sensitivity to food happen?

A

IgG antibodies and regular exposure to a unvaried diet, along with leaky gut increases sensitivity to foods

69
Q

Why would a client react to food?

A

lack of chewing, low HCl, leaky gut, candida, lack of beneficial bacteria, inflammatory processes

70
Q

How can we test for intestinal permeability?

A

sugar absorption, urinary excretion test, zonulin tests (stool or serum), lipolysaccharides in serum tests

71
Q

How does sugar absorption tests work?

A

low digestible disaccharide solution - urine is collected after ingestion and the presence of sugar detected giving a marker for intestinal permeability

72
Q

How does zonulin mark raised intestinal permeability?

A

protein that opens gap junctions in response to infection. linked to coeliacs and diabetes type 2

73
Q

How do lipopolysaccharidess act as a marker for intestinal permeability?

A

lipopolysaccharides (LPS) are what covers the outer walls of gram neg bacteria which activates the immune system. High levels = inflammation, autoimmune

74
Q

What is SIBO?

A

normal commensal flora from large intestine which have transmigrated or growth out of balance in SI

75
Q

When do we test for SIBO?

A

bloating, excessive burping, halitosis and flatulance but symptoms get work with sulphur food, diarrhoar, constipation (worse with fibre), symptoms worsen with probiotics

76
Q

How do we test for SIBO?

A

breath test to detect hydrogen/methane levels because high levels of bacteria ferment lactulose which produces these gases so we must give lactulose to the person first

77
Q

What is salivary full hormone profile?

A

several collection points throughout month and looks at melatonin, DHEA and cortisol levels

78
Q

What do serum hormonal tests test?

A

progesterone, oestradiol, testosterone, LH and FSH

79
Q

what are dried urine analysis for?

A

overview of sex and adrenal hormones alongside metabolites, used with day 19-22

80
Q

what nutrients can hair analysis test us about?

A

ca, mg, na, k, cu, zn, fe, Se, cr, mn, p, co, b

also mercury and cadmium (heavy metals)

Nutrition Y 2 Exam 1 (8 decks)

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