Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing > NURS 314 > Flashcards

NURS 314 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

Transription

A

First step of gene expression where DNA is copied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Translation

A

ribosomes create protiens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Protein production

A

The result of translation and transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Genes

A

Sequence of DNA that contains the instructions make protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

DNA Replication takes place where?

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where does DNA remain during replication?

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The point where DNA is split and replicated

A

Replication Fork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

RNA polynerase

A

Assists in transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Three types of RNA

A

1) mRNA - messenger RNA
2) tRNA - transfer RNA
3) rRNA - ribosome RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which RNA carries the gene copy outside of the nucleus?

A

mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

rRNA is created where?

A

In the ribosomes

Known as mitochondrial DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Exons and Introns play what role in transcriptions?

A

Knows the type of the cell to create

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The RNA type that is the glue that holds everything together.

A

rRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Telomeres

A

DNA sequence at the ends of the chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Result of telomeres continued replication.

A

Mutations or development of cancer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Daughter cell

A

germ line

Gametes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mitosis results in the formation of gametes

A

False

Meiosis is the cell division that forms gametes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Crossing-over

A

chromosome pairs align and ends exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Two genes that are close together on the chromosome are called

A

Linkage

Ex. red hair and freckles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Punnet Square

A

Summarizes the genetic inheritance process.

Helps figure out the likelihood of dominant traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Alleles

A

Copy of genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Homozygous

A

If all your copies of a gene are alike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Heterozygous

A

If copied genes differ.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Carrier

A

If you are heterozygous for a recessive trait and do not show it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hemizygous

A

If you only have one copy of a gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Induction

A

Turns on a gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Repression

A

Turns a gene off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Can socioeconomic status lead to induction or repression?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Polygenic

A

Many genes could affect one trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Multifactorial

A

Both multiple genes and the environment could affect one trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Epistasis

A

One gene could mask the effect of another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Complementary

A

One gene might depend on another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Two genes together might create a new phenotype

A

Collaborative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Gene mutation - Inherited

A

Present in all body cells; passed from parent to child through egg and sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Gene mutation - Spontaneous

A

Can occur in individual egg or sperm at time of conception. Can be passed to future generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Gene Mutation - Acquired (somatic)

A

Occur in body cells other that egg of sperm. Changes in DNA that take place after conception.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Can somatic gene mutation be passed to offspring?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Autosomal dominant

A

Trait expressed with one copy of gene. Fifty percent chance of passing it on

brown eyes or Huntington’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Autosomal recessive

A

Require two copies of the gene, one from each parent.

blue eyes or cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, PKU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

X-linked

A

Carried on the X chromosome

Passed from Mother to off-spring. Cannot be passed by father.

hemophilia, Duchenne muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Mitochondrial DNA

A

Disorders can affect both male and female but only passed by females (in ova but not sperm)

In Mitochondria only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Multifactorial

A

Traits may cluster in families, but do not have characteristic pattern of inheritance

neural tube defects,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Teratogens

A

Environmental agents that produce birth defects during embryonic and/or fetal development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Three types of tetratogenics

A

1) Radiation
2) Drugs and chemical substances
3) Infectious agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Fetal alcohol syndrome

A

refers to a host of cognitive, physical, and behavioral abnormalities that result from maternal alcohol consumption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Cocaine’s affects on the fetal growth

A

preterm births, growth retardation, microcephaly, neurologic deficits, limb size reduction, hydronephrosis, and ambiguous genitalia. The higher the dose, the worse the manifestations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Folic acid is…

A

important for DNA synthesis and cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

TORCH screening detects what?

A

Antibodies against teratogen microorganisms in infant serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

TORCH acronym:

A
  • Toxoplasmosis-protozoa
  • Other (varicella, TB, Epstein-Barr)
  • Rubella
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Herpes virus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Why is Genomics Important?

A

Plays a role in 9 of 10 leading causes of death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Health

A
  • State of physical, mental, spiritual, and social functioning within developmental context
  • Individual and societal responsibility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Disease

A
  • Failure of adaptive mechanisms

- Results in functional or structural disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Illness

A

-Subjective experience of individual and physical manifestation of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Function

A
  • Levels reflected in terms or performance/social expectations; loss indicator of need for nursing intervention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Disability

A

Impairment that substantiates limits one or more major life activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Wellness

A

An active process through which people become aware of, and make choices toward, a more successful existence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Healthy People 2020 - Overarching Goal #1

A

1) Attain high quality, longer lives free of preventable disease, disability, injury, and premature death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Healthy People 2020 - Overarching Goal #2

A

2) Achieve health equity, eliminate disparities, and improve good health of all groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Healthy People 2020 - Overarching Goal #3

A

3) Create social and physical environments that promote good health for all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Healthy People 2020 - Overarching Goal #4

A

4) Promote quality of life, healthy development, and healthy behaviors across all stages of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Six Dimensions of Wellness

A
  • Occupational
  • Physical
  • Social
  • spiritual
  • Intellectual
  • Emotional
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Health promotion

A

The process of enabling people to increase control over, and to improve, their health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Social determinants of health

A

Shaped by the distribution of money, power, and resources throughout local communities, nations, and the world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Vulnerable populations

A
  • More likely to develop health problems as a result of exposure to risk or,
  • to have worse health outcomes from these health problems than the rest of the population
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Risk

A

Probability of dying or developing a disease or its precursors influenced by environmental, social, and individual genetic and behavioral characteristics

66
Q

Key features of Healthy People 2020

A
  • Strategic framework.
  • Data driven outcomes
  • Stakeholders at all levels
  • Research, program planning, and policy
  • Accountability
67
Q

Primary Preventive Care

A
  • Within public health

- Incorporates clinical medicine for immunizations

68
Q

Secondary Care

A

Screenings and management of disease

69
Q

Tertiary Care

A

When prevention and secondary care fails

70
Q

Private Sector types of Insurance

A
  • HMO
  • PPO
  • Concierge
  • Nursing managed
  • Independent
71
Q

Public sector health care delivery

A
  • Medicare
  • Medicaid; MCO
  • CHIP
72
Q

Health Maintenance Organizations (HMO)

A
  • Group of providers contract with HMO’s
  • Comprehensive care for paid fee: CAPITATION
  • No coverage outside of network
73
Q

Point of service (POS)

A
  • Groups of providers contract with a POS plan
  • Additional fee for providers outside of network
  • Increases consumer choice
74
Q

Preferred provider organizations (PPO)

A
  • Contracted providers provide services for discounted price
  • Additional consumer cost if non-PPO provider
  • Largest networks of providers
75
Q

Private sector health care delivery

A
  • Independent practice: fee for service/choice of provider
  • Nursing-managed centers
  • Hospitalists: hired by hospitals
76
Q

Health Savings Account

A

Annual account paid into by Pt for medical coverage or surgeries during the course of a year. Money put in is forfeited at the end of the year

77
Q

Medicare

A
  • Federal program
  • Paid through taxes
  • Finances medical care for people over 65, disabled persons, hospice, and end-stage renal disease
78
Q

Medicaid

A
  • Federal and state funded
  • State-determined eligibility
  • Costs up to 50% of some state budget
  • Benefits vary by state
  • Available to certain low-income individuals (138% federal poverty level), no age requirements, and families with children
79
Q

Children’s Health Insurance Plans (CHIP)

A
  • Provides low-cost health coverage to children in families that earn too much money to qualify for Medicaid
  • Works closely with Medicaid
  • Eligible up to 2 times the poverty level
80
Q

Health People 2020: Leading Health Indicators (LHI)

A
  • Contains 42 topic areas with more than 1200 objectives

- Selected to communicate high-priority health issues

81
Q

What parts of Medicaid overlap?

A

Inpatient care in hospitals, skilled nursing facilities, home health care, hospice. Part A

Supplementary voluntary coverage paid by patient. Part B

Pharmaceutical costs: multiple private plans available. Part D

82
Q

PPACA

A

Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act. Also known as ACA

83
Q

Genome

A

Complete set of genes

84
Q

Proteome

A

Complete set of protiens

85
Q

Genetics

A

The study of the genome

86
Q

Proteomics

A

Study of the proteome

87
Q

AA

A

Amino Acids

88
Q

How many codons in one amino acid?

A

Triplet codes/codon

89
Q

How many structural AA’s are there?

A

20

90
Q

How many possible combinations of the four bases are there in codons?

A

64

91
Q

rRNA forms how much of the ribosome?

A

60%

92
Q

Whcih is the smallest RNA and what does it do?

tRNA
rRNA
mRNA

A

tRNA and it delivers the AA in the ribosome

93
Q

Mitosis

A

Somatic cells and forms two daughter cells with diploid number of chromosomes

94
Q

Meiosis

A

Forms cells with haploid number of chromosomes

95
Q

How many chromosomes are located inside the haploid cell?

A

23

96
Q

What happens when mutations occur

A

One nucleotide can be substituted for another, or nucleotides are rearranged

97
Q

Chromosomal mutation

A

Generally random event during gamete formation

Differences in number or structure of chromosomes

98
Q

Genetic mutation

A

Present in all cells and passed from parent to child through egg and sperm

99
Q

Spontaneous mutation

A

Occurs in idividual egg or sperm at time of conception.

Can be passed to future generations.

100
Q

Acquired (somatic) mutation

A

Occurs in body cells other than egg and sperm.

DNA changes after conception

Maybe passed onto off spring

101
Q

Mendelian Inheritance

A 
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
X-Linked
Mitochondrial DNA
Multi-factorial
102
Q

Autosomal dominant

A

Trait expressed with one copy of gene.

Fifty percent chance of passing it on. Brown eyes or huntingtons disease

103
Q

Autosomal recessive

A

Require two copies of the gene, one from each parent. Blue eyes or cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, PKU

104
Q

X-linked

A

Carried on the X chromosome. hemophilia, Duchenne muscular dystrophy

105
Q

Mitochondrial DNA

A

Disorders can affect both male and female but only passed by females (in ova but not sperm)

106
Q

Multifactorial

A

Caused by multiple genes and environmental factors

  • Involve a single organ or tissue
  • Siblings tend to have the same defect
  • The higher the incidence the higher the risk in future offspring

Smoking, alcohol, drugs, infections, lack of vitamins

107
Q

Example of Multifactorial

A

Neural tube defects

108
Q

Neural tube defects

A

Birth defects of the brain, spine, or spinal cord. They happen in the first month of pregnancy, often before a woman even knows that she is pregnant.

The two most common neural tube defects are spina bifida and anencephaly.

109
Q

CYP450

A

Cytochrome P450 enzymes are essential for the metabolism of many medications.

110
Q

Terotogen

A

environmental agents that produce birth defects during embryonic and/or fetal development

111
Q

Teratogentic agents

A

Radiation
Drugs and chemical substances
Infectious agents

112
Q

How are terotogenic agents introduced to the fetus?

A

These microorganisms cross the placenta, enter the fetal circulation, and produce hydrocephalus, microcephaly, mental retardation, etc.

113
Q

Acquired infertility

A

Lifestyle factors

Occupational and environmental factors

Behavioral factors

STI’s

Industrial chemicals in food, water, air, and consumer products

114
Q

Pharmacogenetics

A

How genes affect an individuals response to drugs

115
Q

Recombinant DNA technology

A

Combination of DNA molecules that are found in nature

116
Q

In inflammation; damaged cells release what and trigger what?

A

Damaged cells release inflammatory mediators which triggers either a local response or a systemic response

117
Q

Local response to inflammation includes what type of responses?

A

Vascular and cellular

118
Q

What occurs during the vascular response?

A

Prostaglandins and leukotrienes affect blood vessels

Arterioles and venules dilate to increase blood flow to the injured area and redness and warmth result

119
Q

During vascular inflammation response; how do the capillaries respond?

A

The become more permeable allowing exudate to escape into the tissues resulting in swelling and pain

120
Q

During the cellular local response; what occurs in this stage?

A

WBC enter injured tissue and destroys infective organisms, removes damaged cells, and releases more inflammatory mediators to control further inflammation and healing

121
Q

Systemic response contains two responses:

A

WBC response and acute phase response

122
Q

WBC response in systemic response includes what actions?

A

Release of inflammatory mediators that cause WBC production; WBC count rises; immature neutrophils release into blood

123
Q

Acute phase of systemic response includes:

A

Leukocytes releasing interleukins and tumor necrosis factors which can lead to:

Fever
Lethargy
Skeletal muscle breakdown

124
Q

What does the liver make during the Acute response phase?

A

Fibrogen and C-reactive protein

125
Q

Fibrogen and C-reactive proteins do what?

A

Facilitates clotting
Binds to pathogens
Provides for a moderate inflammatory response

126
Q

Colonization

A

Means microorganisms are multiplying in or on the host

127
Q

Normal flora

A

Collection of microorganisms normally living in or on your body

128
Q

Microbiome

A

Normal flora located in the gut, mucus openings, and skin

129
Q

Opportunistic pathogens

A

Pathogens that take advantage of a compromised immune system

130
Q

Innate Immunity

A

Always present
Attacks non-self microbes
Does not distinguish between different microbes

131
Q

Innate immunity mechanisms

A

Epithelial barriers
Phagocytes
Plasma proteins
Cell messenger molecules

132
Q

Adaptive immunity

A

Attacks specific microbes

Develops specific antigens after exposure

133
Q

Adaptive immunity mechanisms

A

Humoral immunity and cell-mediated immunity

134
Q

Humoral immunity

A

Antibody proteins in the blood that attack specific antigens

135
Q

Cell-mediated immunity

A

Phagocytic cells that attack the specific antigen

136
Q

Regulatory cells

A

T helper cells
T regulator cells
Antigen presenting cells

137
Q

Effector cells

A

Carries out the attacks on the antigen

T cytotoxic cells (Killer T cells)
B cells
Leukocytes

138
Q

What to B cells do?

A

Produces antibodies

139
Q

Epitopes

A

Receptors on cell surface of MHC2 proteins

140
Q

T helper cells are also known as

A

CD4+

141
Q

MCH2 proteins attach to what?

A

CD4 receptors

142
Q

T cytotoxic cells are known as

A

CD8+

143
Q

CD8 receptors attach to which proteins?

A

MCH1

144
Q

Plasma cells create what?

A

Antibodies; special proteins designed to attach to that antigen and destroy it

145
Q

IgG

A

crosses placenta.

146
Q

IgA

A

circulates in body fluids; pulls antigens together into clumps; acute illness phase
IgA: found in secretions on mucus membranes; prevents antigens from entering the body; found in colostrum

147
Q

IgD

A

found on the surface of B cells; acts as an antigen receptor

148
Q

IgE

A

Found on mast cells in tissues; starts an inflammation; associated with allergic response or parasite

149
Q

IgM

A

acute illness phase

150
Q

Vaccination produces what?

A

Primary immune response

151
Q

Primary Immune response

A

Macrophage eats antigen –> presents to TH cells

TH cells –> activate B cells

Plasma antibody levels rise

152
Q

Secondary immune response

A

B memory cells respond to antigen immediately

Plasma antibody levels rise withing days

153
Q

Purpose of booster shots

A

To cause a secondary response so antibody levels elevate before a disease is encountered (flu shot)

154
Q

ABX (antibiotics) kill bacteria how?

A

Cell wall synthesis
Protein synthesis
Nucleic acid synthesis
Bacterial metabolsim

155
Q

How does bacteria fight back against ABX?

A

Inactivating antibiotics
Changing binding sites
Using different metabolic pathways
Changing their walls to keep antibiotics out

156
Q

AV

A

Antivirals

157
Q

AV kill viruses how?

A

Blocking viral RNA or DNA synthesis

Blocking viral binding sites to cells

Blocking production of the protein coats of new viruses

158
Q

SE of amoxicillin

A

GI distress

Allergic reactions

159
Q

Truvada

A

Prophalaxys and part of antiretroviral therapy for HIV

160
Q

How does Truvada work?

A

Inhibits the activity of the HIV reverse transcriptase

161
Q

Polymorphism

A

Common genetic variation

nucleotide

Nursing (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions