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Nutrition Review Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

To ensure the client is retaining any shared information, it is important that the content presented is perceived to be important and what other quality?

a. Reviewed several times
b. Based on prior experience
c. Easy to understand
d. Delivered slowly

A

b. Based on prior experience

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2
Q

With which client would it be most appropriate for the Nutrition Coach to work?

a. Clients who want advice on supplements
b. Clients considering training for a half-Ironman
c. Issues with consistent weight loss
d. Clients who want to go vegan

A

c. Issues with consistent weight loss

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3
Q

Which statement is within the scope of practice for a Nutrition Coach?

a. Provide general advice on a 3-day detox plan.
b. Recommend a diet that consists of 250% protein.
c. Design a 5-day meal plan for a healthy client.
d. Recommend the client discuss supplement usage and dosing with their pharmacist or physician.

A

d. Recommend the client discuss supplement usage and dosing with their pharmacist or physician.

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4
Q

A Nutrition Coach is sitting down with a new client for her initial evaluation. She noted on her Health History Questionnaire that she has never been able to maintain permanent weight loss and confides that she has made herself throw up after eating large meals. What is the best course of action?

a. Tell her she may have anorexia and refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist.
b. Move forward with the client sessions but monitor her closely for any more self-induced vomiting.
c. Tell her she has bulimia and refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist.
d. Refer her to a clinical psychologist.

A

d. Refer her to a clinical psychologist.

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5
Q

A Nutrition Coach has been working with an overweight client for 6 weeks. During the most recent weigh-in, they discover that she has lost 27 pounds. What is the best course of action for the Nutrition Coach?

a. Suggest she limit her exercise two twice per week.
b. Informally question her about common eating disorder traits/habits.
c. Congratulate her for a job well done.
d. Add an additional 300 - 500 cal to her daily intake.

A

b. Informally question her about common eating disorder traits/habits.

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6
Q

Scientists perform a study looking at the effects of caffeine on vertical jump performance. On one day, they give all the subjects caffeine followed by vertical jump tests. Two weeks later, they give all the subjects a placebo followed by the same vertical jump tests. Which term best describes this study design?

a. Parallel
b. Factorial
c. Crossover
d. Observational

A

c. Crossover

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7
Q

Fructose has been shown in studies to have adverse effects on blood triglycerides when consumed in excess of calorie needs. However, moderate doses of fructose have been shown to have no effect. Which of the following items best describes the conclusion that should be drawn from this data?

a. There is no reason to ever restrict fructose intake.
b. There is insufficient evidence to draw conclusions as to the impact of fructose intake on triglycerides.
c. Fructose intake poses no risk to triglycerides when consumed with an energy needs, but caution is warranted if calorie intake is high.
d. Fruit toast should be limited in the diet as much as possible.

A

c. Fructose intake poses no risk to triglycerides when consumed with an energy needs, but caution is warranted if calorie intake is high.

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8
Q

Numerous studies, including genetic studies, randomized controlled trials on lipid lowering medication, and observational studies point to LDL having a causal role in heart disease. Which term best describes the concept that LDL plays a causal role in heart disease?

a. Prediction
b. Conclusion
c. Theory
d. Hypothesis

A

c. Theory

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9
Q

“I tried this diet and lost 30 pounds.” What type of evidence is this?

a. Anecdote
b. Expert opinion
c. Observational research
d. Randomized controlled trial

A

a. Anecdote

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10
Q

Changing seasons have which of the following?

a. Limited application in western society
b. A significant impact on food choices
c. Extensive government tracking
d. A little impact on food choices

A

b. A significant impact on food choices

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11
Q

The association between diet and disease is which of the following?

a. Not well understood
b. Lacking correlation
c. The subject of controversy
d. Well understood

A

d. Well understood

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12
Q

Non-communicable diseases are also known as which of the following?

a. Chronic diseases
b. Preventative diseases
c. Infectious diseases
d. Palliative diseases

A

a. Chronic diseases

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13
Q

Which of the following best describes chronic diseases?

a. They are of short duration.
b. They are infectious and transmitted through the air.
c. They are of long duration.
d. They are isolated in the body.

A

c. They are of long duration.

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14
Q

The process of generating energy (in the form of ATP) from nutrients we consume in our diet is referred to as which of the following?

a. Energy requirement
b. Energy adaption
c. Energy metabolism
d. Energy restriction

A

c. Energy metabolism

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15
Q

What are shorter sleep cycles associated with?

a. Weight gain
b. Muscle wasting
c. Weight loss
d. Atrophy

A

a. Weight gain

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16
Q

The storage form of glucose is known as which of the following?

a. Glycogen
b. Triglyceride
c. Glycose
d. Glycerol

A

a. Glycogen

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17
Q

Which organ produces and releases both insulin and glucagon?

a. Kidney
b. Thyroid
c. Pancreas
d. Liver

A

c. Pancreas

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18
Q

Can post-workout protein consumption increase muscle glycogen synthesis?

a. No, only carbohydrate alone increases glycogen synthesis.
b. No, it never enhances glycogen synthesis.
c. Yes, it enhances glycogen synthesis on its own.
d. Yes, when consumed with carbohydrate.

A

d. Yes, when consumed with carbohydrate.

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19
Q

For an individual engaged in vigorous resistance training 5 - 6 days per week, what would be the most optimal protein prescription?

a. 0.4 g/kg body weight
b. 0.8 g/kg body weight
c. 5.0 g/kg body weight
d. 2.0 g/kg body weight

A

d. 2.0 g/kg body weight

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20
Q

Which of the following may be the most optimal protein distribution pattern for an 70 kg client with a goal to build muscle?

a. 2 meals with 42 g protein
b. 3 meals, each with 28 g protein
c. 4 meals, each with 21 g protein
d. 4 meals, each with 15 g protein

A

c. 4 meals, each with 21 g protein

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21
Q

Is it ever okay for a sedentary person to eat a high protein diet?

a. No, a sedentary person should never consume a high protein diet.
b. Yes, but only a moderately high protein diet up to 1.6 g/kg body weight.
c. Yes, but only a little over the RDA, up to 1.2 g/kg body weight.
d. Yes, there is usually no issue with a sedentary person consuming a diet high in protein up to 2.2 g/kg body weight.

A

d. Yes, there is usually no issue with a sedentary person consuming a diet high in protein up to 2.2 g/kg body weight.

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22
Q

What are the essential amino acids?

a. Histidine, lysine, methionine, proline, tyrosine, tryptophan, leucine, isoleucine, valine
b. Histidine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, leucine, isoleucine, valine
c. Histidine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, aspartic acid, glutamic acid, serine
d. Histidine, lysine, methionine, proline, aspartic acid, carnosine, leucine, isoleucine, valine

A

b. Histidine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, leucine, isoleucine, valine

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23
Q

What is the current daily fiber intake recommendation for women in the U.S.?

a. 20 grams of fiber daily
b. 15 grams of fiber daily
c. 25 grams of fiber daily
d. 30 grams of fiber daily

A

c. 25 grams of fiber daily

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24
Q

What glycemic score ranks a carbohydrate food as a high GI food?

a. GI score between 70 - 75
b. GI score over 69
c. GI score between 35 - 55
d. GI score under 55

A

b. GI score over 69

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25
Q

What term is defined as the combined effect of both a carbohydrate’s glycemic index (GI) score and the amount of that carbohydrate consumed?

a. Glycemic load
b. Glycemic effect
c. Insulin affect
d. Insulin load

A

a. Glycemic load

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26
Q

Which of the following combine to make maltose?

a. Glucose and maltose
b. Glucose and galactose
c. Glucose and glucose
d. Glucose and fructose

A

c. Glucose and glucose

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27
Q

From the options provided, which carbohydrate food has the lowest glycemic index (GI) score?

a. Hummus
b. Orange juice
c. White bread
d. Hard candy

A

a. Hummus

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28
Q

What are both chylomicrons and very low-density lipoproteins responsible for transporting in the blood stream?

a. Ketone bodies
b. Amino acids
c. Water-soluble vitamins
d. Triglycerides

A

d. Triglycerides

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29
Q

A client tells his Nutrition Coach he is on a 2,100 kcal/day diet. If he is trying to consume 30% of his calories from fat, how many grams of fat should he be consuming?

a. 367 grams of fat
b. 156 grams of fat
c. 163 grams of fat
d. 70 grams of fat

A

d. 70 grams of fat

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30
Q

What is an example of saturated fat?

a. Palm oil
b. Almonds
c. Olive oil
d. Salmon

A

a. Palm oil

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31
Q

What is eicosatetraenoic acid (EPA)?

a. An omega-6 fatty acid found in nuts and seeds.
b. A thin, soft, pliable layer that acts as a lining around a cell.
c. An omega-3 fatty acid found in the oil of cold-water fish.
d. An acid released by the stomach to aid in digestion of food.

A

c. An omega-3 fatty acid found in the oil of cold-water fish.

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32
Q

Which term best describes a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids which are insoluble in blood and water and which are the main lipid in food supply, providing energy as stored fat in the body?

a. Glycogen
b. Triglycerides
c. Enzymes
d. Amino acids

A

b. Triglycerides

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33
Q

According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, how many standard drinks per day are recommended for females to ensure that alcohol consumption is moderate?

a. Three
b. One
c. Four
d. Two

A

b. One

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34
Q

Alcoholics often suffer from structural and functional damage to their brain as a result of a deficiency in which vitamin?

a. Thiamine
b. Riboflavin
c. Niacin
d. Vitamin C

A

a. Thiamine

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35
Q

Why are females more susceptible to the effects of alcohol?

a. They have less body water than males, so alcohol is more concentrated in the tissues it enters.
b. Females prefer to drink wine and spirits, which are high in alcohol content.
c. Ethanol metabolism by the liver in females is less effective than males.
d. Females eat less food, so ethanol is absorbed faster than in males.

A

a. They have less body water than males, so alcohol is more concentrated in the tissues it enters.

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36
Q

Approximately how much ethanol is metabolized per hour?

a. 2 grams
b. 10 grams
c. 14 grams
d. 7 grams

A

d. 7 grams

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37
Q

What is the definition of Estimated Average Requirement for a nutrient?

a. The average daily dietary intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all (97 to 98%) healthy individuals in a group.
b. The highest level of daily nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in the general population.
c. A nutrient intake value that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals in a group.
d. A value based on observed or experimentally determined approximations of nutrient intake by a group (or groups) of healthy people.

A

c. A nutrient intake value that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals in a group.

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38
Q

What is the recommended serving amount of fruit per day based on USDA Guidelines?

a. 1
b. 4
c. 3
d. 6

A

b. 4

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39
Q

What medical therapy is used to remove metals from the body, specifically things like iron, mercury, arsenic, and/or lead?

a. Chemotherapy
b. Chelation
c. Ultrasound
d. Phlebotomy

A

b. Chelation

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40
Q

What family of compounds are the vitamin K1 compounds called?

a. Menaquinones
b. Phylloquinones
c. Retinoids
d. Tocopherols

A

b. Phylloquinones

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41
Q

Which of the following electrolytes is found in the greatest concentration in the extracellular fluid?

a. Potassium
b. Magnesium
c. Calcium
d. Sodium

A

d. Sodium

42
Q

A client’s pre-exercise weight is 75.0 kg. Their post-exercise weight is 73.5 kg. They consumed 0.25 liters of fluid during training. What was the volume of their sweat loss?

a. 1.25 liters
b. 2.0 liters
c. 1.5 liters
d. 1.75 liters

A

d. 1.75 liters

43
Q

What signaling mechanism triggers thirst due to a significant loss in total body water from sweating?

a. Golgi tendon organ
b. Baroreceptor
c. Osmoreceptor
d. Muscle spindle

A

b. Baroreceptor

44
Q

A client has repeatedly exhibited a pre-exercise USG (urine specific gravity) range between 1.028 and 1.032. How would a Nutrition Coach interpret this finding?

a. The client needs to increase their fluid and take between training bouts.
b. The client is drinking an appropriate amount of water.
c. The client is severely over consuming fluids during recovery.
d. The client is drinking too many sport drinks.

A

a. The client needs to increase their fluid and take between training bouts.

45
Q

What is the working definition of nutrient timing?

a. It is the temporal positioning of nutrients throughout the day and/or relative to the exercise bout in order to maximize performance or improve body composition.
b. It is the time it takes for a person to feel satiated after eating a meal due to the release of the hormone leptin from fat cells signaling the brain.
c. It is a type of diet plan in which individuals eat normally five days a week, while the remaining two days involve severe calorie restriction.
d. It is the body’s ability to digest and absorb nutrients in the intestinal tract and deliver those nutrients to the liver and working muscle.

A

a. It is the temporal positioning of nutrients throughout the day and/or relative to the exercise bout in order to maximize performance or improve body composition.

46
Q

An endurance athlete in an exercise session lasting more than 60 minutes should replace electrolytes with foods or sports drinks that are high in which of the following?

a. Calcium and vitamin D
b. Sodium and potassium
c. Mercury and iron
d. Vitamin A and vitamin K

A

b. Sodium and potassium

47
Q

What type of nourishment should a strength athlete consume in their pre-exercise meal?

a. Fiber (15 - 20 g/kg), 20 - 30 g complex carbohydrates, high unsaturated fats
b. Carbohydrate (6 - 10 g/kg), 6 - 10 g lean protein, high fiber and fat
c. Fiber (5 - 10 g’/kg), 5 - 10 g complex carbohydrates, high saturated fats
d. Carbohydrate (1 - 4 g/kg), 20 - 30 g lean protein, low fiber and fat

A

d. Carbohydrate (1 - 4 g/kg), 20 - 30 g lean protein, low fiber and fat

48
Q

What are the most abundant sources of endogenous energy in the body?

a. Disaccharides
b. Monosaccharides
c. Hydrochloric acid
d. Fatty acids

A

d. Fatty acids

49
Q

What is the usefulness of a multivitamin and mineral formula?

a. They fill the needs of special populations only.
b. They can help meet the recommended intakes and avoiding common insufficiencies.
c. They make up for poor food choices.
d. They are not particularly useful except for over deficiencies.

A

b. They can help meet the recommended intakes and avoiding common insufficiencies.

50
Q

All independent testing agencies provide which services?

a. Annual audits of the supplement companies to ensure compliance to Good Manufacturing Practices
b. Effectiveness of the supplement
c. Identify ingredient forms and amounts
d. Tests for anabolic steroids

A

c. Identify ingredient forms and amounts

51
Q

The Food & Drug Administration’s role in the manufacturing of supplements includes which of the following?

a. Screening of all dietary supplements for banned substances, illegal drugs, and prescription drugs
b. Maintaining a database of supplements found to be contaminated with illegal drugs and prescription medication
c. Review of label claims by supplement manufacturers for accuracy and truthfulness
d. Mandatory annual audits of supplement manufacturers

A

b. Maintaining a database of supplements found to be contaminated with illegal drugs and prescription medication

52
Q

Which term refers to the synthesizing of amino acids into skeletal muscle tissue?

a. Muscle hypertrophy
b. Protein balance
c. Muscle protein synthesis
d. Essential amino acids

A

c. Muscle protein synthesis

53
Q

A regular client has indicated that a close family member suffered a serious heart attack and that she believes that changing her diet would be beneficial for her own long-term health. Which step is appropriate to take with this client following this statement?

a. Have the client immediately reduce carbohydrates.
b. Do nothing, the client is clearly in the Precontemplation stage.
c. Hold the client accountable to eating more fruits and vegetables each day.
d. Find out about food preferences and general goals.

A

d. Find out about food preferences and general goals.

54
Q

A client is part of a peer-group that has shared the same struggles with eating properly and trying to lose weight but is now in the Action stage; of which of the following is this an example of?

a. Psychological facilitation
b. Mastery experience
c. Emotional well-being
d. Social modeling

A

d. Social modeling

55
Q

How one sits, stands, or places their arms is an example of which type of non-verbal communication?

a. Spatial awareness
b. Gestures
c. Posture
d. Body position

A

c. Posture

56
Q

Physical, mental, and social well-being collectively encompass which of the following?

a. Ideal image
b. Psychological wellness
c. Positive affect
d. Quality of life

A

d. Quality of life

57
Q

During which stage of listening must the coach ask clarifying questions and be careful not to make assumptions?

a. Remembering stage
b. Receiving stage
c. Understanding stage
d. Evaluation stage

A

c. Understanding stage

58
Q

Which of the following stages of listening is defined by having intentional focus on what the client is sharing?

a. Understanding stage
b. Evaluation stage
c. Remembering stage
d. Receiving stage

A

d. Receiving stage

59
Q

In using supportive language as part of effective communication, which of the following is true?

a. Humor should be used as the key.
b. The focus should be on avoiding why a client has not succeeded in the past.
c. Supportive language should be implemented once report is already established.
d. The focus should be on goal behaviors, not behaviors that need to be avoided.

A

d. The focus should be on goal behaviors, not behaviors that need to be avoided.

60
Q

Which of the following is one primary goal of using supportive words?

a. Decrease emotional response
b. Minimize ambiguity
c. Create purpose
d. Build efficacy

A

d. Build efficacy

61
Q

Empathy is known to be an important component of building a successful coach-client relationship. Which of the following best describes being empathetic in communication?

a. Being empathetic takes practice and intentional effort.
b. Empathy is primarily related to nonverbal communication and body language.
c. Empathy is primarily related to verbal communication and word choice.
d. Being empathetic must be balanced with the coach’s knowledge of programming.

A

a. Being empathetic takes practice and intentional effort.

62
Q

Discrepancies drive behavior change most of the time. That being said, which example of a discrepancy would likely be the most demotivating rather than motivating?

a. A client who weighs 180 pounds and wants to weigh 150 pounds
b. A client who weighs 220 pounds and wants to weigh 140 pounds
c. A client who weighs 180 pounds and wants to wait 160 pounds
d. A client who weighs 160 pounds and wants to 155 pounds

A

b. A client who weighs 220 pounds and wants to weigh 140 pounds

63
Q

Which of the following varies along a continuum and is reflective of the level to which a behavior is integrated into an individual’s values or identity?

a. Self-efficacy
b. Intentions
c. Motivational regulation
d. Behavior

A

c. Motivational regulation

64
Q

Which of the following is true in regards to Motivational Interviewing?

a. It is a directive approach for enhancing autonomous motivation.
b. It is a client-centered approach for enhancing intrinsic motivation.
c. It is a consequence-driven approach for enhancing controlled motivation.
d. It is a confrontational approach for enhancing external motivation.

A

b. It is a client-centered approach for enhancing intrinsic motivation.

65
Q

A client improves their self-efficacy by successfully food prepping. Which of the following are they using to improve their self-efficacy?

a. Verbal persuasion
b. Performance accomplishments
c. Physiological states
d. Various experience

A

b. Performance accomplishments

66
Q

What kind of goal involves a weight loss competition amongst friends?

a. Outcome goal
b. Performance goal
c. Subjective goal
d. Process goal

A

a. Outcome goal

67
Q

Why does the Nutrition Coach need information about goal setting if many individuals already set goals?

a. Individuals tend to set process goals versus outcome goals.
b. Individuals generally do not set goals that maximize positive outcomes.
c. Individuals tend to set SMART goals instead of outcome goals.
d. Individuals generally set objective versus subjective goals.

A

b. Individuals generally do not set goals that maximize positive outcomes.

68
Q

“I want to eat more vegetables,” is an example of which kind of goal?

a. Objective goal
b. Process goal
c. Subjective goal
d. Outcome goal

A

c. Subjective goal

69
Q

“I want to reduce my calorie intake from 3,000 to 2,000 calories per day,” is an example of which kind of goal?

a. Performance goal
b. Do your best goal
c. Subjective goal
d. Outcome goal

A

a. Performance goal

70
Q

Which body composition assessment method measures whole-body and regional (arms, legs, and trunk) body composition using low-energy x-rays?

a. Bioelectrical impedance analysis
b. Infrared 3-dimensional scanning
c. Skinfolds
d. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

A

d. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

71
Q

Which of the following is true about the number of calories an individual needs to consume each day?

a. It is usually not impacted by activity level.
b. It varies based on body size and sex.
c. It stays constant across different ages in adult populations.
d. It always ranges between 1,600 and 3,000 per day.

A

b. It varies based on body size and sex.

72
Q

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend limiting the consumption of certain food groups in the general population. Which of the following is one of the groups that should be limited?

a. Plant protein sources
b. Animal protein sources
c. Trans fats
d. Fruits

A

c. Trans fats

73
Q

The amount of energy (i.e. number of calories) an individual uses at rest in order to sustain basic processes in the body is known as the which of the following?

a. Total daily energy expenditure
b. Energy intake
c. Activity level
d. Resting metabolic rate

A

d. Resting metabolic rate

74
Q

The new/revised Nutrition Facts label requires the nutrient content of four micronutrients to be listed. These micronutrients are listed in which of the following groups?

a. Potassium, Calcium, Iron, Vitamin C
b. Potassium, Vitamin C, Vitamin D, Iron
c. Calcium, Vitamin D, Potassium, Iron
d. Vitamin C, Calcium, Vitamin D, Iron

A

c. Calcium, Vitamin D, Potassium, Iron

75
Q

Which of the following components is not required on the new/revised Nutrition Facts label?

a. Added Sugars
b. Total Calories
c. Calories from Fat
d. Total Sugars

A

c. Calories from Fat

76
Q

What is an appropriate visual approximation for starch at a meal for an average adult male who requires approximately 2,200 - 2,800 calories per day?

a. One cupped palm-sized portion
b. One finger-sized portion
c. Two finger-sized portions
d. Two cupped palm-sized portions

A

d. Two cupped palm-sized portions

77
Q

A client wants to know how to determine if a product has a low amount of saturated fat. At what value(s) would the Nutrition Coach recommend they look to determine this?

a. Look for the RDA for fat in the product.
b. Look for a % Daily Value of 20 or less.
c. Look for a % Daily Value of 5 or less.
d. Look for the total amount of fat in the product

A

c. Look for a % Daily Value of 5 or less.

78
Q

What is one strategy that a client could use to avoid the risk of making impulse purchases at the grocery store?

a. Go grocery shopping at night.
b. Avoid grocery shopping when hungry.
c. Avoid shopping during the day.
d. Go grocery shopping after breakfast.

A

b. Avoid grocery shopping when hungry.

79
Q

B. J. Fogg’s behavior model argues for the idea of “designing for behaviors that lead to an outcome” versus designing for an outcome itself. What does this mean?

a. Make large-scale changes to achieve the outcome.
b. Make small, healthy changes that eventually bring about the desired outcome.
c. Change all existing behaviors immediately to achieve the desired outcome.
d. Over-haul old habits to obtain the desired outcome.

A

b. Make small, healthy changes that eventually bring about the desired outcome.

80
Q

Which of the following foods might be the best choice for a snack from a convenience store or gas station when traveling by road?

a. Tortilla chips and cheese dip
b. Coffee drink and a muffin
c. Iced tea and a bag of trail mix
d. Cheese stick or Greek yogurt

A

d. Cheese stick or Greek yogurt

81
Q

Where should consumers focus the bulk of their shopping at the grocery store in order to buy mostly whole, unprocessed foods?

a. The bottom shelves
b. The perimeter of the store
c. The top shelves
d. The center isles

A

b. The perimeter of the store

82
Q

A client expresses that he is planning on meal prepping and is going to cook enough chicken to last him for the whole week ahead. What might a Nutrition Coach suggest for food safety reasons?

a. Suggest that he only cook enough chicken for one day’s worth of meals to avoid risk of food poisoning.
b. Suggest that he only cook enough for five days worth of meals to avoid risk of food poisoning.
c. Suggest that he freeze some portions since cooked chicken only lasts for 1 or 2 days in the refrigerator.
d. Suggest that he freeze some portions since cooked chicken only lasts for 3 to 4 days in the refrigerator.

A

d. Suggest that he freeze some portions since cooked chicken only lasts for 3 to 4 days in the refrigerator.

83
Q

What is an accurate description of a lacto-ovo vegetarian diet?

a. No animal products at all
b. No animal products except for dairy products and eggs
c. Dairy, eggs, and fish are allowed, but no meat is allowed
d. Primarily vegetarian with occasional inclusion of meat or fish

A

b. No animal products except for dairy products and eggs

84
Q

How can losses of lean body mass while dieting be prevented to the greatest extent?

a. Integrate aerobic training and a high-carbohydrate diet.
b. Integrate resistance training and a high-protein diet.
c. Follow intermittent fasting strategies.
d. Use fish oil and multivitamin supplementation.

A

b. Integrate resistance training at a high-protein diet

85
Q

What is the scientific consensus of genetically modified (GM) foods?

a. Unsustainable and bad for the economy
b. Safe to consume
c. Carcinogenic
d. Extremely hazardous to human health and should be avoided

A

b. Safe to consume

86
Q

Which factor ultimately prevents an individual from losing body fat?

a. Not being in a calorie deficit (negative energy balance)
b. Eating foods high in cholesterol in salt
c. Elevating insulin levels through carbohydrate consumption
d. A diet with > 40% of calories coming from dietary fat

A

a. Not being in a calorie deficit (negative energy balance)

87
Q

High consumption of processed meat products has been associated most strongly with which disease?

a. Dementia
b. Grave’s disease
c. Colon cancer
d. Atherosclerosis

A

c. Colon cancer

88
Q

The greatest concern of consumers of organic foods is the perception that organic foods are which of the following?

a. Environmentally friendly
b. Healthy
c. Socially accepted
d. Economically beneficial

A

b. Healthy

89
Q

Celiac disease is best described as which of the following?

a. Allergic reaction
b. Gluten intolerance
c. Food sensitivity
d. Autoimmune condition

A

d. Autoimmune condition

90
Q

Switching from conventional to organic produce significantly reduces biomarkers of pesticide exposure in as little as how many days?

a. 9 - 11 days
b. 1 - 3 days
c. 5 - 7 days
d. 13 - 15 days

A

c. 5 - 7 days

91
Q

Which of the following is produced in the greatest quantity during fructose metabolism?

a. Fat
b. Lactate
c. Glucose
d. Glycogen

A

c. Glucose

92
Q

What two components are fundamental variables of energy balance?

a. Calories consumed and exercise
b. Calories consumed and energy intake
c. Calories expended and resting metabolic rate
d. Calories consumed and calories expended

A

d. Calories consumed and calories expended

93
Q

A client’s weight loss has stalled after about 12 weeks of weight loss. Which item is most likely to be true?

a. The client has decreased physical activity.
b. (Client) has decreased calories too much and has gone into “starvation mode.”
c. The client has lost some adherence to the diet.
d. The client has experienced a reduction in metabolism.

A

c. The client has lost some adherence to the diet.

94
Q

A client has been under a lot of stress which has been leading to incidents of overeating. On which characteristic of successful long-term weight maintenance should this client work?

a. Managing cravings
b. Self efficacy
c. Coping capacity
d. Flexible dietary control

A

c. Coping capacity

95
Q

Which item represents a method for cognitively reframing a weight loss plateau?

a. Consider a plateau as an indicator that the program is not working and needs to be corrected.
b. View a plateau as a sign of a slow down in metabolism.
c. View a plateau as an obstacle that needs to be overcome.
d. Consider plateaus as “maintenance practice” or “opportunities to test program sustainability”.

A

d. Consider plateaus as “maintenance practice” or “opportunities to test program sustainability”.

96
Q

Modest deficits, flexibility dieting approaches, and avoiding dichotomous thinking around food and diets all represent which technique for improving adherence?

a. Self-monitoring
b. Managing feelings of deprivation
c. Rigid restraint
d. Education

A

b. Managing feelings of deprivation

97
Q

What is an appropriate range of carbohydrates for the general population and athletes who partake in low volume training or mostly skill-based training?

a. 2 - 3 g/kg/day
b. 1 - 1.5 g/kg/day
c. 3 - 5 g/kg/day
d. 5 - 7 g/kg/day

A

c. 3 - 5 g/kg/day

98
Q

What activity factor adjustment should be made for people who engage in a moderate level of physical activity?

a. 1.9
b. 1.375
c. 1.55
d. 1.2

A

c. 1.55

99
Q

Which of the following accounts for the smallest percentage of total daily energy expenditure?

a. Resting metabolic rate
b. Thermic effect of food
c. Exercise activity
d. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)

A

b. Thermic effect of food

100
Q

What type of data is considered hard data?

a. Emotions about food
b. Calorie intake
c. Subjective feelings
d. Taste profiles

A

b. Calorie intake

nutrition cnc (6 decks)

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