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Nursing > Health Assessment - 319 > Flashcards

Health Assessment - 319 Flashcards

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1
Q

The trapezius and sternomastoid are innervated by which CN?

A

XI - the accessory nerve

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2
Q

Largest salivary gland and its location

A

Parotid gland and it’s located anterior and below the ear

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3
Q

Face consists of how many bones?

A

14

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4
Q

The thyroid gland is located where?

A

mid-neck straddling the trachea

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5
Q

Preauricular node

A

located anterior of ear

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6
Q

post-auricular node

A

posterior ear

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7
Q

occipital node

A

base of skull; posterior

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8
Q

juglodigastric node

A

below ear; under the angle of the mandible

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9
Q

submental node

A

behind the tip of the mandible

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10
Q

submandibular node

A

halfway between the angle and the tip of the mandible

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11
Q

deep cervical node

A

under sternomastoid muscle

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12
Q

superficial cervical

A

overlying the sternomastoid muscle

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13
Q

posterior cervical node

A

posterior triangle along the trapezius

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14
Q

supraclavicular node

A

behind the clavicle

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15
Q

Locations of lymph nodes

A

axillae, head and neck, arms, and inguinal region

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16
Q

Fontanel (soft spots on the baby’s head)

A

area where sutures intersect in infants

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17
Q

Thyroid gland enlarges in pregnant woman as a result of

A

hyperplasia and increased vacularity

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18
Q

Tension headaches tend to occupy where?

A

Occipital; frontal; or with band-like tightness

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19
Q

migraines (vascular) tend to occupy where?

A

supraorbital; retro-orbital, or frontotemporal

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20
Q

Cluster headaches (vascular) tend to occupy where?

A

pain around the eye, temple, forehead, and cheek

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21
Q

Pain is always unilateral and always on the same side of the head in what type of headache?

A

Cluster

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22
Q

Factors contributing to headaches:

A

Alcohol, oral contraceptives, bronchdialators, nitrates, CO2 inhalation

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23
Q

Describe dizziness

A

light-headed swimming sensation; feeling of falling

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24
Q

Describe Vertigo

A

rotational spinning caused by neurologic disease

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25
Q

Tenderness suggests what?

A

acute infection

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26
Q

Define dysphasia

A

difficulty swallowing

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27
Q

Pediatric facial abnormalities from Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

A

Narrow palpebral fissures (below eyes), epicanthal folds (upper eyelids), and midfacial hypoplasia

Thin upper lip, indistinct philtrum, flat midface, low nasal bridge,

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28
Q

Cocaine use during pregnancy increases the risk for

A

neurologic , developmental, and emotional problems

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29
Q

Forceps increase the risk for what conditions?

A
  • Bell’s palsy
  • caput succedaneum
  • cephalhematoma
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30
Q

Normocephalic

A

describes skull symmetry and average size appropriate to the body

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31
Q

Skull deformities:

A
  • microcephaly
  • macrocephaly
  • acromegaly
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32
Q

Temporal mandibular joint is located where

A

below temporal artery and anterior to the tragus

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33
Q

Bell’s palsy indicates damage to what CN?

A

CN VII - Facial nerve

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34
Q

periorbital location is where

A

around the eyes

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35
Q

lymphadenopathy

A

Enlargement of lymph nodes due to infection, allergy, or neoplasm (>1 cm)

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36
Q

Microcephalic headsize

A

smaller than normal head for age

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37
Q

Frontal bulges (Bossing) occurs from

A

rickets or prematurity

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38
Q

Cephalhematoma is what?

A

subperiosteal hemorrhage as a result of birth

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39
Q

Molding is the result of…

A

overriding cranial bones; usual the occipital and frontal bone

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40
Q

Craniosyntosis

A

deformity caused by premature closure of of sutures

Results in long narrow head

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41
Q

acute increased intracranial pressure

A

results in true tense or bulging

42
Q

Tonic head reflex beyond 5 months may indicate what?

A

Brain damage

43
Q

Unilateral immobility may indicate

A

Nerve damage

44
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

Obstruction of drainage of cerbrospinal fluid causing excessive accumulation

45
Q

torticollis

A

hematoma on one side of the sternomastoid causing a tilt in the head

46
Q

Columella

A

Divides the nostrils

47
Q

Kiesselbach plexus

A

Internal part of the nose containing rich vascular network and common source of nosebleeds

48
Q

Which two sinuses are present at birth?

A

Maxillary and sthmoid

49
Q

How many teeth should an adult have

A

32

50
Q

Deciduous

A

temporary

51
Q

Malocclusion

A

tooth loss leading to more dental issues

52
Q

Bifid uvula

A

Split uvula

53
Q

Torus plantinus

A

spiny bony ridge that develops down the center of the hard palate

54
Q

Rhinorrhea

A

Occurs during colds, flu, allergies, and nose trauma

Discharge

55
Q

Epitaxis (nosebleeds)

A

Occurs from trauma, vigorous nose blowing, foreign body

56
Q

Absence of nasal sniff from patency indicates:

A

nasal polyups, allergies, infection

57
Q

Circumoral pallor of the lips occurs

A

with shock and anemia; cyanosis w/hypoxemia, and chilling

58
Q

Cherry red lips may indicate

A

carbon monoxide poisoning

59
Q

oral kaposia sarcoma is the most common early lesion in people with

A

AIDS

60
Q

CN X - Vagus nerve is tested by having the pt do what during an exam?

A

Saying ahhh

61
Q

How do you test the Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)?

A

Have the pt stick out their tongue

62
Q

If a pt has sweet fruity breath they may be

A

ketoacidotic

63
Q

Nasal flaring in infants indicate:

A

respiratory distress

64
Q

Chaonal atresia

A

bony or membranous septum between the nasal cavity and the pharynx

65
Q

furuncle

A

small boil located in the mucus membrane

66
Q

Angular chelitis

A

Erythema, scaling, shallow and painful fissures occurring in the corners of the mouth

67
Q

Thoracic cage consists of:

A

Sternum; 12 thoracic vertebrae; 12 pairs of ribs,

68
Q

costochondral cartilages

A

joints were ribs join their cartilage

69
Q

Which ribs are connected via costal cartilage?

A

8, 9, 10

70
Q

Suprasternal notch

A

U notch above sternum

71
Q

Sternum

A

breastbone

72
Q

The sternum has three parts:

A

xyphoid process
body
manubrium

73
Q

angle of sternum

A

Angle of Louis

74
Q

Mediastinum contains

A

esophagus, trachea, heart, and great vessels

75
Q

4 major functions of respiratory system

A

1 - supply oxygen to the body for energy production
2 - removing CO2 and waste products
3 - maintaining homeostasis and ABG
4 - heat exchange

76
Q

respiration are regulated by

A

the pons and medulla

77
Q

hypercapnia

A

increase of CO2

78
Q

hypoxemia

A

decrease in oxygen

79
Q

enlarged uterus raises the diaphragm by ____ during pregnancy

A

4 cm

80
Q

Asthma occurs in 5-12% of the American population and is the most common

A

chronic childhood disease

81
Q

Sitting in the tripod position provides

A

leverage for the rectus abdominus, intercostal, and accessory neck muscles to aid in expiration

82
Q

Tactile fermitus

A

vocal palpation of vibration

conducted on the back while the patient says “99”

83
Q

Pain accompanies deep breathing when

A

the pleurae are inflamed

84
Q

Decreased fremitus indicates

A

obstructed bronchus, pleural effusion or thickening, pheumothorax

85
Q

Increased fremitus indicates

A

compression of lung tissue

86
Q

Plueral friction fremitus

A

inflammation of the pluera

87
Q

Resonance

A

low-pitched, hollow, clear sound that predominates healthy lung tissue

88
Q

Hyperresonance indicates

A

too much air. e.g. pneumothorax

89
Q

Consolidation or compression of the lung tissue will ____ the voice sounds, making the words _____ distinct

A

enhance, more

90
Q

cerebral hypoxia may be reflected by ____ _____ or by ____ restlessness, and irritability

A

excessive drowsiness, anxiety

91
Q

Kyphosis

A

outward curvature of the thoracic spine

92
Q

pyrosis

A

heartburn

93
Q

Eructation

A

belching

94
Q

Purpose of the pericardium

A

reduce friction

95
Q

pericardial tampenod

A

excessive fluid in the pericardial sac

restricts the heart from filling - leads to death

96
Q

base of the heart is located where?

A

2nd intercostal space

right sternal border

97
Q

location of the apex of the heart

A

5th intercostal space

mid-clavicular line

98
Q

SA node is considered the _____

A

pacemaker

99
Q

When does myocardial perfusion occur?

A

during diastole

when AV is opencoronary astia is blocked

100
Q

When does the coronary arteries get blood

A

When the AV is closed

101
Q

What causes the S3 sound?

A

ventricles are resistant to filling

heard in the rapid filling phase of diastole

102
Q

What causes the S4 sounds

A

Occurs in the late filling phase just before systole

ventricles are resistant to filling

Nursing (18 decks)

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