Nutrition & Health Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five steps to identifying and solving nutrition-related problems?

A

The five steps are (1) assessment of the patient’s nutritional status and needs, (2) analysis of assessment data to determine nutritional requirements, (3) planning intervention to meet nutritional needs, (4) implementation of the plan, and (5) evaluation of the intervention by ongoing assessment and making appropriate changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the ABCD approach to comprehensive nutritional assessment.

A

Anthropometric measurements of height, weight, head, arm muscle circumferences, and skinfold thickness
Biochemical analysis of body tissues such as blood and urine, which reveals levels of visceral protein, serum albumin, prealbumin, total lymphocyte count, and other assessment parameters
Clinical assessment through medical and social history and physical examination
Dietary intake assessment by data gathering of actual and habitual food consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When should a recumbent height be taken?

A

A recumbent height should be taken when the individual is unable to stand, such as with an infant or comatose or critically ill patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In which instances might weight not be a good indicator of nutritional status?

A

Weight may not be a good indicator with patients with ascites, edema, or dehydration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most commonly used skinfold measure (for nutritional status)?

A

Triceps skinfold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do the two most important biochemical parameters of nutritional status measure?

A

Visceral protein stores and immune function. Impaired immune system is often associated with a protein deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the main difference between albumin and prealbumin?

A

Albumin measures long-term protein stores, whereas prealbumin measures short-term changes in visceral protein stores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Contrast the three methods used to assess dietary intake.

A

The 24-hour recall reports all food and beverages consumed during the past 24 hours. Food records provide a more realistic picture of a patient’s usual intake because the patient records, usually over a period of 1 to 7 days, all foods and beverages consumed. Kcalorie counts are used in the acute and long-term care setting with the nurse observing food intake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When might the following diets be appropriately used: clear liquid, full liquid, puréed, mechanical soft, and soft diet?

A

The basic modification of hospital diets is in texture ranging clear liquid (no milk) full liquid (including milk), soft food and a full regular diet. Post operative patient may progress from clear liquid to regular diets, as tolerated. Mechanically altered soft diets such as pureed diets are designed for patients with chewing or swallowing problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If the gut is functioning but oral (PO) intake is poor, which should be started—enteral or parenteral feedings?

A

Enteral; always use the gut if it is working, less risk for migratory bacteria when nutrition is absorbed through GI system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define elemental formulas and share when they should be used.

A

Elemental formulas are composed of partially or fully hydrolyzed nutrients that can be used for patients with a partially functioning gastrointestinal (GI) tract or those who have impaired capacity to digest foods or absorb nutrients, pancreatic insufficiency, or bile salt deficiency. Hypercaloric formulas contain high calories in a concentrated form for those patients who need high calories and are on a fluid restriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What three questions should be considered when choosing an enteral feeding formula?

A

(1) What are the patient’s digestive and absorptive capabilities? (2) Do the patient’s fluids need to be restricted? (3) Does the patient have high metabolic requirements?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Compare the six tube-feeding routes.

A

The routes for tube feeding include the following: nasogastric: tube is passed through the nose to stomach; nasoduodenal: tube is passed from nose to duodenum; nasojejunal: tube is passed through nose to jejunum; esophagostomy: tube is surgically inserted into the neck and extends to the stomach; gastrostomy: tube is surgically inserted into stomach; and jejunostomy: tube is surgically inserted into the small intestine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Contrast the three methods of administering a tube feeding.

A

Continuous infusion provides controlled delivery of a prescribed volume at a constant rate over a continuous period using an infusion pump. Intermittent infusion delivers the total quantity of formulas needed for a 24-hour period in 2 to 6 equal feedings. Bolus feedings involve infusing volumes by gravity or syringe over a very short period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are three possible tube-feeding complications?

A

Gastrointestinal, mechanical, or metabolic complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and peripheral parenteral nutrition (PPN)?

A

TPN solutions are delivered in a large-diameter vein, whereas PPN uses a smaller, peripheral vein and cannot provide adequate nutrition alone. This is not used as often as TPN due to many risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the main components of a TPN solution?

A

Dextrose, amino acids, electrolytes, vitamins, and trace minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe the metabolic response to starvation.

A

The metabolic response to starvation allows the body to use stored carbohydrate, fat, and protein to meet energy needs. Stored carbohydrate—liver glycogen—is used but is available in limited quantities; it can provide energy for only about 8 to 12 hours. Stored fats, such as fatty acids from adipose tissue, are more available for providing energy for longer periods. Because some body cells can use glucose only for energy and proteins provide glucose more effectively than fats, body sources of protein such as lean body mass, vital organ tissues, or other protein substances such as hormones or blood protein components are used to provide branched-chain amino acids (BCAA). As starvation continues, additional sources of fats are used to preserve body protein; this may put the body into a state of ketosis. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) also significantly slows to allow energy to be conserved. Damage to body muscles may hasten death as intercostal muscle damage inhibits respiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Explain the ebb phase and flow phase of the body’s response to severe stress.

A

The body’s response to stress is represented by the two phases of ebb and flow. The ebb phase encompasses the early reaction of the body that begins immediately after the injury. Reactions include decreased oxygen consumption, hypothermia, and lethargy. Cardiovascular functioning and tissue perfusion are primary medical concerns. About 36 to 48 hours after the injury, the ebb phase evolves into the flow phase. This phase is noted by increased oxygen consumption, hyperthermia and increased nitrogen excretion. Carbohydrate, protein, and triglycerides are catabolized to meet increased metabolic needs. This phase continues until the injury is healed. Nutrients affected during this hypermetabolic phase include proteins, vitamins, and minerals. Intake of fluid and energy is also critical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Discuss the effects of stress on the metabolism of nutrients.

A

Effects of stress on nutrient metabolism include (1) for protein, a decreased uptake of amino acids by muscle tissue and increased urinary excretion of nitrogen; (2) for carbohydrates, hepatic glucose production is increased and disseminated to peripheral tissues and insulin levels and glucose utilization are increased; (3) for fats, fat is mobilized from adipose stores and may result in malnutrition leading to multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) if patients are not fed because of depleted stored fat and body protein; (4) for water/fluid status, increased losses may result from fever, increased urine output, diarrhea, draining wounds or diuretic therapy; (5) for vitamins and minerals, as energy needs increase so do vitamin and mineral needs. Of special concern are vitamin C, vitamin A or beta-carotene, and zinc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Differentiate among the three forms of protein-energy malnutrition.

A

Kwashiorkor is an acute state of poor protein intake and stress. Marasmus is manifested by severe loss of fat and muscle tissue as a result of chronic energy deficiency. Marasmus-kwashiorkor mix is a combined form of protein energy malnutrition that develops when acute stress is experienced by someone who has been chronically malnourished.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define MODS. What are the nutrient needs?

A

MODS (Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome) is the progressive failure of two or more organ systems at the same time. Nutrient needs during MODS are higher intakes of kcalories and protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Discuss the nutritional requirement of patients with burns.

A

Nutritional requirements of burns include the immediate replacement of fluid and electrolytes based on the age, weight, and extent of burn of the patients, increased macronutrients, especially protein, as well as increased carbohydrates and fats. Vitamin and mineral needs are also elevated, but the amounts needed are not known. In particular, additional vitamin C and vitamin A supplements are often prescribed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Compare and contrast the following terms: complementary medicine, alternative medicine, and integrative medicine.

A

Complementary medicine refers to non-Western healing approaches used at the same time as conventional medicine. In contrast, alternative medicine replaces conventional medical treatment, for example, using herbal supplements instead of surgical intervention or chemotherapy to treat cancer. Integrative medicine merges conventional medical therapies with complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) modalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

List three potential influences of drug-nutrient interactions.

A

Drug-nutrient interactions have the potential to reduce drug efficacy, interfere with disease control, foster nutritional deficiencies, influence food intake, and/or provoke a toxic reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List three risk factors of drug-nutrient interactions.

A

Older age, physiologic status, multiple drug intake, hepatic and renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Identify four warning signs of dysphagia.

A

Four warning signs of dysphagia: collecting food under the tongue, in the cheeks, or on the hard palate; choking; drooling; and coughing before or after swallowing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Characterize gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and briefly describe the appropriate medical nutritional therapy.**

A

GERD occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) fails to keep the gastric contents in the stomach; the esophageal mucosa can be damaged and can lead to esophagitis. Appropriate medical nutrition therapy includes avoiding certain foods such as carminatives (oils of peppermint or spearmint, garlic, onion), chocolate, and high-fat foods. For some people, foods such as carbonated beverages, citrus fruit and juices, coffee, herbs, pepper, spices, tomato products, and very hot or very cold foods can be irritating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the combination of factors that may cause peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

A

The combination of factors that may cause PUD are hypersecretion of gastric acid, impaired mucosal defense, and the predisposing factors of use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, Helicobacter pylori, smoking, genetic predisposition, and stress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List four symptoms of dumping syndrome.

A

Four symptoms of the dumping syndrome could include epigastric fullness; abdominal cramps and/or diarrhea that may occur postprandially and vasomotor symptoms of tachycardia; postural hypotension; and sweating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Name four grains that should not consumed by patients with gluten sensitivity.

A

Wheat, oats, rye, and barley

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Name the two conditions categorized as inflammatory bowel disease (IBD).

A

Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Explain the difference in medical nutrition therapy between diverticulosis and diverticulitis

A

Bowel rest with a low fiber diet is recommended during the inflammatory stage (diverticulitis), whereas a high-fiber diet is recommended for diverticulosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The following are signs of _______:

Pain while swallowing (odynophagia)
Inability to swallow
Sensation of food getting stuck in the throat or chest
Drooling
Hoarseness
Bringing food back up (regurgitation)
Frequent heartburn
Food or stomach acid backing up into the throat
Unplanned weight loss
Coughing or gagging when swallowing
Avoidance of certain foods because of trouble swallowing

A

Dysphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Briefly describe the roles of the liver in nutrient metabolism.

A

The liver has several critical roles in basic metabolism and regulation of body functions. Some essential functions include bile production for fat digestion; synthesis of proteins and blood clotting factors; metabolism of hormones, medications, macronutrients and micronutrients; the regulation of blood glucose levels; and urea production to remove waste products of normal metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the earliest form of liver disease?

A

Fatty liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Differentiate among the five types of hepatitis.

A

Hepatitis A virus: is spread by the oral fecal route from an infected person through contaminated water and food. It is serious but does not cause chronic hepatitis or cirrhosis. Hepatitis B virus: classified as a sexually transmitted disease because it is spread via body fluids, semen, tears, saliva and by needle sharing. It is a major factor in chronic liver disease and liver cancer. Hepatitis C virus: is associated with chronic active hepatitis, liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Hepatitis D virus: is toxic to functional liver cells and may be related to the onset of HAV and HBV. Hepititis E virus: newest discovered viral liver disease. High mortality rate. May be due to toxic liver injury such as carbon tetrachloride or acetaminophen overdose.

38
Q

List three causes of cirrhosis.

A

Alcohol abuse, postnecrotic hepatitis, biliary disorders, chronic autoimmune disease, metabolic disorders (Wilson’s disease or hemochromatosis), or chronic use of hepatotoxic drugs

39
Q

Name three complications of cirrhosis.

A

Portal hypertension, ascites, and esophageal varices

40
Q

List the risk factors for developing gallstones.

A

Chronic intake of high-fat/low fiber foods; women who are multiparous, on estrogen therapy, or who use oral contraceptives; obese individuals; those with sedentary lifestyles; rapid weight loss; and the aged

41
Q

Explain the differences between cholelithiasis, choledocholithiasis, and cholecystitis. Discuss the primary goal of medical nutrition therapy and the different types of feeding formats that may be required.

A

Cholelithiasis is the presence of stones in the gallbladder. Choledocholithiasis means at least one of the gallstones is in the common bile duct. When acute inflammation occurs from the stones, it is called cholecystitis and is accompanied by pain, tenderness, and fever. In general, MNT focuses on a low-fat diet that is kcalorie controlled; foods that cause gastrointestinal distress are also restricted. During acute episodes, fluids are given through an IV; therapy then progresses to solid foods based on the patient’s tolerance.

42
Q

Define acute and chronic pancreatitis and describe their effects on the body.

A

Pancreatitis is an inflammation of the pancreas that decreases the production of digestive enzymes and bicarbonate and causes malabsorption of fats and proteins. Acute pancreatitis is usually caused by excessive alcohol consumption and gallbladder disease associated with a genetic predisposition to damage. Chronic pancreatitis is caused by chronic alcohol consumption and is noted by chronic pain and exocrine and endocrine insufficiency.

43
Q

Define diabetes mellitus (DM).

A

DM is a group of conditions characterized by either a relative or complete lack of insulin secretion by the beta cells of the pancreas or by defects of cell insulin receptors, which result in disturbances of carbohydrate, protein, and lipid metabolism and elevated blood glucose.

44
Q

How is DM diagnosed?

A

DM is usually diagnosed by elevated fasting blood glucose (>126 mg/dl if found on at least two occasions)

45
Q

Describe the macrovascular, microvascular, and neuropathy effects of DM on body systems.

A

The macrovascular effects include increased risk of coronary artery disease, peripheral vascular disease, and cerebrovascular accidents. Microvascular effects focus on nephropathy that affects peripheral circulation resulting in decreased sensation and poor healing to the extent of gangrene development. This nephropathy leads to end-stage renal disease for insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM). Another complication is retinopathy that can result in blindness. Neuropathy complications may cause orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, gastroparesis, and neurogenic bladder impotence.

46
Q

Differentiate between intensive and conventional therapies for diabetes.

A

Intensive insulin therapy is the administration of insulin more than three times daily (injection or pump) with dosage adjusted according to results of self-monitoring of blood glucose performed at least four times daily; dietary intake; and anticipated exercise. Conventional therapy includes one or two daily injections of insulin, including mixed intermediate and rapid-acting insulin, daily self-monitoring of blood glucose, and education about diet and exercise.

47
Q

Explain the differences between T1DM and T2DM. Explain the relationship of food, exercise, and blood glucose levels for individuals with diabetes mellitus.

A

The difference between type T1DM and T2DM is that type T1DM is an autoimmune disease resulting in the destruction of the beta cells of the pancreas, causing no insulin to be produced, whereas the primary metabolic problem in T2DM is insulin resistance or the failure of the cells to respond to insulin being produced by the body. Food consumption increases blood glucose levels; exercise lowers blood glucose levels. To ensure adequate insulin levels to maintain normal ranges of blood glucose levels, insulin intake is adjusted in relation to the amount of food consumed and the extent and regularity of exercise. Food intake guidelines are suggested before and after exercise to maintain blood glucose levels within appropriate levels (not too high and not too low).

48
Q

Name three methods of monitoring blood glucose levels.

A

Fasting blood glucose, glycosylated hemoglobin, and self-monitoring

49
Q

Define diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). What are some of the common conditions that precipitate DKA?

A

DKA is a life-threatening condition caused by insulin deficiency. Common conditions that precipitate DKA include insufficient or interrupted insulin therapy, too much food, infection, or other stresses (trauma, surgery, emotional stress, myocardial infarction).

50
Q

Describe guidelines to use during illness when insulin needs increase and appetite and food intake may decrease.

A

Guidelines to use during short-term illness (up to 3 days) include to monitor blood glucose four times a day; test urine for ketones; try to eat as normal as possible; may need to replace foods if necessary with liquid, semiliquid, or soft foods consumed in small amounts every few hours; and consume generous amounts of calorie free fluids to prevent dehydration. If vomiting, diarrhea, or fever occurs, liquids should be consumed more frequently to replace lost electrolytes. An individual’s primary healthcare provider should be contacted if no fluid is being retained, ketones are spilling into the urine and/or breathing is rapid, or if excessive drowsiness occurs.

51
Q

Define gastroparesis. Discuss the dietary treatment of gastroparesis.

A

Gastroparesis occurs in some individuals with diabetes and is more common among individuals with type 1 DM rather than type 2 DM. The effects of diabetes cause vagal autonomic neuropathy. It includes delayed gastric emptying with possible symptoms of heartburn, nausea, vomiting, early satiety, abdominal pain, and loss of weight.

Dietary treatment of gastroparesis includes consumption of six small meals rather than larger meals. Fiber intake may need modifications to reduce constipation or diarrhea and also to prevent bezoar formation (i.e. bowel hairballs) that may be common with certain foods such as oranges, coconuts, apples, and potato skins.

52
Q

Besides morbid obesity, what are some of the other clinical signs that may indicate risk for maturity onset diabetes of the young?

A

Acanthosis nigricans (dark patches on skn), polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hypertension

53
Q

List the diseases included in the term cardiovascular disease (CVD).

A

Coronary artery disease (CAD), hypertension, peripheral vascular disease, congestive heart failure, and congenital heart disease.

54
Q

Name the modifiable and nonmodifiable risk factors for CVD.

A

The modifiable risk factors include tobacco smoke, high serum cholesterol, hypertension, physical inactivity, obesity, diabetes, atherogenic diet, stress and coping, excessive alcohol consumption, and some illegal drugs. Nonmodifiable risk factors include male gender, increasing age, heredity (including race), and family history of premature coronary artery disease.

55
Q

Briefly describe the underlying pathologic process responsible for coronary artery disease.

A

Beginning in childhood, atherosclerosis may gradually lead to arteriosclerosis, which develops lesions in the coronary arteries that can cause angina pectoris if blood flow is partially occluded by a thrombus. If the blood flow to the heart is blocked, a myocardial infarction occurs. If the blood flow to the brain is blocked, a cerebrovascular accident or stroke occurs.

56
Q

Explain the use of blood cholesterol levels to assess risk of CAD.**

A

The risk of CAD increases as blood cholesterol levels rise. Low-density lipoproteins present the most accurate level of cholesterol concentration traveling in the blood because they contain 60% to 70% of the total serum cholesterol. HDL make up the remainder; they counteract the detrimental proinflammatory effect of LDL cholesterol. Dietary cholesterol is not directly related to blood cholesterol.

57
Q

List four factors that might cause triglyceride levels to be elevated.

A

Overweight and obesity; physical inactivity; cigarette smoking; excess alcohol intake; very high carbohydrate intake; other chronic diseases such as type 2 diabetes, chronic renal failure, and nephritic syndrome; certain drugs; and genetic factors.

58
Q

List four factors contributing to low high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol levels.

A

Elevated serum triglyceride levels; overweight and obesity; physical inactivity; cigarette smoking; very high carbohydrate intake; type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM); certain drugs; and genetic factors

59
Q

What are the components to a healthy dietary pattern for reducing the risk for CAD?**

A

Reduced intake of saturated fats and increase fiber intake; therapeutic dietary options for enhancing low-density lipoprotein (LDL) lowering; weight reduction; and increased regular physical activity.

60
Q

Identify three groups who are most at risk for CVD.

A

Three groups that are at risk for CVD are people including African Americans, American Indians and Mexican Americans.

61
Q

Briefly discuss the treatment for hypertension.

A

Treatment for hypertension includes lifestyle modifications, such as weight loss, if overweight; decreasing alcohol consumption; increasing physical activity, if sedentary; terminating cigarette smoking; decreasing sodium intake.

62
Q

What is the DASH diet?

A

The DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet is recommended for prevention and management of hypertension. The basis behind the DASH diet is to lower blood pressure by eating foods that are healthy. This means plenty of fruits, vegetables, nuts, legumes, low-fat dairy and whole grains. This increases the amount of nutrients including potassium, magnesium, calcium and fiber, which play a role in lowering blood pressure. At the same time, the diet limits foods that are high in sodium, which can increase blood pressure. The American Heart Association and 2015 Dietary Guidelines recommends keeping sodium intake under 2300 mg per day for those on the DASH diet

63
Q

Review the medical nutrition therapy for patients who have just experienced a
myocardial infarction.

A

After a myocardial infarction, the goal is to reduce cardiac workload. Patients receive a liquid diet for the first 24 hours and then foods are gradually offered. Small, frequent meals put less stress on the heart by not increasing splanchnic blood flow. To avoid myocardial stimulation, caffeinated beverages are avoided. Other aspects of dietary intake are controlled based on the individual needs of the patients; these include sodium, saturated fat, and kcalories. Consumption of foods containing omega-3 fatty acids may help to reduce the risk of blood clots. Good sources of omega-3 fatty acids are tuna, salmon, halibut, sardines, and lake trout.

64
Q

List two causes of congestive heart failure. What may happen to the lungs, liver, bowel, and legs during this condition? How may the flow of blood be affected?

A

Two causes of congestive heart failure are CAD and lung disease. The lungs, liver, bowel, and legs may develop congestion and edema. Blood flow may decrease to the kidneys, leading to retention of sodium and fluid.

65
Q

What is the rationale for restrictions of dietary sodium for patients with congestive heart failure?

A

The goals of MNT with CHF is to lessen cardiac workload and reduce edema. Sodium is restricted for patients with congestive heart failure because this restriction reduces the workload of the heart. Restricting sodium lessens the levels of extracellular fluids, thereby easing the efforts required of the heart.

66
Q

Describe the medical nutrition therapy prescribed for the two categories of pulmonary disease disorders.

A

Medical nutrition therapy recommendations are similar for both categories, focusing on high kcalorie, high protein, moderate to high fat, with moderate carbohydrates. If needed, enteral and parenteral nutrition may be required to reduce malnutrition.

67
Q

What is the purpose of hemodialysis?

A

Remove excess fluid and waste products from blood that are normally removed by the kidneys

68
Q

What are the main functions of the kidneys?

A

The main functions are to maintain chemical homeostasis in the body by processing components within the blood to maintain fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance and by eliminating wastes in the urine.

69
Q

What are the primary goals of medical nutrition therapy for nephritic syndrome?

A

The primary goals of medical nutrition therapy are to control hypertension, minimize edema, decrease urinary albumin losses, prevent protein malnutrition and muscle catabolism, supply adequate energy, and slow the progression of renal disease.

70
Q

Why should body weight be closely monitored in acute renal failure?

A

To monitor fluctuations in fluid retention

71
Q

How are nutrient needs determined for those with acute renal failure?

A

Nutritional needs are partially determined by whether or not dialysis is used as well as the underlying cause of the renal failure.

72
Q

List three potential causes of chronic renal failure (CRF). When CRF progresses to end-stage renal disease (ESRD), identify the treatment modalities used to reduce uremia.

A

Three potential causes of CRF are nephrosclerosis, obstructive diseases, and diabetes mellitus. Treatment modalities used to reduce uremia are conservative management, hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, and renal transplantation.

73
Q

Explain the differences between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.

A

The difference between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis is that hemodialysis is a process through which blood is removed through a special vascular shunt or access, heparinized, cleaned through a semipermeable membrane of excess fluid and wastes, and then returned to the patient’s circulation. With peritoneal dialysis, the peritoneal membrane functions as the filter. Waste products and excess fluid are discarded through a surgically placed catheter.

74
Q

List the vitamins and minerals of great importance in hemodialysis.

A

Phosphorus, calcium, potassium vitamin D, iron, B6, and folate

75
Q

Review the objectives of medical nutrition therapy for peritoneal dialysis (PD). Compare nutrient needs with those required for hemodialysis.

A

The objectives of medical nutrition therapy for PD are to maintain nutritional status while returning lost albumin (from the dialysate), minimize complications of fluid and metabolic imbalances, and reduce symptoms of uremic toxicity. Differences of nutritional needs are that with hemodialysis, patients tend to have higher energy needs because patients treated with PD receive additional kcalories from the PD dialysate. As with hemodialysis, patients undergoing PD are at risk for water-soluble vitamin and mineral deficiencies, so supplementation is recommended.

76
Q

Discuss the immediate and long-term post-transplant nutrient needs of patients receiving renal transplants.

A

The immediate nutrient needs are that kcalorie needs are high because of stress from surgery and breakdown of body tissues. Long-term post-transplant needs reduce energy needs at about 6 to 8 weeks after the transplant. The aim is to maintain desirable body weight. Dietary protein does not need to be restricted and may need to be increased. Effects of medications may necessitate restriction of simple carbohydrates if glucose intolerance develops, and saturated fats may need limitations if hypercholesterolemia and/or hypertriglyceridemia develop. Other restrictions may develop based on reactions to medications used post-transplantation.

77
Q

Name the four types of kidey stones (renal calculi, urolithiasis). What is the best way to prevent their recurrence?

A

Calcium, uric acid, cystine, struvite.

Sufficient fluid intake has the most significant impact on reducing risk of stone formation. A high-potassium, low–animal protein intake may be beneficial. Calcium stones can be prevented by restricting oxalates in the diet (

78
Q

For patients undergoing dialysis, what should nurses monitor on every shift?

A

Careful monitoring of blood glucose, I&O, and weights are preventive measures in this patient population.

79
Q

Why are fluids and sodium restricted in renal disease?

A

To prevent or reduce hypertension, edema, and heart failure

80
Q

Describe the role of nutrition in neurological disorders.

A

Nutrition intake plays an important role in many neurological disease states because of the risk of dysphagia, dehydration, aspiration and inability to self feed. Nutrition support may be warranted in severe states of certain conditions such as coma, Huntington’s disease, Multiple Sclerosis, and stroke.Nutritional status should be monitored in nuero-psychiatric disorder patients. Check for impairments in hunger, thirst and ability to eat and to self feed.

81
Q

Briefly discuss the three stages of abnormal cell replication during cancer.

A

The abnormalities in cell replication occur in three stages: initiation, promotion, and progression. Initiation of the process results in a mutation of the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), possibly caused by exposure to microorganisms or physical and/or chemical agents. The replication of the mutated cell is promoted and abnormal cell growth results. Finally, the progression of the abnormal cells outside of the original location of the cell occurs.

82
Q

Describe the diet/cancer connection.

A

Diet is one of the lifestyle and environmental factors that may initiate or reduce risk of cancer in the United States. Certain dietary components such as consumption of fruits and vegetables and higher fiber intakes are associated with a lower risk of developing cancer, whereas consumption of high levels of dietary fat and intake of salt-cured, smoked, and nitrite-preserved foods seems to increase risk of certain cancers. About one third of the cancers in the United States may be related to dietary factors.

83
Q

What is cancer cachexia? What causes it?

A

Cancer cachexia is a complex syndrome that results in severe wasting of lean body mass and weight loss. The etiology is multifactorial and may include altered metabolism of carbohydrate, fat, and protein; increased energy expenditure; and anorexia.

84
Q

Discuss the nutritional side effects of cancer treatments.

A

Nutritional side effects of chemotherapy may include anorexia, nausea, vomiting, mucositis, stomatitis, cardiac, renal, and liver injury, and learned food aversions. These effects may lead to malnutrition. Effects of radiation vary depending on the area of the body radiated and type and dose of radiation used and may include stomatitis, esophageal mucositis, loss of taste sensation, dry mouth, and decreased digestion and absorption of nutrients because of diarrhea and steatorrhea. Bone marrow transplantation necessitates high-dose chemotherapy, so the side effects of chemotherapy are added to the direct nutritional side effects of bone marrow transplantation (BMT). BMT patients are at high risk for infections from bacterial and fungal pathogens. This means following a low bacterial diet, restricting undercooked meats and eggs, raw vegetables, and fresh fruits.

85
Q

Define wasting syndrome in HIV/AIDS. List several factors that might contribute to this type of malnutrition.

A

Wasting syndrome is the involuntary weight loss of greater than 10% in 1 month with the presence of chronic diarrhea, weakness, or fever for more than 30 days in the absence of concurrent illness or condition. Altered nutrient intake, weight loss and body composition changes, physical impairment, endocrine disorders, metabolic changes, malabsorption, the presence of opportunistic infections, psychosocial issues, and economic conditions may all contribute to the incidence of malnutrition.

86
Q

Explain at least three goals of medical nutrition therapy for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and AIDS.

A

Three goals are (1) preserve lean body mass and gut function, (2) prevent development of malnutrition, and (3) provide adequate levels of all nutrients to maintain daily physical and mental functioning.

87
Q

Explain the rationale for nutrition interventions that provide foods rich in certain nutrients for neurologic disorders such as Alzheimer’s disease (AD), Parkinson’s disease (PD), and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS).

A

Foods rich in vitamins C and E, zinc, iron, copper, and selenium protect against oxidative damage and increase the levels of brain catecholamines

88
Q

Which populations are at the highest risk of malnutrition?

A

Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s, ALS, HIV/AIDS, cancer, eating disorders,

89
Q

What are some antioxidant-rich foods? (Red/Pink, Orange, Yellow and Green, Purple/Blue, White)

A

Red/Pink: Lycopene is found in tomatoes, strawberries, pink grapefruit, and watermelon.

Orange: Carotenoids are the antioxidants in carrots, mangoes, pumpkin, and sweet potatoes. They store beta carotene, which the body turns into vitamin A.

Yellow and Green: Get lutein and zeaxanthin from honeydew melon, avocados, and yellow corn. Green cruciferous vegetables such as broccoli and Brussels sprouts contain indoles.

Purple/Blue: Purple in grapes, blackberries, blueberries, and eggplant comes from anthocyanidin, which reduces inflammation. Because different foods contain different anthocyanidins, one should try to eat a range of purple and blue foods to benefit the most.

White: Garlic, onions, and cruciferous vegetables such as cabbage and cauliflower contain allium and sulforaphane. White button mushrooms have cancer-preventive properties in β-glucan.

90
Q

List local or systemic effects of cancer that increase risk of malnutrition or cancer cachexia.

A

Local or systemic effects of the cancer combined with antineoplastic therapy put the cancer patient at risk for malnutrition or cancer cachexia through a variety of mechanisms: anorexia, nausea, vomiting, mucositis, organ injury (toxicity), and learned food aversions.

91
Q

Summarize the multiple factors that lead to malnutrition in HIV/AIDS.

A

Malnutrition in HIV/AIDS is multifactorial and includes decreased nutrient (food) intake, malabsorption, and altered metabolism.

92
Q

Explain the basis of interventions to achieve the goals of HIV nutrition therapy.

A

Goals of HIV nutrition therapy are individualized, and interventions are based on nutritional status, causes of malnutrition, infections, and complications.