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Nutrition CNC > Nutrition Review Test 1 > Flashcards

Nutrition Review Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

With which client would it be most appropriate for the nutrition coach to work?

a. Pre-diabetic
b. Post heart attack
c. Alcoholic
d. Overweight

A

d) Overweight

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2
Q

According to the SCOFF eating disorder assessment, how many positive answers might indicate an eating disorder?

a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 2

A

d. 2

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3
Q

Which statement best describes the health care continuum?

a. The health status of a client from sickness to wellness
b. The type of alternative health practices that are legitimately recognized
c. The number of physicians specialists that are in the healthcare system
d. The many disciplines that make up the healthcare system

A

d. The many disciplines that make up the healthcare system

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4
Q

It is not uncommon for clients to confide in the Nutrition Coach. Which client conversation would be grounds for a referral to a licensed healthcare professional?

a. Daily panic attacks
b. Self proclaimed “sugar addict”
c. Occasional constipation
d. Stress-eating from recent divorce

A

a. Daily panic attacks

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5
Q

A new client has just moved into the area. She states that she occasionally suffers from anxiety and panic attacks and needs to renew her prescription medications. To which healthcare professional should she be referred?

a. Psychiatrist
b. Physiologist
c. Podiatrist
d. Physiotherapist

A

a. Psychiatrist

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6
Q

Which term describes the phenomena when a group does not represent the population a scientist is intending to study?

a. Uncontrolled variable
b. Selection bias
c. Generalizability
d. Recall bias

A

b. Selection bias

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7
Q

A scientist proposes that sugar is inherently fattening, and performs a study comparing a high sugar diet to a low sugar diet with equal calories. He finds that fat gain was the same between the diets. Which term describes how this study affects the initial proposal?

a. Scientific method
b. Falsification
c. Prediction
d. Validity

A

b. Falsification

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8
Q

Which term refers to a hypothesis or set of hypotheses for which a large body of high quality evidence has been accumulated?

a. Prediction
b. Theory
c. Randomized controlled trial
d. Scientific method

A

b. Theory

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9
Q

Which of the following represents a strength of observational studies?

a. Large subject numbers
b. Can determine mechanisms for effects
c. High degree of control
d. Can establish cause and effect

A

a. Large subject numbers

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10
Q

Which of the following is the technical term for body measurements and calculations as they refer to metrics related to human characteristics?

a. Assessment
b. Composite
c. Scaled
d. Biometrics

A

d. Biometrics

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11
Q

A heart-healthy dietary recommendation includes which of the following?

a. Eating less whole grains
b. Reducing sodium intake
c. Eating more processed meats
d. Eating less fruits and vegetables

A

b. Reducing sodium intake

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12
Q

Elderly tend to have which of the following?

a. Lower dietary intake of vitamins
b. Higher intake of minerals not vitamins
c. Higher intake of vitamins
d. Higher intake of all nutrients

A

a. Lower dietary intake of vitamins

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13
Q

Which of the following best defines wellness?

a. The overall infirmity one is experiencing as defined by how often medical attention is necessary
b. The overall feeling of health one perceives they have
c. The overall quality of health one is experiencing, especially as an actively sought lifestyle that leads to optimal health and well-being
d. The overall diagnosis of health one is given by friends and family

A

c. The overall quality of health one is experiencing, especially as an actively sought lifestyle that leads to optimal health and well-being

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14
Q

Between 1969/1971 and 1999/2001, global food consumption per person has risen by how much?

a. Approximately 1000 kcal per person per day
b. Approximately 150 kcal per person per day
c. Approximately 400 kcal per person per day
d. Approximately 2000 kcal per person per day

A

c. Approximately 400 kcal per person per day

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15
Q

ATP consists of an adenosine molecule bonded to how many phosphate groups?

a. One
b. Four
c. Three
d. Two

A

c. Three

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16
Q

Resting metabolic rate, or RMR, declines by what percentage per decade for men?

a. >10%
b. 8 to 10%
c. 1 to 2%
d. 5 to 6%

A

c. 1 to 2%

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17
Q

What is the autoimmune disorder that leads to damage in the small intestine when gluten products are consumed?

a. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
b. Peptic ulcer disease
c. Celiac disease
d. Crohn’s disease

A

c. Celiac disease

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18
Q

A new client insists on maintaining their vegan lifestyle. How should the nutrition coach advise their protein source selection?

a. A nutrition coach should advise the client to consume a way protein supplement.
b. A nutrition coach should advise the client to consume a variety of grains, nuts, seeds, and legumes.
c. A nutrition coach should advise the client to consume eggs and nonfat dairy.
d. A nutrition coach should advise the client to consume a casein protein supplement.

A

b. A nutrition coach should advise the client to consume a variety of grains, nuts, seeds, and legumes.

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19
Q

Ketogenic amino acids may become which 2 molecules that can be used to produce ATP?

a. Acetyl-CoA and glucose
b. Glucose and fructose
c. Acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate
d. Acetyl-CoA and pyruvate

A

c. Acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate

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20
Q

Which is most likely to impact longevity?

a. Calorie restriction may enhance longevity.
b. Protein restriction will enhance longevity.
c. Protein restriction will inhibit longevity.
d. Calorie restriction may inhibit longevity.

A

a. Calorie restriction may enhance longevity.

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21
Q

What is the primary reason that plant proteins tend to make it more difficult to gain muscle compared to animal proteins?

a. Plant proteins do not have as many essential amino acids.
b. Plant proteins have more fiber.
c. Plant proteins usually have anti-nutrition factors.
d. Plant proteins are filled with phytoestrogens, which inhibit muscle gain.

A

a. Plant proteins do not have as many essential amino acids.

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22
Q

Which of the following is the best prescription for daily protein intake for an elderly, sedentary individual?

a. 1.3 g/kg body weight
b. 1.6 g/kg body weight
c. 0.8 g/kg body weight
d. 0.6 g/kg body weight

A

a. 1.3 g/kg body weight

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23
Q

Which polysaccharide is digested fastest?

a. Amylopectin
b. Amylose
c. Insoluble fiber
d. Soluble fiber

A

a. Amylopectin

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24
Q

Which sweetener is not considered a mono- or disaccharide and is extracted from chicory root?

a. High-fructose corn syrup
b. Inulin
c. Lactose
d. Dextrose

A

b. Inulin

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25
Q

What are the current estimated daily intakes of fiber for men and women in the U. S.?

a. 18 grams for men, 15 grams for women
b. 25 grams for men, 19 grams for women
c. 12 grams for men, 10 grams for women
d. 8 grams for men, 5 grams for women

A

a. 18 grams for men, 15 grams for women

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26
Q

What glycemic score ranks a carbohydrate food as a low GI food?

a. GI score under 55
b. GI score between 70 - 75
c. GI score over 75
d. GI score between 60 - 65

A

a. GI score under 55

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27
Q

What is the vein that transports blood from the spleen, stomach, pancreas, and the intestinal tract to the liver?

a. Inferior vena cava
b. Axillary vein
c. Subclavian vein
d. Hepatic portal vein

A

d. Hepatic portal vein

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28
Q

What is the adequate intake (AI) for omega-3 fatty acid for men and women?

a. 5.6 grams per day (men) and 5.1 grams per day (women)
b. 3.6 grams per day (men) and 3.1 grams per day (women)
c. 1.6 grams per day (men) and 1.1 grams per day (women)
d. 7.6 grams per day (men) and 7.1 grams per day (women)

A

c. 1.6 grams per day (men) and 1.1 grams per day (women)

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29
Q

What is a good source of DHA?

a. Chia seeds
b. Canola oil
c. Flaxseed oil
d. Salmon

A

d. Salmon

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30
Q

Where are fat-soluble vitamins stored in the body?

a. Muscle tissue
b. Brain tissue
c. Liver and adipose tissue
d. Small and large intestine

A

c. Liver and adipose tissue

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31
Q

What is the function of a micelle?

a. Protection of the structural integrity of fatty acids from gastric juice
b. Transportation of monoglycerides, free fatty acids, and fat-soluble vitamins to the gallbladder
c. Facilitation of the absorption of monoglycerides, free fatty acids, and fat-soluble vitamins
d. Facilitation of the digestion of fatty acids in the stomach

A

c. Facilitation of the absorption of monoglycerides, free fatty acids, and fat-soluble vitamins

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32
Q

A client visits a Nutrition Coach for the first time, and tells the coach she is consuming 20% of her calories from dietary fat and 15% of her calories from saturated fat. What advice should the nutrition coach give the client?

a. Recommend the client decrease total fat to less than 10% of total calorie intake
b. Recommend the client consume more dietary fat to evoke ketosis
c. Recommend the client consume more saturated fat to improve LDL cholesterol levels
d. Recommend the client decrease saturated fat to less than 10 - 11% of total calorie intake

A

d. Recommend the client decrease saturated fat to less than 10 - 11% of total calorie intake

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33
Q

What acute effect does drinking alcohol have on the heart?

a. Increases left ventricle contractility and decreases heart rate
b. Decreases left ventricle contractility and increases heart rate
c. Decreases right ventricle contractility and increases heart rate
d. Does not effect the heart

A

b. Decreases left ventricle contractility and increases heart rate

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34
Q

Based on research, which group of college athletes is more likely to regularly consume alcohol at hazardous levels?

a. Athletes from individual sports
b. All athletes are equally likely to consume hazardous levels of alcohol
c. Intercollegiate athletes
d. Intramural/club athletes

A

d. Intramural/club athletes

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35
Q

An alcohol-related reduction in which hormone can lead to muscle loss?

a. Insulin
b. Testosterone
c. Estrogen
d. Cortisol

A

b. Testosterone

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36
Q

How is harmful drinking categorized for males?

a. 2 or more standard drinks per day or 10 or more drinks per week
b. 4 or more standard drinks per day or 8 or more drinks per week
c. 8 or more standard drinks per day or 18 or more drinks per week
d. 5 or more standard drinks per day or 15 or more drinks per week

A

d. 5 or more standard drinks per day or 15 or more drinks per week

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37
Q

What elemental metal is present in vitamin B12?

a. Copper
b. Nickel
c. Iron
d. Cobalt

A

d. Cobalt

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38
Q

What is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) of iodine for adults (men and non-pregnant or lactating women > 18 years of age)?

a. 75 µg/day
b. 120 µg/day
c. 50 µg/day
d. 150 µg/day

A

d. 150 µg/day

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39
Q

What differentiates macro- and micronutrients?

a. The metabolic reactions in which they are involved
b. The quantity in which they are needed in the diet
c. The chemical structure of the nutrient differentiates them
d. The role they play in the human body

A

b. The quantity in which they are needed in the diet

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40
Q

What percent of athletes have been found to have inadequate levels of vitamin D?

a. 0.36
b. 0.54
c. 0.73
d. 0.11

A

b. 0.54

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41
Q

What is the minimum percentage of beverage fluid replacement range that should be suggested for clients who lose more than 3% of their body mass during training and train more than once over a 24-hour period?

a. 140 - 150%
b. 90 - 100%
c. 120 - 130%
d. 110 - 120%

A

d. 110 - 120%

42
Q

Which range identifies the percentage of body mass that is comprised of water?

a. 50 - 70%
b. 30 - 50%
c. 70 - 90%
d. 10 - 30%

A

a. 50 - 70%

43
Q

What is the body’s primary pathway of heat dissipation during exercise in the heat?

a. Generation of convective forces through movement
b. Increasing venous blood volume return to the heart by decreasing blood flow to the digestive system
c. Evaporation of sweat loss from the skin
d. Increasing the flow of blood volume to the skin’s surface

A

c. Evaporation of sweat loss from the skin

44
Q

Which of the following symptoms may be indicated of exertional rhabdomyolysis?

a. Headache
b. Extremely dark colored urine
c. Dry mouth
d. Excessive thirst

A

b. Extremely dark colored urine

45
Q

Which nutrient is primarily responsible for building and repairing muscle tissue?

a. Carbohydrate
b. Protein
c. Water-soluble vitamins
d. Fat-soluble vitamins

A

b. Protein

46
Q

What is the fuel source for cells in the body?

a. Pancreatic amylase
b. Palmitic acid
c. Adenosine triphosphate
d. Amino acids

A

c. Adenosine triphosphate

47
Q

How much glucose does the brain consume?

a. About 20% of glucose derived energy
b. About 1% of glucose derived energy
c. About 5% of glucose derived energy
d. About 10% of glucose derived energy

A

a. About 20% of glucose derived energy

48
Q

What is the anabolic window?

a. It is a period following exercise during which nutrients such as proteins and carbohydrates can be used to maximize muscle growth and glycogen replenishment.
b. It is a period before exercise during which nutrients such as fat and protein can be used to maximize fat loss.
c. It is a period following exercise during which nutrients such as proteins and carbohydrates cannot be used to maximize muscle growth and glycogen replenishment.
d. It is a period following exercise during which nutrients such as proteins and carbohydrates can be used to maximize fat loss.

A

a. It is a period following exercise during which nutrients such as proteins and carbohydrates can be used to maximize muscle growth and glycogen replenishment.

49
Q

Which of the following has a strong body of research on its effectiveness to improve performance?

a. Caffeine
b. MCTs
c. ATP
d. Arginine

A

a. Caffeine

50
Q

How can creatine help a client who wants to add size and strength?

a. It can increase the rate of lipolysis.
b. It can help increase aerobic capacity.
c. It can decrease the body’s production of ATP.
d. It can increase training workloads and muscular adaptations.

A

d. It can increase training workloads and muscular adaptations.

51
Q

What is an ergogenic aid?

a. A synthetic hormone designed to increase testosterone
b. A natural blend of ingredients to control stress hormones
c. A product or ingredient that improves performance
d. A training method used by athletes

A

c. A product or ingredient that improves performance

52
Q

Which strategies are recommended for maximizing muscle protein synthesis (MPS) and muscle gain?

a. Consume at least 10 g of androstenedione each day
b. Consume at least 0.7 g/kg of protein each day
c. Consume recommended daily protein total and spread evenly across at least 4 meals
d. Consume pre-workout supplements with arginine

A

c. Consume recommended daily protein total and spread evenly across at least 4 meals

53
Q

Dressing in loose clothing to hide weight loss could be a sign of which disorder?

a. Bulimia nervosa
b. Binge-eating disorder
c. Anorexia nervosa
d. Eating disorder not otherwise specified

A

c. Anorexia nervosa

54
Q

If a client is obsessed with calories, body weight, or any perceived physical imperfections, they could be at risk for which condition?

a. Mild depression
b. Psychological distress
c. Disordered eating
d. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

c. Disordered eating

55
Q

Which of the following demonstrates a lack of willpower for healthy eating?

a. A client had a planned outing with friends and previewed the menu ahead of time and decided on an à la carte salad, a side dish, and a dessert.
b. A client forgot to pack their prepared lunch at home and ended up purchasing some snacks from a vending machine to eat for lunch.
c. A client walking through the grocery store and the smell of fresh baked cookies draws them to the bakery.
d. A client attended an unplanned birthday lunch for a coworker and had a second serving of chocolate cake.

A

d. A client attended an unplanned birthday lunch for a coworker and had a second serving of chocolate cake.

56
Q

How might depression affect healthy eating?

a. Depressed individuals typically crave salty foods.
b. Depressed individuals generally do not value the benefits of healthy eating.
c. Depression is the sole cause of alcoholism.
d. Depression is known to cause both under eating and over eating in different individuals.

A

d. Depression is known to cause both under eating and over eating in different individuals.

57
Q

Which of the following is true about communication skills?

a. They are innate and very difficult to learn.
b. Once learned, they remain consistently good.
c. They can be learned through self-monitoring.
d. They are not as important as job-specific knowledge.

A

c. They can be learned through self-monitoring.

58
Q

Which of the following is the best approach to build and implement effective programming?

a. Develop a solid, evidence-based program that is used for all clients.
b. Develop a program that meets individual client needs.
c. Continue to constantly modify the program when the client struggles with adherence.
d. Use a pre-developed program and modify a few things to meet individual needs.

A

b. Develop a program that meets individual client needs.

59
Q

Which of the following describes the outcome of having miss matched verbal and nonverbal cues?

a. Nonverbal cues are more received and interpreted.
b. The mismatch is overlooked and not important.
c. The mismatch will create more focused and intentional listening.
d. Verbal cues are more received and interpreted.

A

a. Nonverbal cues are more received and interpreted.

60
Q

Based on the importance of “soft skills” and professional success, into which of the following would be the best continuing education course for a Nutrition Coach to enroll?

a. Keys to effective communication
b. Programming for vegetarian athletes
c. Influences on food choices
d. Components of effective programming

A

a. Keys to effective communication

61
Q

What best describes verbal communication?

a. Simple and direct questions
b. The words used to convey a message
c. Broad questions with no right or wrong answer
d. The literal meaning of a word

A

b. The words used to convey a message

62
Q

With which of the following does motivational interviewing start?

a. A 24-hour dietary recall
b. Collaboration
c. Giving the client advice
d. Rolling with resistance

A

b. Collaboration

63
Q

In which stage of change might a Nutrition Coach help clients develop feasible plans for action?

a. Contemplation
b. Termination
c. Preparation
d. Pre-contemplation

A

c. Preparation

64
Q

What is the support of a person regardless of what they say or do, and the belief that each client is trying their best called?

a. Collaboration
b. Unconditional positive regard
c. Compassion
d. Empathy

A

b. Unconditional positive regard

65
Q

Which of the following can be described as a lack of harmony in the client-coach relationship?

a. Change talk
b. Resistance
c. Dissonance
d. Sustain talk

A

c. Dissonance

66
Q

“I want to look and feel better,” is an example of which kind of goal?

a. Objective goal
b. Process goal
c. Outcome goal
d. Subjective goal

A

d. Subjective goal

67
Q

Jill wants to perform aerobic exercise for one-hour, five-days per week. What kind of goal is this?

a. Subjective goal
b. Performance goal
c. Outcome goal
d. Objective goal

A

b. Performance goal

68
Q

“I want to run for 30 minutes, four times a week,” is an example of which kind of goal?

a. Objective goal
b. Process goal
c. Outcome goal
d. Subjective goal

A

a. Objective goal

69
Q

What is a decision balance sheet?

a. Recording and evaluating one’s own daily behaviors, usually in the form of a journal or calendar
b. Behavior that is directed by personal (internal) satisfaction such as personal enjoyment as well as striving for self-determination and competence
c. A technique to help people make decisions about starting a specific program or not
d. Attaining a specific standard of proficiency on a task, usually within a specified time

A

c. A technique to help people make decisions about starting a specific program or not

70
Q

When assessing body composition, a 2-compartment model divides the body into which two categories?

a. Fat mass and water content
b. Fat mass and bone mass
c. Fat mass and fat-free mass
d. Body mass and residual mass

A

c. Fat mass and fat-free mass

71
Q

Which body composition assessment method involves the estimation of the 3-dimensional volume of the body through measurement of an individual’s body weight while they are completely submerged underwater?

a. Infrared 3-dimensional scanning
b. Ultrasound
c. Hydrodensitometry
d. Air displacement plethysmograpny

A

c. Hydrodensitometry

72
Q

Which of the following is considered a true “gold standard “method of body composition assessment?

a. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)
b. A 4-compartment model
c. Air displacement plethysmography (ADP)
d. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)

A

b. A 4-compartment model

73
Q

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans provide which of the following beverage intake recommendations?

a. Stay hydrated by choosing whichever beverages are easiest to consume.
b. A beverage intake recommendation is not provided since the Guidelines focus on food.
c. Shift to healthier choices by limiting beverages with added sugar.
d. Choose sweetened beverages to satisfy cravings rather than eating dessert.

A

c. Shift to healthier choices by limiting beverages with added sugar.

74
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate visual approximation for fat at a meal for an average adult female who requires approximately 1500 - 1800 calories per day?

a. A tennis ball
b. A baseball
c. A golf ball
d. A hockey puck

A

c. A golf ball

75
Q

The Nutrition Facts Label for a brand of granola bar list the % DV of Added Sugar as 23%. What does this indicate?

a. The granola bar is low in Added Sugar since the % DV is less than 25%.
b. The granola bar has an acceptable amount of Added Sugar since the % DV is less than 25%.
c. The granola bar is a good source of Added Sugar since the % DV is greater than 20%.
d. The granola bar is high in Added Sugar since the % DV is greater than 20%.

A

d. The granola bar is high in Added Sugar since the % DV is greater than 20%.

76
Q

Nutrition Information labels in the EU and UK do not indicate a serving size on food labels. Instead, they provide nutrient information for what standard amount?

a. 1/4 cup dry or a pint of fluid product
b. 1 gram of dry or 1 milliliter of fluid product
c. 3 ounces of dry or 1 cup of fluid product
d. 100 gram of dry or 100 milliliter of fluid product

A

d. 100 gram of dry or 100 milliliter of fluid product

77
Q

What is an appropriate visual approximation for vegetables at a meal for an average adult male who requires approximately 2200 - 2800 calories per day?

a. One poker chip-sized portion
b. One fist-sized portion
c. Two fist-sized portions
d. Two poker chip-sized portions

A

c. Two fist-sized portions

78
Q

What is something that clients should consider when buying any packaged food product?

a. The promotion of the product and if it is a well-known, popular item
b. The nutritional value of the product, and how it fits into the context of their diet, health, and fitness goals
c. The health claims on the product and whether these are in line with their goals
d. The total calories in the product and how many servings they should eat

A

b. The nutritional value of the product, and how it fits into the context of their diet, health, and fitness goals

79
Q

What is a mistake that can add excess calories that consumers may make when ordering salad for a meal?

a. They add too many vegetables and grains.
b. They add too much protein.
c. They request dressing on the side.
d. They added too many high calorie items such as cheese, nuts, seeds, and dried fruit.

A

d. They added too many high calorie items such as cheese, nuts, seeds, and dried fruit.

80
Q

How might clients who use a meal delivery service increase the nutritional value of their meals?

a. Add extra vegetables to the meal.
b. Decrease the amount of salt used in preparing the meal.
c. Add additional ingredients to the meal.
d. Decrease the amount of fat used in preparing the meal.

A

a. Add extra vegetables to the meal.

81
Q

Which of the following strategies might the Nutrition Coach recommend to a client who says that he finds himself snacking constantly at his desk at work?

a. Store snacks in his drawer versus on his immediate desk area
b. Plan his meals for the day ahead of time.
c. Remove snacks from his desk and immediate work area, and store them in the office kitchen.
d. Avoid bringing any snacks to work.

A

c. Remove snacks from his desk and immediate work area, and store them in the office kitchen.

82
Q

What is mindless eating?

a. Eating that occurs when an individual does not think about their food
b. Eating that occurs when an individual is not hungry
c. Eating that occurs without paying attention to the food being consumed
d. Eating that occurs when an individual does not look at their food

A

c. Eating that occurs without paying attention to the food being consumed

83
Q

What is a primary benefit of using a low-energy diet or a very low-energy diet?

a. The hunger hormone ghrelin is suppressed the most on these diet.
b. It will lead to increased bone mineral density and vitamin D absorption.
c. It will lead to greater maintenance of muscle mass compared to other diet.
d. Weight loss will occur at a much faster rate than many other diet.

A

d. Weight loss will occur at a much faster rate than many other diet.

84
Q

A gluten-free diet is clinically prescribed in the treatment of what disorder?

a. Type 2 diabetes
b. Hypertension
c. Crohn’s disease
d. Celiac disease

A

d. Celiac disease

85
Q

What does the body do during ketosis?

a. Produces ketones (ketone bodies) from glucose
b. Rapidly increases the amount of cholesterol being made by the liver
c. Produces ketones (ketone bodies) from fat
d. Converts ketones into amino acids

A

c. Produces ketones (ketone bodies) from fat

86
Q

A ketogenic diet comprised of a high-fat intake can lead to what potential negative impact in genetically susceptible individuals?

a. Malabsorption of dietary protein
b. Increased secretion of butyric acid in the gut
c. Increased LDL – C (low-density lipoprotein cholesterol)
d. Increase 24-hour insulin levels

A

c. Increased LDL – C (low-density lipoprotein cholesterol)

87
Q

Which food group is avoided on a Paleo diet?

a. Seeds
b. Citrus fruit
c. Grains
d. Nuts

A

c. Grains

88
Q

Blood pressure, along with which of the following may be beneficially affected by calorie-equated exchange for fructose when compared to other carbohydrates?

a. Protein synthesis
b. Hydration levels
c. Lean mass
d. Glycemic control

A

d. Glycemic control

89
Q

What method of pest control is used least in organic agriculture?

a. Use of pesticides
b. Hygiene
c. Crop rotation
d. Employing natural pest enemies

A

a. Use of pesticides

90
Q

Which of the following is produced in the lowest quantity during fructose metabolism?

a. Fatty acids
b. Glucose
c. Lactate
d. Glycogen

A

a. Fatty acids

91
Q

Increased translocation of microbial products through the intestinal barrier, an immune response toward lipopolysaccharides, and increased intestinal permeability all play a role in the symptoms of which of the following?

a. Celiac disease
b. Irritable bowel syndrome
c. Crohn’s disease
d. Non-celiac gluten sensitivity

A

d. Non-celiac gluten sensitivity

92
Q

A client’s home is filled with tasty, high-calorie foods. Under which category of reasons for adherence lapses does this fall?

a. Environmental
b. Physiological
c. Psychological
d. Personal

A

a. Environmental

93
Q

Setting weekly goals around grocery shopping and food preparation can be considered which characteristic of successful long-term weight maintenance?

a. Intuitive eating
b. Self-efficacy
c. Managing cravings
d. Flexible dietary control

A

b. Self-efficacy

94
Q

A person has not experienced any weight loss for 8 weeks. Which of the following best represents what needs to happen for this person to start experiencing weight loss again?

a. Increase energy expenditure
b. Increase energy intake
c. Maintain current habits
d. Decrease energy expenditure

A

a. Increase energy expenditure

95
Q

Which item represents the likely outcome of a lapse in dietary adherence?

a. Decrease in energy intake
b. Increase in energy expenditure
c. Decrease in energy expenditure
d. Increase in energy intake

A

d. Increase in energy intake

96
Q

Which item represents a reason for poor long-term weight maintenance statistics?

a. Lack of discipline
b. Impaired satiety signals
c. Lack of willpower
d. Increased availability of high-carbohydrate foods

A

b. Impaired satiety signals

97
Q

Which activity factor adjustment should be made for people who are considered sedentary?

a. 1.375
b. 1
c. 1.2
d. 1.725

A

c. 1.2

98
Q

A 1 kilogram reduction in body weight can reduce the relative risk of developing diabetes by what % according to some research?

a. 0.16
b. 0.07
c. 0.23
d. 0.04

A

a. 0.16

99
Q

Peter consumes a modest fat intake of 30% of total calories. Peter is sticking with a 2500-calorie diet to help lose some weight. How many calories should he consume from fat each day?

a. 650 calories
b. 950 calories
c. 850 calories
d. 750 calories

A

d. 750 calories

100
Q

Based on the most recent evidence, what is the ideal range of protein consumption per meal to maximize muscle growth?

a. 0.55 to 0.7 g/kg
b. 0.3 to 0.4 g/kg
c. 0.4 to 0.55 g/kg
d. 0.2 to 0.35 g/kg

A

c. 0.4 to 0.55 g/kg

Nutrition CNC (6 decks)

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