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Nutrition CNC > Nutrition Review Test 5 > Flashcards

Nutrition Review Test 5 Flashcards

1
Q

During a regular meeting, a client is complaining of irregular gastrointestinal issues, ranging from diarrhea to constipation. What is the best course of action?

a. Advise him to make an appointment with his personal physician.
b. Advise him to eat more vegetables and drink more water.
c. Evaluate his prescription medications to look for similar side effects.
d. Closely monitor his situation and re-evaluate during the next meeting.

A

a. Advise him to make an appointment with his personal physician.

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2
Q

When working with a client who has been complaining of low back pain that has been getting worse, what is the most appropriate recommendation?

a. Recommend use of over-the-counter anti-inflammatory medications.
b. Tell her to use a heating pad when the pain gets bad.
c. Refer her to a certified personal trainer.
d. Refer her to a chiropractor.

A

d. Refer her to a chiropractor.

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3
Q

Where might a Nutrition Coach find reputable information on recent dietary guidelines?

a. Celebrity blogs
b. Private, for-profit supplement companies
c. Government-funded agencies
d. Popular magazines

A

c. Government-funded agencies

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4
Q

A client confides that she is taking laxatives to help her lose weight. What is the best course of action?

a. Tell her to eat more fiber as that will help.
b. Refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist.
c. Refer her to a Registered Dietitian.
d. Tell her that regular use of laxatives are bad for her digestive tract.

A

b. Refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist.

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5
Q

One of the roles of a Nutrition Coach is to help facilitate weight loss. Which of the following would be most appropriate to recommend for the overweight client?

a. Give up bread and avoid gluten.
b. Drink a protein shake instead of eating lunch.
c. Limit carbohydrates to 35% of the diet.
d. Refer to a certified personal trainer for a resistance training program.

A

d. Refer to a certified personal trainer for a resistance training program.

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6
Q

Scientists perform a study comparing 1000 women with breast cancer to 1000 women without breast cancer. They gather information on the women’s diets and look to see if the women diagnosed with breast cancer had more fat in their diet compared to the women who did not get cancer. Which term best describes this study?

a. Cross-sectional study
b. Case-control study
c. Cohort study
d. Survey

A

b. Case-control study

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7
Q

Which term refers to the ability to get similar results when something is measured under the same conditions?

a. External validity
b. Test-retest reliability
c. Generalizability
d. Validity

A

b. Test-retest reliability

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8
Q

A scientist hypothesizes that a supplement will increase resistance training performance. A study is carried out, and the results do not support the hypothesis. Multiple studies by independent labs also fail to support the hypothesis. What is the appropriate response regarding the hypothesis?

a. The predictions have been falsified and the hypothesis is discarded.
b. The predictions have been confirmed but the hypothesis is discarded.
c. The predictions have been falsified but the hypothesis is upheld.
d. The hypothesis should continue to be tested.

A

a. The predictions have been falsified and the hypothesis is discarded.

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9
Q

A scientist hypothesizes that a supplement will improve fat loss by suppressing appetite. Which item represents a prediction generated by this hypothesis?

a. Subjects will lose fat after taking the supplement with no change in the amount of food consumed.
b. Subjects will eat less after taking the supplement compared to when they do not take it.
c. Subjects will eat a similar amount of food after taking the supplement compared to when they do not take it.
d. Subjects taking the supplement will lose a similar amount of fat as subjects who do not take it.

A

b. Subjects will eat less after taking the supplement compared to when they do not take it.

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10
Q

How many dimensions of wellness are there?

a. Three
b. Five
c. Four
d. Six

A

d. Six

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11
Q

What foods elicit faster satiety-signal responses?

a. Fats and simple sugars
b. Water and simple sugars
c. Processed foods and soda
d. Carbohydrates and proteins

A

d. Carbohydrates and proteins

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12
Q

Which of the following is true about portion sizes in America during the past decade?

a. They have increased dramatically.
b. They have dramatically reduced.
c. They have not changed.
d. They have changed little.

A

a. They have increased dramatically.

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13
Q

Dietary habits associated with a lower incidence of cancer rates include which of the following?

a. Eating foods low in antioxidants
b. Eating foods high in antioxidants
c. Eating high glycemic index foods
d. Decreasing dietary calcium intake

A

b. Eating foods high in antioxidants

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14
Q

What is the end-result of inadequate rest?

a. Reduced RMR
b. Increased RMR
c. Reduced TEA
d. Increased TEF

A

a. Reduced RMR

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15
Q

Which hormone is referred to as the hunger hormone because it stimulates appetite, increases food intake, and promotes fat storage?

a. Ghrelin
b. NPY Neuropeptide Y
c. Leptin
d. Cholecystokinin

A

a. Ghrelin

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16
Q

Which of the following is best described as the energy consumed for fuel to support and maintain normal body functions like temperature regulation?

a. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
b. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
c. Thermic effect of feeding (TEF)
d. Thermic effect of activity (TEA)

A

b. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

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17
Q

Which is one of the key features that distinguishes life from non-life?

a. Gravity
b. Environment
c. Temperature
d. Metabolism

A

d. Metabolism

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18
Q

Which of the following is true about high-protein snacks?

a. Protein-based snacks will enhance satiety and weight loss regardless of their fat or carbohydrate content.
b. Protein-based snacks offer no benefit to satiety or weight loss.
c. Protein-based snacks without excess fats or carbohydrates can enhance satiety and, therefore, weight loss.
d. Protein-based snacks can help with satiety and weight loss, but only if they are low in fat.

A

c. Protein-based snacks without excess fats or carbohydrates can enhance satiety and, therefore, weight loss.

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19
Q

An existing client has been doing very well with meeting daily dietary recommendations with a 3-meal per day eating pattern, and they have met their goal to reach a healthy body weight with increased muscle tone. They express they would like to now pursue a new goal of a doing a physique competition within the next 12 months. Should the Nutrition Coach recommend they eat more or less frequently to help them meet their goals?

a. A Nutrition Coach should recommend they eat less frequent meals because it is not possible to get the low body fat necessary for such a competition eating 3 or more meals per day.
b. A Nutrition Coach does not need to make any recommendations because the goal is not that extreme.
c. A Nutrition Coach should recommend they continue eating 3 meals per day because protein timing is not important whatsoever.
d. A Nutrition Coach should recommend they eat more frequent meals because they can more frequently stimulate muscle growth.

A

d. A Nutrition Coach should recommend they eat more frequent meals because they can more frequently stimulate muscle growth.

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20
Q

A new client with goals to lose a little body fat and build a little bit of muscle describes their current eating pattern as normal, consisting of breakfast, lunch, dinner, and sometimes a snack or dessert. Should a Nutrition Coach recommend they eat more or less frequently to help them meet their goals?

a. Nutrition Coaches should recommend they stop eating snacks because grazing can lead to weight gain.
b. Nutrition Coaches should recommend they eat more frequently because they may reach their goals faster.
c. No changes to meal frequency should be recommended.
d. Nutrition Coaches should recommend they eat less frequently because they may reach their goals faster.

A

c. No changes to meal frequency should be recommended.

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21
Q

In general, what sources are complete proteins?

a. All foods containing at least 10g of protein
b. Plant-based products
c. Foods labeled “high protein”
d. Animal-based products

A

d. Animal-based products

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22
Q

What are complementary protein sources?

a. 2 foods with incomplete proteins that, when eaten together, supply all the necessary essential amino acids
b. Meat and vegetables
c. Foods which do not cause any gastrointestinal discomfort
d. Any combination of plant-based foods

A

a. 2 foods with incomplete proteins that, when eaten together, supply all the necessary essential amino acids

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23
Q

According to the Center for Science in the Public Interest (CSPI), how many calories from added sugar are recommended for men on a daily basis?

a. A limit of 100 calories
b. A limit of 200 calories
c. A limit of 250 calories
d. A limit of 150 calories

A

d. A limit of 150 calories

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24
Q

In which part of the body does carbohydrate digestion begin?

a. It begins in the jejunum with pancreatic amylase.
b. It begins in the duodenum with sodium bicarbonate.
c. It begins in the stomach with gastric juices.
d. It begins in the mouth with salivary amylase.

A

d. It begins in the mouth with salivary amylase.

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25
Q

Which statement reflects a factual truth regarding high fructose corn syrup (HFCS)?

a. HFCS is preferred over cane sugar by most food companies because it is cheaper to manufacture and has a longer shelf life.
b. HFCS leads to a greater risk of obesity, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes compared to cane sugar.
c. HFCS has been positively connected to elevated levels of obesity versus cane sugar.
d. HFCS has nearly double the amount of calories per serving compared to organic cane sugar.

A

a. HFCS is preferred over cane sugar by most food companies because it is cheaper to manufacture and has a longer shelf life.

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26
Q

What glycemic score ranks a carbohydrate food as a medium GI food?

a. GI score between 45-55
b. GI score between 70-80
c. GI score between 56-69
d. GI score between 35-55

A

c. GI score between 56-69

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27
Q

What is the recommended amount of added sugar suggested by the American Heart Association for American adult women?

a. A limit of 11 added teaspoons
b. A limit of 9 added teaspoons
c. A limit of 6 added teaspoons
d. A limit of 4 added teaspoons

A

c. A limit of 6 added teaspoons

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28
Q

What is a good source of alpha-linoleic acids (ALA)?

a. Mackerel
b. Walnuts
c. Crab
d. Salmon

A

b. Walnuts

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29
Q

What is a good source of monounsaturated fatty acids?

a. Coconut oil
b. Flaxseed oil
c. Canola oil
d. Soybean oil

A

c. Canola oil

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30
Q

What is true of Bulletproof® coffee?
Select one:
a. It is proven harmful for people with epilepsy.
b. It significantly reduces LDL cholesterol.
c. It has a low saturated fat content level.
d. It can increase daily caloric intake up to 1,000 calories.

A

d. It can increase daily caloric intake up to 1,000 calories.

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31
Q

Bile is an example of which of the following?

a. A phospholipid
b. An enzyme
c. An emulsifier
d. A micelle

A

c. An emulsifier

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32
Q

What is defined as a combination of fat and protein that transports cholesterol and other lipids to and from various tissues through the blood?

a. Lipoprotein
b. Enzyme
c. Triglyceride
d. Amino acid

A

a. Lipoprotein

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33
Q

What is ethanol’s function in the body?

a. It provides important vitamins and minerals.
b. It improves cognitive function and acts as a stimulant.
c. It has no function; it is a toxin.
d. It provides energy, like the other macronutrients.

A

c. It has no function; it is a toxin.

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34
Q

Why is breath alcohol level used as a measure of intoxication?

a. Because a small amount of ethanol stays in the mouth after being consumed
b. Because small amounts of ethanol are excreted in the breath
c. Because ethanol in the blood flowing to the mouth and head is excreted through the tissue inside the mouth
d. Because the end products of alcohol metabolism are excreted in the breath and can be measured by a breathalyzer

A

b. Because small amounts of ethanol are excreted in the breath

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35
Q

Flushing of the skin after consuming alcohol is typically associated with which deficiency?

a. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase deficiency
b. Lactate dehydrogenase deficiency
c. Acetyl-CoA synthetase deficiency
d. Alcohol dehydrogenase deficiency

A

a. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase deficiency

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36
Q

Based on the U.S. style eating pattern, how much energy should come from discretionary sources?

a. 0.05
b. 0.14
c. 0.08
d. 0.18

A

b. 0.14

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37
Q

Deficiencies in vitamin C can lead to which of the following?

a. Rickets
b. Scurvy
c. Anemia
d. Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

b. Scurvy

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38
Q

Deficiencies in vitamin E can lead to which of the following?

a. Slurred speech
b. Deafness
c. Blindness
d. Sarcopenia

A

a. Slurred speech

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39
Q

What is the group of compounds that make up the vitamin A family called?

a. Retinoids
b. Prostaglandins
c. Tocopherols
d. Eicosanoids

A

a. Retinoids

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40
Q

Vitamin C deficiencies occur in what percentage of the population of the United States?

a. 0.07
b. 0.1
c. 0.03
d. 0.22

A

a. 0.07

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41
Q

Which of the following scenarios would create the most optimal conditions for decreasing body temperature increase during exercise if the temperature and humidity were equal under each training scenario?

a. Running on a treadmill
b. Completing a step class
c. Completing a spin class
d. Cycling for an hour outdoors at 20 miles/hour

A

d. Cycling for an hour outdoors at 20 miles/hour

42
Q

A client’s pre-exercise weight is 80.0 kg. Their post-exercise weight is 78.0 kg. They consumed 1.0 liters of fluid during training. What was the volume of their sweat loss?

a. 3.0 liters
b. 2.0 liters
c. 1.0 liter
d. 2.5 liters

A

a. 3.0 liters

43
Q

Which two methods are most likely to be used to assess change in hydration status in the medical and exercise environments, respectively?

a. Both environments would use change in body mass
b. Both environments would use plasma osmolality
c. Change in body mass and plasma osmolality
d. Plasma osmolality and change in body mass

A

d. Plasma osmolality and change in body mass

44
Q

Which of the following terms describes an individual who is adequately hydrated?

a. Anhydrated
b. Euhydrated
c. Hyperhydrated
d. Hypohydrated

A

b. Euhydrated

45
Q

What season is best suited for an athlete to attempt to lose weight or gain muscle?

a. Post-season
b. In-season
c. Pre-season
d. Off-season

A

d. Off-season

46
Q

What does the Institute of Medicine recommend for protein intake?

a. 70-85% of total energy
b. 10-35% of total energy
c. 40-50% of total energy
d. 55-65% of total energy

A

b. 10-35% of total energy

47
Q

What type of nourishment should an athlete consume during an endurance event lasting over 60 minutes?

a. Solid foods low on the glycemic index
b. High-fiber carbohydrates
c. Transportable carbohydrates (soft gels)
d. Foods high in fat content

A

c. Transportable carbohydrates (soft gels)

48
Q

What does the phrase “hitting the wall” mean?

a. Most of the person’s triglycerides have been used up and the body is trying to convert other forms of stored energy (carbohydrate and protein) to glucose.
b. Most of the muscle’s amino acids have been used up and the body is trying to convert other forms of stored energy (carbohydrate and fat) to glucose.
c. Most of the muscle glycogen stores have been used up and the body is trying to convert other forms of stored energy (lean tissue and fat) to glucose.
d. Most of the person’s glycerol and fatty acids have been used up and the body is trying to convert other forms of stored energy (amino acids and glycogen) to glucose.

A

c. Most of the muscle glycogen stores have been used up and the body is trying to convert other forms of stored energy (lean tissue and fat) to glucose.

49
Q

Which factor indicates a supplement is likely ineffective?

a. A systematic review and meta-analysis of the supplement ingredient(s) is available.
b. The dosage on the label matches what was used in well-designed research studies.
c. The dosage on the label does not match what was used in well-designed research studies.
d. The seal of a third party testing agency is present to verify the supplement contents match the label.

A

c. The dosage on the label does not match what was used in well-designed research studies.

50
Q

Which supplement acts as an acid buffering agent during high-intensity exercise between 60 seconds an 10 minutes?

a. Creatine
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Caffeine
d. MCTs

A

b. Sodium bicarbonate

51
Q

Complete protein refers to which of the following?

a. Protein sources excluding dairy and eggs
b. Protein from plant-based sources
c. Protein with all essential amino acids
d. Protein with all nonessential amino acids

A

c. Protein with all essential amino acids

52
Q

Good Manufacturing Practices for supplements includes which of the following?

a. Independent testing of supplements for contaminants such as heavy metals and pesticides
b. Standards and guidelines to ensure supplements are made properly.
c. Mandatory annual audits by the Food and Drug Administration
d. Independent testing of supplements to verify label accuracy

A

b. Standards and guidelines to ensure supplements are made properly.

53
Q

Which of the following is studied in the field of psychology?

a. Neurons and cells
b. Physiological pathways
c. The mind and behavior
d. Biological systems

A

c. The mind and behavior

54
Q

Which of the following defines empathy?

a. The ability to identify with another person’s feelings, attitudes, or thoughts
b. Being able to listen but not actually hear what a person is saying
c. Showing pity or sorrow for someone’s misfortunes
d. Being very upbeat and bubbly regardless of the situation

A

a. The ability to identify with another person’s feelings, attitudes, or thoughts

55
Q

Being motivated to eat due to spending time with others or to make social gatherings comfortable is an example of which eating motive?

a. Sociability
b. Social norm
c. Affect regulation
d. Traditional eating

A

a. Sociability

56
Q

Which of the following is based on objective, measurable variables such as height, weight, body fat percent, and waist circumference?

a. General physique
b. Comprehensive fitness
c. Physical ideal
d. Body reality

A

d. Body reality

57
Q

What is the goal of using positive nonverbal cues in communication?

a. Demonstrate confidence, care, and readiness to help
b. Demonstrate confidence in the program developed
c. Demonstrate knowledge, authority, and training
d. Demonstrate eagerness to get started

A

a. Demonstrate confidence, care, and readiness to help

58
Q

Which of the following is a term that represents non-job-specific skills that are related to how well one works with others?

a. Programming skills
b. Hard skills
c. Technical skills
d. Soft skills

A

d. Soft skills

59
Q

What best describes nonverbal communication?

a. The exchange of information through wordless cues
b. The emotional or perceived meaning of a word
c. The act of mindfully hearing and comprehending the meaning of words
d. The process of understanding what another person is feeling and experiencing

A

a. The exchange of information through wordless cues

60
Q

Which of the following is most likely to happen when there is a mismatch in verbal and nonverbal communication behaviors?

a. A lack of trust will be developed.
b. A comfortable environment will be established.
c. Rapport will be built.
d. Competence will be demonstrated.

A

a. A lack of trust will be developed.

61
Q

Which item best represents rapport?

a. A coaching approach in which program development is based on client preferences
b. A relationship based on mutual understanding and trust
c. Understanding of what the client is feeling and experiencing
d. Mindfully comprehending the meaning of words in a conversation

A

b. A relationship based on mutual understanding and trust

62
Q

Which construct is the least subject to change?

a. Values
b. Intentions
c. Goals
d. Attitudes

A

a. Values

63
Q

A client is not sure that they can reduce their intake of snacks at work, but their Nutrition Coach reminds them that they felt the same way when they thought they could not reduce their alcohol intake. The coach is using which of the following to increase this client’s self-efficacy for the specific task of reducing snacks?

a. Performance accomplishments
b. Vicarious experience
c. Verbal persuasion
d. Physiological states

A

c. Verbal persuasion

64
Q

A competing demand between a client’s desire to lose weight and their desire to eat chocolate characterizes which of the following?

a. The contemplation stage of change
b. Change talk
c. Ambivalence
d. Sustain talk

A

c. Ambivalence

65
Q

Which of the following is the theory that proposes that motivation lies on a continuum from amotivation, to extrinsic motivation, to intrinsic motivation?

a. Self-determination theory
b. Motivational interviewing
c. Self-efficacy theory
d. Social-cognitive theory

A

a. Self-determination theory

66
Q

What type of goal cannot result in a failure to be reached?

a. Do your best goal
b. Self-determined goal
c. Outcome goal
d. Process goal

A

a. Do your best goal

67
Q

According to research, which types of goals lead to higher levels of task performance?

a. Easy goals
b. Specific goals
c. No goals
d. Do you best goals

A

b. Specific goals

68
Q

What is a potential problem when undertaking a goal-setting program?

a. Setting too many goals
b. Setting process instead of outcome goals
c. Setting performance instead of do your best goals
d. Setting goals that are too specific

A

a. Setting too many goals

69
Q

Which two types of goals appear to be the most effective?

a. Subjective and do your best goals
b. Long-term and outcome goals
c. Process and performance goals
d. Outcome and subjective goals

A

c. Process and performance goals

70
Q

The average daily intake of a nutrient sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all (97 to 98 percent) healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group is known as which of the following?

a. Tolerable Upper Limit (UL)
b. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
c. Adequate Intake (AI)
d. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)

A

b. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)

71
Q

What is the recommended frequency for performing body composition assessments?

a. Every 1 – 2 days
b. Every 1 – 2 weeks
c. Every 1 – 2 months
d. Every 1 – 2 years

A

c. Every 1 – 2 months

72
Q

Which body composition assessment determines how easily electrical currents travel through the fluids of the body?

a. Air displacement plethysmography (ADP)
b. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)
c. Ultrasound imaging
d. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

A

d. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

73
Q

Which body assessment method counts all weight as equal, regardless of what the weight is made of?

a. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)
b. 2-compartment model
c. Body Mass Index (BMI)
d. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

A

c. Body Mass Index (BMI)

74
Q

Many vitamin and mineral supplements provide well over 100% of the Daily Value for those nutrients. Why is it important to review this information on a Supplement Facts label?

a. Supplements that provide less than 100% of the Daily Value are poor sources of those nutrients.
b. The amount provided may or may not be appropriate for an individual, and it should be evaluated in the context of the individual’s needs, diet, health, and medical recommendation (if necessary).
c. Individuals who need supplements will always require over 100% the Daily Value, so it is important to look for larger amounts.
d. We do not absorb 100% of the nutrients in supplements, so it is important to look for products that provide well over 100% of the DV.

A

b. The amount provided may or may not be appropriate for an individual, and it should be evaluated in the context of the individual’s needs, diet, health, and medical recommendation (if necessary).

75
Q

A brand of oatmeal claims that it is a “Good Source of Soluble Fiber” on its label. According to FDA labeling requirements, what must the Nutrition Facts label specify?

a. The percentage of soluble fiber in the package
b. The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for soluble fiber
c. The amount of soluble fiber in the specified serving size
d. The role of soluble fiber in a healthy diet

A

c. The amount of soluble fiber in the specified serving size

76
Q

Portion control guidelines that use the image of a ‘Healthy Eating Plate” generally recommend that protein foods comprise how much area on a plate?

a. Approximately a sixth of the plate
b. Approximately half of the plate
c. Approximately a third of the plate
d. Approximately a quarter of the plate

A

d. Approximately a quarter of the plate

77
Q

What is an appropriate visual approximation for fat at a meal for an average adult female who requires approximately 1500-1800 calories per day?

a. One thumb-sized portion
b. One mobile phone-sized portion
c. Two fist-sized portions
d. Two cupped-palm portions

A

a. One thumb-sized portion

78
Q

When dining out, certain key words on a menu can indicate how a dish has been prepared. In general, which preparation methods tend to be the healthiest (i.e. prepared with minimal added fat)?

a. Dishes that are oven-baked, pan-fried, stir-fried, and grilled
b. Dishes that are poached, steamed, roasted, or broiled (without added fat)
c. Dishes that are steamed, simmered, sautéed, and baked
d. Dishes that are grilled, braised, sautéed, or roasted

A

b. Dishes that are poached, steamed, roasted, or broiled (without added fat)

79
Q

B. J. Fogg’s behavior model proposes that three elements must converge in order for a behavior to happen. What are these three elements?

a. Ambition, confidence, and action
b. Motivation, ability, and a prompt
c. Planning, preparation, and action
d. Desire, action, and commitment

A

b. Motivation, ability, and a prompt

80
Q

What is one useful strategy that clients can employ at holiday potlucks and family dinners to stay on track with healthy eating?

a. Eat ahead of time and avoid eating at the event.
b. Offer to plan the menu.
c. Offer to bring a healthy dish to share.
d. Ask for the menu ahead of time.

A

c. Offer to bring a healthy dish to share.

81
Q

What is one tool that consumers can create and use to navigate and streamline their grocery shopping?

a. A recipe
b. A food log
c. A grocery list
d. An activity tracker

A

c. A grocery list

82
Q

How can meal prepping ahead of time help a client stay on track with making healthy food choices?

a. It enables them to buy healthy foods on a regular basis.
b. It increases the time they spend on meals.
c. It makes healthy foods easily available during busy times.
d. It allows them to spend longer on preparing meals.

A

c. It makes healthy foods easily available during busy times.

83
Q

Vegans will likely have lower muscle stores of what compound when compared to non-vegans?

a. Beta-alanine
b. Triglycerides
c. Creatine
d. Glycogen

A

c. Creatine

84
Q

Why is a flexible control of diet behaviors viewed as superior to a rigid control?

a. Unintentional higher protein intake
b. Less overeating and negative psychological outcomes
c. Greater reductions in blood glucose and insulin
d. More rapid fat loss

A

b. Less overeating and negative psychological outcomes

85
Q

Which scenario could indirectly lead to reduced calorie intake?

a. Supplementing with vitamin C
b. Increasing protein intake from a low to high intake
c. Adding coconut oil to each meal
d. Increasing consumption of hyperpalatable foods

A

b. Increasing protein intake from a low to high intake

86
Q

What is described as a feeding pattern in which an individual alternates between a day of fasting (up to about 500 kcal) and a day of “feeding” (typically ad libitum dieting)?

a. Cyclical fasting
b. Alternate day fasting
c. Calorie shifting
d. Calorie cycling

A

b. Alternate day fasting

87
Q

In research, a low-energy diet (LED) most commonly describes a diet of approximately how many daily calories?

a. 100 - 200 kcal/day
b. 400 - 500 kcal/day
c. 1,800 - 2,200 kcal/day
d. 800 - 1,200 kcal/day

A

d. 800 - 1,200 kcal/day

88
Q

The link between nonnutritive sweeteners and obesity in observational research can be explained by which of the following?

a. Statistical manipulation
b. Direct causality
c. Reverse causality
d. Publication bias

A

c. Reverse causality

89
Q

What is the reason that most studies researching the health effects of fructose are not relevant?

a. They are too short in duration.
b. They involve unhealthy participants.
c. They use unrealistic doses of fructose.
d. They use too low doses of fructose.

A

c. They use unrealistic doses of fructose.

90
Q

High-fructose corn syrup usually contains what percentage of fructose?

a. 75–85%
b. 45–55%
c. 55–65%
d. 65–75%

A

c. 55–65%

91
Q

Toxins and toxicants accumulate in humans primarily within which of the following?

a. Blood
b. Fat
c. Skin
d. Muscle

A

b. Fat

92
Q

Which of the following represents the best reason as to why resistance training may help with long-term weight maintenance?

a. Decreases appetite
b. Increases physical activity energy expenditure
c. Increases metabolism
d. Helps preserve fat-free mass

A

d. Helps preserve fat-free mass

93
Q

What types of foods are the best example of staples of a low energy density diet?

a. Cheese
b. Chips
c. Bread
d. Whole fruits and vegetables

A

d. Whole fruits and vegetables

94
Q

Your client tells their Nutrition Coach, “First the experts told us to decrease our fat intake, now they tell us to decrease our carb intake! I don’t know what to do.” Which psychological barrier to adherence does this represent?

a. Social and cultural context
b. Confusion
c. Situational barrier
d. Perception of choice

A

b. Confusion

95
Q

Which item represents a method for re-establishing an energy deficit after a plateau?

a. Choose foods with similar volume but fewer calories.
b. Choose foods with similar calories but more volume.
c. Increase meal frequency.
d. Increase protein intake to boost metabolism.

A

a. Choose foods with similar volume but fewer calories.

96
Q

A client’s previous diet involved a list of “good” or “bad” foods. Which characteristic of successful long-term weight maintenance would be useful for this client?

a. Intuitive eating
b. Self-efficacy
c. Flexible dietary control
d. Managing cravings

A

c. Flexible dietary control

97
Q

What is the division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages?

a. Weight cycling
b. Interval training
c. Periodization
d. Circuit training

A

c. Periodization

98
Q

What time frame is considered realistic for losing 10% of one’s body weight?

a. 2 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 month
d. 4 months

A

b. 6 months

99
Q

What are the three components that make up total daily energy expenditure?

a. Blood pressure, body mass index (BMI), waist-to-hip ratio
b. Basal metabolic rate, thermic effect of activity, thermic effect of food
c. Height, body fat percentage, resting heart rate
d. Age, weight, gender

A

b. Basal metabolic rate, thermic effect of activity, thermic effect of food

100
Q

What macronutrient is most affected by an individual’s training volume?

a. Vitamin B12
b. Protein
c. Fat
d. Carbohydrates

A

d. Carbohydrates

Nutrition CNC (6 decks)

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