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Nutrition CNC > Nutrition Review Test 4 > Flashcards

Nutrition Review Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Clients often confide in the Nutrition Coach. Which client conversation would be grounds for a referral to a licensed healthcare professional?

a. Slow weight loss of 1/2 pound per week (0.22 kg)
b. Late-night ice cream binging
c. Occasional sleeplessness
d. Chronic fatigue

A

d. Chronic fatigue

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2
Q

According to the scope of practice for a Nutrition Coach, which is an example of an appropriate resource for determining daily caloric intake?

a. The Nutrition Coach cannot assist with daily caloric intake.
b. Body type and cultural preferences
c. ADA calculations based on age, gender, and activity level
d. Dietary Guidelines for Americans

A

d. Dietary Guidelines for Americans

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3
Q

With which client would it be most appropriate for the Nutrition Coach to work?

a. Client who wants accountability during a 9-week extreme calorie-restricted diet
b. Client who wants nutrition therapy for cancer prevention
c. Pre-pubescent teenager who is overweight
d. Overweight client who wants to train for a 10K

A

d. Overweight client who wants to train for a 10K

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4
Q

A Nutrition Coach is sitting down with a new client for her initial evaluation. She noted on her Health History Questionnaire that she has diabetes and she has trouble keeping her blood glucose controlled. What is the best course of action?

a. Advise her to cut back on her simple carbohydrates at each meal.
b. Refer her to a Certified Diabetes Educator.
c. Inform her that when she loses 10% of her body weight, her blood glucose will be easier to manage.
d. Refer her to a Registered Dietitian.

A

b. Refer her to a Certified Diabetes Educator.

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5
Q

Where should client files be kept to ensure client confidentiality?

a. In the manager’s office
b. In a locked and secure location
c. In an electronic version only
d. With the client

A

b. In a locked and secure location

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6
Q

Which term refers to a proposed explanation for a set of observations?

a. Theory
b. Randomized controlled trial
c. Hypothesis
d. Prediction

A

c. Hypothesis

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7
Q

Scientists take 5000 people and have them fill out questionnaires on their dairy intake. They then compare cancer rates between people with high intakes and low intakes. What type of study is this?

a. Randomized controlled trial
b. Anecdotal
c. Observational
d. Meta-analysis

A

c. Observational

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8
Q

Which statement best describes science?

a. It is the process of collecting data that confirms a hypothesis while discarding data that refutes it.
b. It is the use of anecdotes to explain observations.
c. It is the use of evidence to construct explanations and predictions of natural phenomena.
d. It is the collection of ideas that are not subject to falsification.

A

c. It is the use of evidence to construct explanations and predictions of natural phenomena.

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9
Q

Which term describes how a body of knowledge is based on observation and experience?

a. Reliable
b. Empirical
c. Repeatable
d. Falsifiable

A

b. Empirical

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10
Q

Which of the following terms is best defined as a disorder of structure or function in a human, animal, or plant, especially one that produces specific signs or symptoms or that affects a specific location and is not simply a direct result of physical injury?

a. Pathogenic
b. Infection
c. Defection
d. Disease

A

d. Disease

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11
Q

To which of the following terms can ‘non-communicable disease (NCD) also refer?

a. Infectious diseases
b. Chronic diseases
c. Transient diseases
d. Curable diseases

A

b. Chronic diseases

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12
Q

Which of the following is true in regards to obesity-related conditions?

a. They are the least likely cause of premature death.
b. They are one of the leading preventable causes of death.
c. They are a problem, but don’t cause disease.
d. They are not associated with preventable disease.

A

b. They are one of the leading preventable causes of death.

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13
Q

Which of the following is best described as the state of being in good health, especially as an actively pursued goal?

a. Complete adherence
b. Fitness
c. Health
d. Wellness

A

d. Wellness

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14
Q

Which principle describes how all energy taken into the body is accounted for; energy is either utilized directly, stored, or transformed to kinetic energy or heat?

a. The second law of thermodynamics
b. The first law of thermodynamics
c. The fourth law of thermodynamics
d. The third law of thermodynamics

A

b. The first law of thermodynamics

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15
Q

Most cells utilize which of the following as their primary source of energy?

a. Amino acids
b. Glucose
c. Fat
d. Protein

A

b. Glucose

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16
Q

Energy utilized for immediate work is known as which of the following?

a. Electrical
b. Kinetic
c. Potential
d. Nuclear

A

b. Kinetic

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17
Q

The first law of thermodynamics is also referred to as which of the following?

a. The law of conservation of energy
b. The law of probability of energy
c. The law of estimation of energy
d. The law of facilitation of energy

A

a. The law of conservation of energy

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18
Q

What is an adverse effect of a high protein diet?

a. Kidney issues in those with pre-existing conditions
b. Sarcopenia
c. Decreased bone mineral density
d. Heart disease

A

a. Kidney issues in those with pre-existing conditions

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19
Q

If a new client reveals they have kidney disease, what should you do?

a. Put them on a low protein diet.
b. Work with their registered dietitian or medical doctor for dietary guidance.
c. Put them on a high protein diet.
d. Recommend replacing red meat with poultry or fish.

A

b. Work with their registered dietitian or medical doctor for dietary guidance.

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20
Q

What is an ideal daily protein distribution?

a. The most protein is consumed at the beginning of the day.
b. The most protein is consumed in the middle of the day.
c. The most protein is consumed at the end of the day.
d. Each meal contains an equal amount of protein.

A

d. Each meal contains an equal amount of protein.

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21
Q

In what form are proteins primarily absorbed?

a. Single amino acids
b. Intact proteins
c. Dipeptides
d. Tripeptides

A

a. Single amino acids

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22
Q

Protein is involved in forming which of the following?

a. Adipose tissue
b. Bones
c. Electrolytes
d. Triglycerides

A

b. Bones

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23
Q

What is the current RDA for carbohydrates for adults?

a. 130 grams
b. 75 grams
c. 200 grams
d. 45 grams

A

a. 130 grams

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24
Q

What is the molecular structure for glucose?

a. C02
b. H2O
c. C12H22O11
d. C6H12O6

A

d. C6H12O6

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25
Q

Because of the catabolic nature of exercise, insulin release is largely suppressed during an exercise bout. How does glucose, consumed during a workout, then enter the cell?

a. The body relies upon epinephrine mediated glucose uptake.
b. The body relies upon non-insulin mediated glucose uptake.
c. The body relies upon norepinephrine mediated glucose uptake.
d. The body relies upon insulin mediated glucose uptake.

A

b. The body relies upon non-insulin mediated glucose uptake.

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26
Q

How many sugar units are contained in oligosaccharides?

a. 5-12 sugar units
b. 3-10 sugar units
c. 12-18 sugar units
d. 10-15 sugar units

A

b. 3-10 sugar units

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27
Q

When would the body undergo the process of gluconeogenesis?

a. During periods in which ketones levels become depleted, the body can produce glucose from other carbohydrate sources like glycogen.
b. During periods of inadequate carbohydrate intake, the body can produce glucose from certain non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids.
c. During periods in which ketones levels become depleted, the body can produce glucose from other carbohydrate sources like fructose.
d. During periods of inadequate carbohydrate intake, the body can produce glucose from certain non-carbohydrate sources like triglycerides.

A

b. During periods of inadequate carbohydrate intake, the body can produce glucose from certain non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids.

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28
Q

What is a chylomicron?

a. A lipoprotein that delivers LDL cholesterol to the liver
b. A lipoprotein that delivers triglycerides to the cells
c. A lipoprotein that delivers HDL cholesterol to the cells
d. A lipoprotein that delivers amino acids to the cells

A

b. A lipoprotein that delivers triglycerides to the cells

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29
Q

What are ketone bodies?

a. They are byproducts of beta-oxidation.
b. They are small particles of cholesterol in the bloodstream.
c. They are a fuel source from fats produced in the liver.
d. They are parts of a cell membrane that help protect the cell from oxidative damage.

A

c. They are a fuel source from fats produced in the liver.

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30
Q

What is the definition of hydrophilic?

a. Likely to mix with water, or have an affinity for water.
b. Forcing hydrogen into vegetable oil to create a saturated fat.
c. Likely to repel or not mix with water.
d. Imbalance of free radicals and antioxidants.

A

a. Likely to mix with water, or have an affinity for water.

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31
Q

What are the byproducts of beta-oxidation?

a. Glycerol and free fatty acids
b. Glycerol and glycogen
c. Acetyl-CoA and free fatty acids
d. Ketone bodies and glucose

A

a. Glycerol and free fatty acids

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32
Q

What is an example of trans fat?

a. Butter
b. Lard
c. Vegetable shortening
d. Coconut oil

A

c. Vegetable shortening

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33
Q

What enzyme, that is responsible for the break down of hydrogen peroxide, indirectly contributes to ethanol metabolism?

a. Peroxidase
b. Protease
c. Catalase
d. Amino transferase

A

c. Catalase

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34
Q

When monitoring how much alcohol one consumes in a session, should one simply count the number of alcoholic drinks that they have consumed?

a. No, alcoholic drinks come in different sizes and strengths, so may contain more than one standard drink.
b. Yes, all alcoholic drinks are served in the same volume.
c. Yes, all alcoholic drinks have the same amount of alcohol in them.
d. No, if you become intoxicated you may lose count of how many drinks you have had.

A

a. No, alcoholic drinks come in different sizes and strengths, so may contain more than one standard drink.

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35
Q

1 gram of alcohol increases urine output by how much?

a. 20 mL
b. 50 mL
c. 10 mL
d. 5 mL

A

c. 10 mL

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36
Q

What are the likely effects of consuming alcohol prior to going to sleep?

a. Increased non-REM sleep and decreased growth hormone secretion
b. Increase in REM sleep and increase in growth hormone secretion
c. Decreased non-REM sleep and decreased growth hormone secretion
d. No change to sleep patterns or hormone secretion

A

a. Increased non-REM sleep and decreased growth hormone secretion

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37
Q

What disease is the result of vitamin D deficiency?

a. Type 2 diabetes
b. Rickets
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Psoriasis

A

b. Rickets

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38
Q

What important molecule is magnesium conjugated to in the body?

a. Leucine
b. Hemoglobin
c. ATP
d. Fatty acids

A

c. ATP

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39
Q

What is the maximal recommended daily intake of mercury?

a. 2 µg/kg
b. 10 µg/kg
c. 0.5 µg/kg
d. 1 µg/kg

A

a. 2 µg/kg

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40
Q

What percent of magnesium in the human body is found in bone tissue?

a. 0.01
b. 0.2
c. 0.6
d. 0.19

A

c. 0.6

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41
Q

A client has repeatedly exhibited a pre-exercise USG range between 1.014 and 1.018. How would a Nutrition Coach interpret this finding?

a. The client is doing a great job of meeting recovery fluid intake needs.
b. The client needs to drink more sport drinks.
c. The client is severely underconsuming fluids between training sessions.
d. The client is severely overconsuming fluids during recovery.

A

a. The client is doing a great job of meeting recovery fluid intake needs.

42
Q

A client who completes three weight training sessions with a Personal Trainer per week but also completes three, 1-hour group indoor cycle per week (not on the same day). They ask their Nutrition Coach for hydration advice. Which of the following responses would be most appropriate?

a. “Your workout sessions are not long enough in duration to cause sweat losses that dictate a personal hydration plan. Keep fluids available during exercise, and drink based on thirst.”
b. “Drink 250 mL of fluids every 30 minutes during training.”
c. “Determine your sweat losses and seek to replace 100% of your sweat losses with fluid intake during the Indoor cycle class.”
d. “Drink sports drinks instead of water on days you go to indoor cycle class”

A

a. “Your workout sessions are not long enough in duration to cause sweat losses that dictate a personal hydration plan. Keep fluids available during exercise, and drink based on thirst.”

43
Q

When assessing your client’s sweat losses, a Nutrition Coach determines that their change in body mass is approximately 1.5 kg. How many liters of sweat does this equal?

a. 2.0 liters
b. 1.4 liters
c. 1.6 liters
d. 1.5 liters

A

d. 1.5 liters

44
Q

Which of the following is an electrolyte?

a. Glucose
b. Glutamate
c. Insulin
d. Potassium

A

d. Potassium

45
Q

What is the sleep low, train low carbohydrate periodization method?

a. Athletes perform a morning training session, restrict carbohydrates the remainder of the day, and then eat a carbohydrate-rich breakfast the following morning.
b. Athletes perform an evening training session, restrict carbohydrates during overnight recovery, and then complete a fasted training session the following morning.
c. Athletes perform a morning training session, carbohydrate load during the day for recovery, and then complete a fasted training session that evening.
d. Athletes perform an evening training session, carbohydrate load during overnight recovery, and then complete a training session the following morning after eating a small breakfast.

A

b. Athletes perform an evening training session, restrict carbohydrates during overnight recovery, and then complete a fasted training session the following morning.

46
Q

When playing in a baseball game, what energy systems are primarily being used?

a. Aerobic glycolysis
b. Electron transport chain
c. Oxidative
d. ATP-PC and glycolytic

A

d. ATP-PC and glycolytic

47
Q

What does resistance exercise stimulate to increase the size of muscles, known as muscle hypertrophy?

a. Muscle protein synthesis
b. Metabolism
c. ATP production
d. Glycolysis

A

a. Muscle protein synthesis

48
Q

Resistance-based exercise relies primarily on which fuel source?

a. Protein
b. Micronutrients
c. Carbohydrates
d. Fat

A

c. Carbohydrates

49
Q

Which term refers to skin tingling, a reported side effect from beta alanine use?

a. Thermogenesis
b. Glycogenolysis
c. Anesthesia
d. Paresthesia

A

d. Paresthesia

50
Q

A client wants to add 10 pounds of muscle. Which dietary supplement has been shown to enhance MPS with resistance training?

a. Whey protein
b. Glutamine
c. Creatine monohydrate
d. Caffeine

A

a. Whey protein

51
Q

For what type of activities would creatine supplementation be beneficial?

a. Triathlons
b. Long-distance cycling
c. Repeated bouts of high-intensity, short-duration activity
d. Cross-country skiing

A

c. Repeated bouts of high-intensity, short-duration activity

52
Q

Examples of complete protein sources include soy, whey, and which of the following?

a. Rice
b. Beans
c. Casein
d. Corn

A

c. Casein

53
Q

A long-term client has recently revealed that she doesn’t always feel in control when she’s eating alone at home; what is the proper course of action to take?

a. Ask some probing questions as to why she lets this happen.
b. Determine if she is also binging before recommending further care.
c. Recommend that she reach out to a medical professional as this is out of the scope of practice for a Nutrition Coach.
d. Let her know this sounds a lot like binge-eating disorder and that she needs to be formally diagnosed.

A

c. Recommend that she reach out to a medical professional as this is out of the scope of practice for a Nutrition Coach.

54
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of social networks?

a. It is a group that has a common interest or connection.
b. They are groups found online, therefore there is no personal interaction.
c. They are restricted to individuals with social media accounts.
d. They generally consist of a mix of people with various goals.

A

a. It is a group that has a common interest or connection.

55
Q

Which of the following phrases defines self-esteem?

a. The ability to overcome an adverse situation
b. The level of mental toughness that a person has
c. The degree to which an individual views themselves with regards to their worthiness and abilities
d. The ability to control impulses

A

c. The degree to which an individual views themselves with regards to their worthiness and abilities

56
Q

Which of the following describes the role of the Nutrition Coach in terms of the psychology of fitness and wellness?

a. To psychologically assist people with eating disorders
b. To be an excellent communicator and provide support
c. To administer surveys to detect mental disturbances before referring out to a medical professional
d. To act as a liaison between the client and medical professional

A

b. To be an excellent communicator and provide support

57
Q

Which of the following is the best approach to gathering information related to a sensitive topic from a client?

a. Encourage the client to fully share so that appropriate programming can be developed.
b. Tell the client a story of another client with similar issues.
c. Gather information in pieces throughout programming.
d. Don’t worry about sensitive information as it will make the client uncomfortable and decrease adherence.

A

c. Gather information in pieces throughout programming.

58
Q

Which of the following is best defined by the emotional or perceived meaning of a word?

a. Connotation
b. Denotation
c. Explanation
d. Understanding

A

a. Connotation

59
Q

Which of the following is the best way to improve the quality of communication?

a. Effectively use nonverbal cues.
b. Become a better listener.
c. Make consistent eye contact.
d. Speak more clearly.

A

b. Become a better listener.

60
Q

Which of the following describes the ideal talk rate in a conversation?

a. Steady rate with clearly enunciated words
b. Always mirror rate of client
c. Fast rate to demonstrate knowledge
d. Soft and slow rate for clarity

A

a. Steady rate with clearly enunciated words

61
Q

Which of the following is the best way to establish rapport with a client?

a. Take time to understand the client’s past experiences with nutritional programs.
b. Take time to explain the coach’s credentials and experience.
c. Take time to develop an understanding of client needs and emotions.
d. Take time to explain program components.

A

c. Take time to develop an understanding of client needs and emotions.

62
Q

Which of the following is taken away if a Nutrition Coach tells a client what to do and doesn’t ask for their opinion?

a. Excuses
b. Motivation
c. Goals
d. Autonomy

A

d. Autonomy

63
Q

Self-efficacy is mediated by how many sources?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5

A

a. 4

64
Q

Which of the following is a client who eats healthy food because eating food is connected to their identity is experiencing?

a. Integrated regulation
b. Intrinsic motivation
c. External regulation
d. Introjected regulation

A

a. Integrated regulation

65
Q

In Motivational Interviewing, ambivalence is seen as which of the following?

a. A trait of difficult clients
b. A sign of resistance
c. A roadblock to change
d. A normal part of the change process

A

d. A normal part of the change process

66
Q

What is an example of a specific goal?

a. My goal is to reduce my caloric intake from 2,500 to 2,000 calories per day.
b. My goal is to increase my exercise frequency and intensity.
c. My goal is to increase the amount of fruits and vegetables I eat each day.
d. My goal is to increase my caloric intake.

A

a. My goal is to reduce my caloric intake from 2,500 to 2,000 calories per day.

67
Q

John wants to exercise for one hour each day, five days per week. As such, he sets a goal to schedule one-hour workouts at 6:30am Monday-Friday. What kind of goal is this?

a. Process goal
b. Subjective goal
c. Outcome goal
d. Do your best goal

A

a. Process goal

68
Q

What is the definition of intrinsic motivation?

a. Recording and evaluating one’s own daily behaviors, usually in the form of a journal or calendar
b. Behavior that is directed by personal (internal) satisfaction such as personal enjoyment as well as striving for self-determination and competence
c. A technique to help people make decisions about starting a specific program or not
d. Attaining a specific standard of proficiency on a task, usually within a specified time

A

b. Behavior that is directed by personal (internal) satisfaction such as personal enjoyment as well as striving for self-determination and competence

69
Q

Jane Doe has a goal to lose 30 pounds in 6 months. However, after 3 months she has only lost 5 pounds. Therefore, she changes her goal to lose 15 pounds in 6 months. This is an example of which of the following?

a. Outcome goal
b. Vague goal
c. Goal re-evaluation
d. Goal proximity

A

c. Goal re-evaluation

70
Q

Which body composition assessment method involves the estimation of the 3-dimensional volume of the body through measurement of an individual’s displacement of air while they sit in a sealed chamber?

a. Underwater weighing
b. Infrared 3-dimensional scanning
c. Air displacement plethysmography
d. Ultrasound

A

c. Air displacement plethysmography

71
Q

Of the following methods, which estimate body composition based on the 3-dimensional volume of the body?

a. Air displacement plethysmography and underwater weighing
b. Bioelectrical impedance analysis and bioimpedance spectroscopy
c. Circumferences and skinfolds
d. Ultrasound and dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

A

a. Air displacement plethysmography and underwater weighing

72
Q

Which of the following best describes a characteristic of a 24-hour recall?

a. It is a single-step process in which the client lists the brands of food items consumed in the last 24 hours.
b. It only needs to be performed for one day every 3 months for an accurate assessment.
c. It begins by making a quick list of foods and beverages consumed by the client.
d. It takes approximately 1 minute to complete.

A

c. It begins by making a quick list of foods and beverages consumed by the client.

73
Q

The recommended average daily intake level when an RDA value cannot be determined is known as which of the following?

a. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
b. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR)
c. Adequate Intake (AI)
d. Tolerable Upper Limit (UL)

A

c. Adequate Intake (AI)

74
Q

A client says she has a difficult time estimating an appropriate portion of starch when she dines out at restaurants. What might the Nutrition Coach recommend she use as a visual approximation?

a. Two flat palm-sized portions
b. A golf ball-sized portion
c. A cupped palm-size portion
d. A mobile phone-sized portion

A

c. A cupped palm-size portion

75
Q

A client is looking to buy a high-fiber brand of cereal but is not sure how to tell if a brand is high in fiber. What would you recommend that they look at to determine this?

a. Look for a brand that has 3 grams of fiber or more per serving.
b. Look for a brand that has a %DV of 20 or more for Dietary Fiber.
c. Look for a brand that has 2 grams or more of fiber per serving.
d. Look for a brand that has Dietary Fiber on the Nutrition Facts label.

A

b. Look for a brand that has a %DV of 20 or more for Dietary Fiber.

76
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate visual approximation for carbohydrate at a meal for a large adult who requires approximately 2200-2800 calories per day?

a. Two baseballs
b. A baseball
c. A soccer ball
d. Two tennis balls

A

b. A baseball

77
Q

What is the recommended portion size for meat/poultry in the UK according to the British Dietetic Association ?

a. Palm of hand
b. A deck of cards
c. A baseball
d. A tennis ball

A

b. A deck of cards

78
Q

What is the second important step that clients should consider in preparation for meal prep?

a. Deciding what ingredients to buy for meal prep
b. Deciding how much food to buy for the week ahead
c. Buying and storing food for meal prep
d. Budgeting and scheduling time for meal prep

A

d. Budgeting and scheduling time for meal prep

79
Q

Creating a grocery list that mimics the layout of the store can help consumers avoid back-tracking across the store. What is one danger of back-tracking across the store?

a. Forgetting important items on the grocery list
b. Being distracted by product displays that promote unhealthy snack foods
c. Being too tired to stay focused on grocery shopping
d. Getting lost in the grocery store

A

b. Being distracted by product displays that promote unhealthy snack foods

80
Q

What is the first step that clients should consider when deciding to meal prep?

a. What ingredients to buy for meal prep
b. How much food they want to buy for the week
c. How many meals they want to eat during the week ahead
d. What type of meal preparation suits their lifestyle and preference

A

d. What type of meal preparation suits their lifestyle and preference

81
Q

When meal prepping, it is recommended that clients limit themselves to how many new recipes to avoid making the process too complicated?

a. One or two
b. Two or three
c. Three or four
d. Four or five

A

b. Two or three

82
Q

What is one pitfall that many consumers may make when selecting a salad as a healthy lunch option?

a. They add too many vegetables.
b. They do not add any protein or healthy fat.
c. They add too few vegetables.
d. They request dressing on the side.

A

b. They do not add any protein or healthy fat.

83
Q

Which diet has the strongest and most extensive amount of peer-reviewed literature supporting its benefit for long-term health?

a. Ketogenic diet
b. Mediterranean diet
c. 5:2 diet
d. Paleo diet

A

b. Mediterranean diet

84
Q

A very high-protein intake can potentially increase energy expenditure via which mechanism?

a. Increased production of fast-twitch muscle fibers
b. Increased thermic effect of feeding (increased thermogenesis)
c. Increased release of ghrelin from the stomach
d. Increased metabolic rate via increased thyroid hormone production

A

b. Increased thermic effect of feeding (increased thermogenesis)

85
Q

Which of these foods would be the best source of calcium for a vegan client?

a. Citrus fruit
b. Leafy green vegetables
c. Wheat
d. Cow’s milk

A

b. Leafy green vegetables

86
Q

Which of the following foods is limited to low amounts in a typical Mediterranean diet?

a. Olive oil
b. Whole grains
c. Red meat
d. Vegetables

A

c. Red meat

87
Q

What does MyPlate recommend to eat less of?

a. Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids
b. Saturated fat, sodium, and added sugars
c. Carbohydrates, gluten, and cholesterol
d. Genetically modified organism (GMO)

A

b. Saturated fat, sodium, and added sugars

88
Q

Gluten increases intestinal permeability by interacting with which one of the following molecules?

a. Zonulin
b. Lipase
c. Lipopolysaccharide
d. Butyrate

A

a. Zonulin

89
Q

The increase in what nutrient is of little real-world significance when comparing grass-fed to conventional milk?

a. Stearic acid
b. Rumenic acid
c. Conjugated linoleic acid
d. Oleic acid

A

c. Conjugated linoleic acid

90
Q

Most clients will obtain their information about GMOs from the internet, television, radio, and which of the following?

a. The scientific community
b. Friends and family
c. Medical personnel
d. Peer-reviewed articles

A

b. Friends and family

91
Q

Which answer most appropriately describes the effect of consuming nonnutritive sweeteners on appetite and food intake?

a. Blood lipids
b. Insulin sensitivity
c. Blood pressure
d. Body weight

A

b. Insulin sensitivity

92
Q

A client has been struggling to lose weight on an Ornish diet. Which item represents the best approach to solving this problem?

a. Increase the client’s exercise.
b. Teach the client techniques to improve dietary discipline.
c. Continue with the approach to see if things can improve.
d. Find a new dietary approach to which the client can adhere.

A

d. Find a new dietary approach to which the client can adhere.

93
Q

Which item refers to the amount of calories provided from a food, in relation to how much energy and time it took to get it?

a. Energy balance
b. Metabolic adaptation
c. Energy density
d. Optimal Foraging Theory

A

d. Optimal Foraging Theory

94
Q

A client has just started a weight loss program and is trying a low-carb diet. There has not been any weight loss for the first 3 weeks of the diet. Which item represents the best approach to managing this situation?

a. Change the dietary strategy, as early adherence predicts long-term adherence.
b. Decrease calorie intake further.
c. Wait another week to see if it’s a true plateau.
d. Increase physical activity.

A

a. Change the dietary strategy, as early adherence predicts long-term adherence.

95
Q

A client increases protein and fiber intake to help feel fuller. Which type of barrier to adherence does this strategy help overcome?

a. Physiological
b. Personal
c. Environmental
d. Psychological

A

a. Physiological

96
Q

A client tracks food intake online and tracks body weight daily. What adherence-promotion factor does this behavior fall under?

a. Cognitive and behavioral skills
b. Education
c. Self-regulation
d. Self-monitoring

A

d. Self-monitoring

97
Q

What is a limitation of the Mifflin St Jeor equation for estimating resting metabolism?

a. It does not account for a person’s age.
b. It does not account for a person’s height.
c. It does not account for a person’s gender.
d. It does not account for a person’s body composition.

A

d. It does not account for a person’s body composition.

98
Q

What minimum threshold of weight loss substantially reduces risk of many chronic diseases (e.g. diabetes and cardiovascular disease)?

a. 0.2
b. 0.15
c. 0.05
d. 0.1

A

d. 0.1

99
Q

What is a major difference between the Mifflin St Jeor and Katch-McCardle equations?

a. The Katch-McArdle equation requires data about body composition, whereas Mifflin St Jeor does not.
b. The Katch-McArdle equation requires data about age, whereas Mifflin St Jeor does not.
c. The Katch-McArdle equation requires data about height, whereas Mifflin St Jeor does not.
d. The Katch-McArdle equation requires data about gender, whereas Mifflin St Jeor does not.

A

a. The Katch-McArdle equation requires data about body composition, whereas Mifflin St Jeor does not.

100
Q

Based on the most recent evidence, what is the upper range of protein intake that maximizes muscle growth?

a. 0.5-0.8 g/kg/day
b. 3.6-4.2 g/kg/day
c. 0.2-0.4 g/kg/day
d. 1.6-2.2 g/kg/day

A

d. 1.6-2.2 g/kg/day

Nutrition CNC (6 decks)

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