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Nutrition CNC > Nutrition Review Test 2 > Flashcards

Nutrition Review Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Any research article on diet and nutrition should be scrutinized for which of the following?

a. Resources and volume
b. Recall and verbiage
c. Reliability and validity
d. References and values

A

c. Reliability and validity

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2
Q

To ensure the client is retaining any shared information, it is important that the content presented is highly relevant and what other quality?

a. Brief
b. Visual
c. Practical
d. Pertinent

A

c. Practical

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3
Q

Common assessments performed by a Nutrition Coach include height, weight, body composition, and what other test?

a. SCOFF test
b. Blood pressure
c. Hydrostatic weighing
d. Anthropometric measurements

A

d. Anthropometric measurements

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4
Q

A client has several relatives who have recently been diagnosed with cancer. She has been reading many books about natural health and is interested in taking herbal supplements that will help prevent cancer. What is the best course of action?

a. Tell her to follow the guidelines of the books she reads.
b. Tell her to save her money and stay away from herbal remedies.
c. Refer her to a pharmacist or her physician.
d. Visit a health food store together.

A

c. Refer her to a pharmacist or her physician.

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5
Q

A new client is 6-weeks postpartum. She states that she has very little energy and feels sadness most of the time. What is the most appropriate course of action?

a. Closely monitor her situation.
b. Contact her spouse to discuss options.
c. Call 911.
d. Refer her to a clinical psychiatrist.

A

d. Refer her to a clinical psychiatrist.

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6
Q

A scientist observes that people tend to perform better in a weight training session after consuming a pre-workout supplement. The scientist proposes that the caffeine in the supplement is increasing arousal, leading to increased performance. Which term best describes this scientist’s proposal?

a. Conclusion
b. Theory
c. Hypothesis
d. Prediction

A

c. Hypothesis

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7
Q

A scientist proposes that sugar is inherently fattening, independent of its calorie content. If that proposal is true, then that would mean that high sugar diets should increase fat gain independent of the calorie content. What term describes this potential consequence?

a. Conclusion
b. Theory
c. Hypothesis
d. Prediction

A

d. Prediction

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8
Q

Which of the following represents a critical evaluation of a study by other scientists?

a. Systematic review
b. Peer review
c. Scientific method
d. Narrative review

A

b. Peer review

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9
Q

Scientist gather 20 studies looking at the relationship between protein intake and lean body mass, and then they statistically analyze them together as a group. What type of study is this?

a. Narrative review
b. Meta-analysis
c. Randomized controlled trials
d. Observational research

A

b. Meta-analysis

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10
Q

An important factor impacting satiety includes which of the following?

a. Location
b. Affordability
c. Hunger
d. Palatability

A

d. Palatability

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11
Q

Communicable diseases are which of the following?

a. Genetic and inherited from birth
b. Caused by smoking and unhealthy lifestyle habits
c. Passed from person to person
d. Due to poor nutrition choices

A

c. Passed from person to person

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12
Q

Intellectual wellness implies which of the following?

a. Constant learning
b. Superior knowledge
c. High IQ
d. Lack of knowledge

A

a. Constant learning

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13
Q

Which of the following is true about the link between type-2 diabetes and diet?

a. It is proven and no longer studied.
b. It is not known.
c. They have a very strong connection.
d. The link between them is weak.

A

c. They have a very strong connection.

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14
Q

Which of the following is best defined as the energy accounted for during non-sustained exercise or activity?

a. Near resting energy thermogenesis (NRET)
b. Resting energy activity thermogenesis (REAT)
c. Non-energy burning thermogenesis (NEBT)
d. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)

A

d. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)

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15
Q

What foods tend to have a higher thermic response than others?

a. High-protein foods
b. Low-carbohydrate foods
c. High-fat foods
d. Low-protein foods

A

a. High-protein foods

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16
Q

During the first few seconds of exercise, regardless of intensity, what system is primarily utilized?

a. Krebs cycle
b. ATP – PC system
c. Aerobic glycolysis
d. Anaerobic glycolysis

A

b. ATP – PC system

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17
Q

The increase in energy expenditure after consuming a meal is referred to as which of the following?

a. Thermic effect of food (TEF)
b. Thermic affect of activity (TEA)
c. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
d. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

A

a. Thermic effect of food (TEF)

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18
Q

How do proteins and amino acids influence body pH?

a. They are only basic and increase body pH.
b. They are only acidic and decrease body pH.
c. They do nothing to influence body pH.
d. They act as buffers to maintain neutral pH.

A

d. They act as buffers to maintain neutral pH.

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19
Q

How many essential amino acids are there?

a. 8
b. 20
c. 10
d. 9

A

d. 9

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20
Q

For an individual engaged in light aerobic exercise 2 - 3 days per week, what would be the most optimal protein prescription?

a. 2.0 g/kg body weight
b. 0.8 g/kg body weight
c. 3.0 g/kg body weight
d. 1.4 g/kg body weight

A

d. 1.4 g/kg body weight

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21
Q

Does the Dietary Guidelines for Americans adjust RDAs according to a persons activity level?

a. No, they are only based on body size.
b. Yes, the recommendations are adjusted based on activity level, weight, height, and goal.
c. No, they are only based on body volume.
d. Yes, they are adjusted based on activity level alone.

A

a. No, they are only based on body size.

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22
Q

What is the main protein involved in regulating fluid balance?

a. Leucine
b. Albumin
c. Human growth hormone
d. Hemoglobin

A

b. Albumin

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23
Q

What is the current daily fiber intake recommendation for men in the U.S.?

a. 18 grams of fiber daily
b. 38 grams of fiber daily
c. 10 grams of fiber daily
d. 25 grams of fiber daily

A

b. 38 grams of fiber daily

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24
Q

What factor can raise a foods GI score?

a. Cooking and reheating a complex carbohydrate
b. The presence of fiber in the food
c. The presence of fat in the food
d. Ingesting food in a liquid state

A

d. Ingesting food in a liquid state

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25
Q

Which two monosaccharides combine to make lactose?

a. Glucose and galactose
b. Glucose and fructose
c. Glucose and maltose
d. Glucose and glucose

A

a. Glucose and galactose

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26
Q

The United States consumes more sugar than any other country in the world. From the options provided, what food category represents the largest source of sugar intake in the U.S. diet?

a. Fruit
b. Dairy
c. Snacks and sweets
d. Beverages

A

d. Beverages

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27
Q

What disease associated with large intakes of fructose in inactive people has recently gained more attention as a health concern?

a. Cirrhosis
b. Hypertriglyridemia
c. Non-alcoholic liver disease
d. Hyperinsulemia

A

c. Non-alcoholic liver disease

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28
Q

What is a valid health reason for recommending a variety of protein sources such as nuts and seeds?

a. They are low in fat.
b. They are low in unsaturated fats.
c. They are high in essential fatty acids.
d. They are high in LDL cholesterol.

A

c. They are high in essential fatty acids.

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29
Q

Joe is on a 3500 kcals per day eating plan. Based on the AMDR guidelines, what is the BEST range of calories for fat intake for him?

a. 700 - 1225 kcals
b. 350 - 650 kcals
c. 1250 - 1350 kcals
d. 1400 - 1525 kcals

A

a. 700 - 1225 kcals

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30
Q

What is the definition of saturated fat?

a. Saturated fats are fatty acids that have maximum number of hydrogen molecules and contain only a single bond between the carbon atoms.
b. Saturated fat is fatty acid that is manufactured when hydrogen is added to liquid vegetable oil.
c. Saturated fats are fatty acids that have two or more double bonds between carbon atoms.
d. Saturated fats are fatty acids that cannot be synthesized in the body, or not an adequate amounts.

A

a. Saturated fats are fatty acids that have maximum number of hydrogen molecules and contain only a single bond between the carbon atoms.

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31
Q

What is the function of low-density lipoproteins?

a. Transportation of cholesterol to the small intestine
b. Transportation of enzymes to the pancreas
c. Transportation of bile to the gallbladder
d. Transportation of cholesterol to cells of the body

A

d. Transportation of cholesterol to cells of the body

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32
Q

Why is it easy for the average person to meet the adequate intake for omega-6 fatty acids?

a. Food sources, such as apples, bananas, and pears, are readily available.
b. Food sources, such as salmon, herring, and crab, are readily available.
c. Food sources, such as flaxseed oil, chia seeds, and flaxseeds, are readily available.
d. Food sources, such as corn chips and microwave popcorn, are readily available.

A

d. Food sources, such as corn chips and microwave popcorn, are readily available.

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33
Q

What is the risk associated with drinking alcohol in cold environments?

a. Hypothermia
b. Hyperhydration
c. Dehydration
d. Hyperthermia

A

a. Hypothermia

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34
Q

How much alcohol is recommended for pregnant females and individuals planning on driving?

a. Zero alcohol
b. 1 standard drink
c. 2 standard drinks
d. 3 standard drinks

A

a. Zero alcohol

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35
Q

For males, levels of ethanol consumption are closely associated with what?

a. Improved muscle mass
b. Excess belly fat
c. High lean body mass
d. Low body mass index

A

b. Excess belly fat

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36
Q

After consuming alcohol, how much of the absorbed ethanol is metabolized in the liver?

a. 0.8
b. 1
c. 0.7
d. 0.9

A

d. 0.9

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37
Q

What is the common name for vitamin B3?

a. Riboflavin
b. Thiamine
c. Niacin
d. Folate

A

c. Niacin

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38
Q

In which of the following key processes is chromium involved?

a. Insulin signaling
b. Heart rate
c. Blood pressure
d. Nerve conduction

A

a. Insulin signaling

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39
Q

What is the common name for vitamin B2?

a. Pantothenic acid
b. Thiamine
c. Riboflavin
d. Folic acid

A

c. Riboflavin

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40
Q

Iron deficiency is the primary cause of which of the following conditions?

a. Anemia
b. Hemophilia
c. Hypertension
d. Sickle cell

A

a. Anemia

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41
Q

A client weighs 50 kg and is training to complete a cool weather half-marathon in a time of about 2 hours. The client’s sweat losses are expected to equal 2 liters (about 4% of body mass). Which fluid intake goal would be most appropriate?

a. Drink 2 liter of water during the race.
b. Drink 2 liter of sports beverage during the race.
c. Begin the race euhydrated and simply drink to thirst.
d. Drink 1 liter of water and 1 liter of sports a beverage during the race.

A

c. Begin the race euhydrated and simply drink to thirst.

42
Q

Which item most accurately describes the role of fluid intake in regards to assisting body temperature regulation during exercise in the heat?

a. Fluid intake has no role in the regulation of body temperature during exercise in the heat.
b. Fluid intake can blunt increases in temperature during severe dehydration, but it cannot prevent all cases of heat illness.
c. Fluid intake prevents heat related illness.
d. Fluid intake is just as important for body temperature regulation for short-duration exercise in the heat as long-duration exercise in the heat.

A

b. Fluid intake can blunt increases in temperature during severe dehydration, but it cannot prevent all cases of heat illness.

43
Q

Which of the following has research shown is true regarding most individuals engaged in training that produces significant sweat losses?

a. They significantly underestimate their sweat losses.
b. They accurately estimate their sweat losses.
c. They slightly overestimate their sweat losses.
d. They significantly overestimate their sweat losses.

A

a. They significantly underestimate their sweat losses.

44
Q

Which individual would be most likely to be at risk for exercise associated hyponatremia?

a. A runner completing a marathon in 2.75 hours in hot weather.
b. An individual completing a spin class in a warm spin room.
c. An individual completing a one hour spin class in a cool room.
d. A runner completing a 4.5 hour marathon in cool weather.

A

d. A runner completing a 4.5 hour marathon in cool weather.

45
Q

What type of nourishment should an athlete consume during an endurance event lasting under 60 minutes?

a. Water or electrolyte replacement drink
b. High-fiber carbohydrates
c. Transportable carbohydrates (soft gels)
d. Solid foods low on the glycemic index

A

a. Water or electrolyte replacement drink

46
Q

A strength athlete’s pre-exercise meal should be how many hours before exercise?

a. 4 to 6 hours
b. 2 to 4 hours
c. 30 minutes to 1 hour
d. 1 to 2 hours

A

b. 2 to 4 hours

47
Q

On average, how long do glycogen stores last during exercise?

a. 90 - 120 minutes
b. 15 - 20 minutes
c. 30 - 60 minutes
d. 125 - 145 minutes

A

a. 90 - 120 minutes

48
Q

What energy source is preferred by the brain?

a. Glucose
b. Fatty acids
c. Triglycerides
d. Amino acids

A

a. Glucose

49
Q

Which of the following describes the intake of essential micronutrients among those attempting weight loss?

a. It is adequate.
b. It is worse compared to those not attempting weight loss.
c. It is excessive.
d. It is similar to those not attempting weight loss.

A

b. It is worse compared to those not attempting weight loss.

50
Q

Strong evidence exists for which supplement to assist with building muscle?

a. Creatine monohydrate
b. HMB
c. BCAAs
d. Glutamine

A

a. Creatine monohydrate

51
Q

What are essential amino acids?

a. Amino acid that are produced by the body
b. Amino acids that are present in animal sources only
c. Amino acids that must be obtained from the diet
d. Amino acids that are not needed for essential bodily functions

A

c. Amino acids that must be obtained from the diet

52
Q

For what type of activities would beta alanine be beneficial?

a. Low-intensity exercise lasting longer than an hour
b. High-intensity exercise lasting less than 30 seconds
c. Low-intensity exercise lasting less than an hour
d. High-intensity exercise lasting 30 seconds to 10 minutes

A

d. High-intensity exercise lasting 30 seconds to 10 minutes

53
Q

A call to action to change eating behavior would occur during which stage of behavior change?

a. Contemplation
b. Preparation
c. Pre-contemplation
d. Action

A

c. Pre-contemplation

54
Q

Which of the following is the main way that the media influences eating behaviors?

a. It has an overall strong influence over what people see as “normal “and these images can be misleading.
b. Companies are allowed to promise results without any evidence to back up claims.
c. The media has a priority of demonstrating a strong anti-fat bias.
d. Advertisements often tell people what they should be consuming.

A

a. It has an overall strong influence over what people see as “normal “and these images can be misleading.

55
Q

Having a BMI less than which of the following values indicates an extreme case of anorexia nervosa?

a. 18.0 kg/m2
b. 17.0 kg/m2
c. 19.0 kg/m2
d. 15.0 kg/m2

A

d. 15.0 kg/m2

56
Q

Which of the following is a known factor in the development of disordered eating and poor body image?

a. Negative efficacy
b. Low self-esteem
c. Decreased confidence
d. Inverted self-concept

A

b. Low self-esteem

57
Q

Which of the following is best defined by an understanding of one’s own strengths and weaknesses?

a. Self-confidence
b. Self-efficacy
c. Self-monitoring
d. Self-awareness

A

d. Self-awareness

58
Q

Which of the following types of questioning encourages client to openly share ideas and information?

a. Divergent questioning
b. Probing questioning
c. Closed-ended questioning
d. Reflective questioning

A

a. Divergent questioning

59
Q

Which of the following represents the importance of mirroring as a nonverbal communication technique?

a. Allows coach to set example for goal behavior
b. Allows coach to influence client perceptions
c. Allows coach to pick up on cultural differences
d. Allows coach to demonstrate authority

A

c. Allows coach to pick up on cultural differences

60
Q

Which of the following represents the best body language to use in communication?

a. Keep arms comfortably crossed.
b. Be still with hands-on lab or table.
c. Lean back in the chair.
d. Sit with a very straight posture.

A

b. Be still with hands-on lab or table.

61
Q

Which of the following is the most important tool in becoming a better listener and communicator?

a. The ability to be an active listener
b. The ability to match verbal and nonverbal cues
c. The ability to use reflective statements
d. The ability to ask quality questions

A

d. The ability to ask quality questions

62
Q

Changing because of outside pressures is a controlled motive; however, changing because an individual wants to change is considered to be which one of the following?

a. Self-determined motive
b. Autonomous motive
c. Integrated motive
d. Extrinsic motive

A

b. Autonomous motive

63
Q

A coach summarizes and restates what a client has just told them by saying, “This is the third time you have made a serious effort at losing weight in the last two years. The goal is personally important to you for health reasons, but you are also worried about staying committed to the goal over the long haul.” Which of the following is the coach expressing?

a. Accurate empathy
b. Listening skills
c. Positive feedback
d. Change talk

A

a. Accurate empathy

64
Q

Which of the following allows for empathetic listening to occur?

a. The Nutrition Coach provides generic compliments.
b. The Nutrition Coach provides conditional support.
c. The Nutrition Coach is judgmental.
d. The Nutrition Coach respects and accepts the client.

A

d. The Nutrition Coach respects and accepts the client.

65
Q

When a coach argues that a client’s behavior needs to change, the client may respond by doing which of the following?

a. Excepting the need for change
b. Defending their behavior
c. Moving from contemplation to action
d. Asking for more advice

A

b. Defending their behavior

66
Q

“I want to increase my intake of vegetables from two servings to three servings per day,” is an example of which kind of goal?

a. Do your best goal
b. Subjective goal
c. Performance goal
d. Outcome goal

A

c. Performance goal

67
Q

What goals are focused on helping individuals to reach their performance goal?

a. Outcome goals
b. Process goals
c. Do your best goals
d. Subjective goals

A

b. Process goals

68
Q

Why should Nutrition Coaches be careful when applying goal-setting principles regarding diet and nutrition to children?

a. Young children will be overly sad if they don’t reach their goal.
b. Young children lack the need of discipline to follow instructions.
c. Young children often lack the maturity and ability to accurately self-monitor their own behaviors.
d. Young children will find ways to cheat when not supervised by a parent.

A

c. Young children often lack the maturity and ability to accurately self-monitor their own behaviors.

69
Q

Which of the following is increased by self-determined goals that enhance commitment?

a. Extrinsic motivation
b. Self-awareness
c. Intelligence
d. Intrinsic motivation

A

d. Intrinsic motivation

70
Q

Which body composition assessment determines the volume of the body based on the relationship between body volume and air pressure?

a. Air displacement plethysmography (ADP)
b. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
c. Ultrasound imaging
d. Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)

A

a. Air displacement plethysmography (ADP)

71
Q

The average daily nutrient intake level estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group is known as which of the following?

a. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
b. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
c. Tolerable Upper Limit (UL)
d. Adequate Intake (AI)

A

b. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)

72
Q

A food can be described as “nutrient-dense” if it has which characteristic?

a. It provides a small amount of water content per serving.
b. It provides a large amount of vitamins and minerals per calorie.
c. It provides a small amount of fat per serving.
d. It provides a large amount of protein per calorie.

A

b. It provides a large amount of vitamins and minerals per calorie.

73
Q

Which Dietary Reference Intake (DRI) describes the average daily nutrient intake level sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group?

a. Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL)
b. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
c. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
d. Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR)

A

b. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)

74
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate visual approximation for vegetables at a meal for an average adult female who requires approximately 1500 - 1800 calories per day?

a. Two baseballs
b. A tennis ball
c. Two tennis balls
d. A baseball

A

d. A baseball

75
Q

The Ingredients List for a granola bar lists the following as the first four ingredients: Oats, Sugar, Corn Syrup, Peanut Butter. What can the Nutrition Coach determine about the amount of sugar in the product?

a. Sugar is the second -largest ingredient in the product, by weight.
b. The product is fairly low in sugar as it is not the first ingredient listed.
c. The product has a small amount of sugar.
d. 25% of the product is sugar.

A

a. Sugar is the second -largest ingredient in the product, by weight.

76
Q

If a supplement makes a claim about a nutrient (e.g. a vitamin, mineral, amino acid, or type of fat), what information must it provide on the Supplement Facts label?

a. The amount of the nutrient in a serving of the product
b. The RDA of the nutrient in a 2000 cal diet
c. The ratio of the nutrient in the product
d. The % RDA of the nutrient in the product

A

a. The amount of the nutrient in a serving of the product

77
Q

Which of the following nutrients does not have a % Daily Value listed on the Nutrition Facts label?

a. Protein
b. Carbohydrate
c. Added Sugars
d. Dietary Fiber

A

a. Protein

78
Q

When selecting or preparing a meal, why is it important to include a source of protein?

a. They promote meal satisfaction and prolong satiety.
b. Protein is digested fairly quickly and is a good source of energy.
c. They can add a bulk to a meal.
d. Adding a protein and fat can help avoid over-eating on carbohydrates at a meal.

A

a. They promote meal satisfaction and prolong satiety.

79
Q

Basic food safety guidelines remain important when meal prepping. Cooked fish should be consumed no later than how many days following preparation?

a. 4 to 5 days after preparation
b. 1 to 2 days after preparation
c. 2 to 3 days after preparation
d. 3 to 4 days after preparation

A

c. 2 to 3 days after preparation

80
Q

Which of the following might be the best snack option for a client to select from a vending machine?

a. A muffin
b. Cheese stick or Greek yogurt
c. A candy bar
d. A package of cookies

A

b. Cheese stick or Greek yogurt

81
Q

The nutrient quality of a meal refers to which of the following?

a. The total number of nutrients provided in a meal relative to the total number of foods in the meal
b. Whether or not the foods used to to prepare the meal are of high quality
c. Whether or not the foods in the meal are organically sourced
d. The amount and variety of nutrients provided in a food or meal

A

d. The amount and variety of nutrients provided in a food or meal

82
Q

What does batch prep mean?

a. Cooking large amounts of each recipe
b. Preparing recipes in bulk quantities
c. Preparing ingredients used in multiple recipes at the same time
d. Cooking two or more recipes for meal prep

A

c. Preparing ingredients used in multiple recipes at the same time

83
Q

A high-protein diet can be potentially harmful to people within which of the following groups?

a. Those with type 2 diabetes
b. Those with Celiac disease
c. Those with a kidney disorder
d. Those with high cholesterol

A

c. Those with a kidney disorder

84
Q

Which of the following grains is naturally gluten free?

a. Rye
b. Barley
c. Wheat
d. Corn

A

d. Corn

85
Q

Which diet-related factor most strongly improves health in type 2 diabetics?

a. Regular consumption of complex carbohydrates
b. Increased production of ketones (ketone bodies)
c. Weight loss
d. Increased hydration

A

c. Weight loss

86
Q

Which of these hormones most directly increases one’s appetite?

a. Progesterone
b. Ghrelin
c. Testosterone
d. Thyroid hormone

A

b. Ghrelin

87
Q

According to global estimates, what is the prevalence of gluten-related disorders?

a. 0.05
b. 0.25
c. 1.0
d. 0.5

A

a. 0.05

88
Q

Wheat allergy is best described as which of the following?

a. Allergic reaction
b. Autoimmune condition
c. Gluten intolerance
d. Food sensitivity

A

a. Allergic reaction

89
Q

Non-celiac gluten sensitivity is best described as which of the following?

a. Gluten intolerance
b. Allergic reaction
c. Autoimmune condition
d. Food sensitivity

A

d. Food sensitivity

90
Q

Organic meat and milk, compared to conventional, contains significantly greater concentrations of what nutrient?

a. Omega-3 fatty acids
b. Monounsaturated fatty acid
c. Protein
d. Saturated fatty acids

A

a. Omega-3 fatty acids

91
Q

How many nonnutritive sweeteners have been approved for use by the FDA?

a. 8
b. 4
c. 6
d. 2

A

a. 8

92
Q

A client has been struggling to lose weight on a low-carb diet. Which item is most likely to be true?

a. The client is adherent to the diet but is not metabolically compatible with it.
b. The client is unable to adhere to a low-carb diet.
c. The client feels low on energy and is less active.
d. The client has not decreased carbohydrates enough.

A

b. The client is unable to adhere to a low-carb diet.

93
Q

Which item best explains most weight loss plateaus, especially early in a program?

a. Metabolic adaptation
b. “Starvation mode”
c. Loss of dietary adherence
d. Decline in physical activity

A

c. Loss of dietary adherence

94
Q

A client sees a Nutrition Coach having previously followed a diet that separated foods into healthy and unhealthy choices. What sort of dietary approach does this represent?

a. Tailored approach
b. Rigid restraint
c. Flexible restraint
d. Self-regulation

A

b. Rigid restraint

95
Q

Which item represents a method for overcoming environmental barriers to adherence?

a. Regularly self-monitor calorie intake.
b. Increase physical activity.
c. Only keep food in the house that need to be prepared or cooked (not premade or prepackaged).
d. Reduce food variety.

A

c. Only keep food in the house that need to be prepared or cooked (not premade or prepackaged).

96
Q

An increase in hunger would fall under which category of reasons for lapses in dietary adherence?

a. Personal
b. Psychological
c. Physiological
d. Environmental

A

c. Physiological

97
Q

What are carbohydrate guidelines for endurance athletes who partake in very high-volume, endurance-based training such as athletes engaging in > 6 hours of training per day at 5 - 7 days per week?

a. About 12 g/kg/day
b. 1 - 2 g/kg/day
c. 5 - 7 g/kg/day
d. 17 - 19 g/kg/day

A

a. About 12 g/kg/day

98
Q

Peter, the 40-year-old business executive, needs to determine how many grams of protein to eat each day. He weighs 100 kg. His protein intake has been set at 1.6 g/kg. How much protein should he eat per day?

a. 260 grams
b. 60 grams
c. 160 grams
d. 360 grams

A

c. 160 grams

99
Q

What is the most important aspect of data analysis?

a. It should be simple and focused on the most important aspects.
b. It uses 80% quantitative and 20% qualitative measures, respectively.
c. It uses 20% quantitative and 50% qualitative measures, respectively.
d. It uses a simple linear regression model.

A

a. It should be simple and focused on the most important aspects.

100
Q

What are the guidelines for carbohydrate intake for strength or power athletes?

a. about 12 g/kg/day
b. 5 - 6 g/kg/day
c. 1 - 2 g/kg/day
d. 3 - 4 g/kg/day

A

b. 5 - 6 g/kg/day

Nutrition CNC (6 decks)

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