Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

nsg > NUR326 Exam 3 > Flashcards

NUR326 Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 functions of the GI system?

A
  1. Provide nutrients to the body with propulsive and mixing movements
  2. Secretion of digestive juices
  3. absorption of nutrients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do gastric glands secrete?

A

HCl, IF, and gastrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the layers of the stomach?

A

mucosa layer - inner layers made of g cells, chief, and epithelial cells, contains blood vessels
muscle layers - 2, help propel food from the stomach to the small intestine
serosa - outer layer, acts as a covering for inner layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What do G cells do?

A

produce gastrin - a hormone that facilitates the production of HCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What to parietal cells do?

A

produce HCl to break down food and produce IF to protect mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What to chief cells do?

A

secrete pepsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do epithelial cells do?

A

secrete a bicarbonate rich solution to coat and protect the mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are plicae circilares?

A

Folds of the mucous membrane in the inner wall of the small intestine. They have millions of intestinal villi (which each contain microvilli)
This combination helps increase the surface area of the SI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the crypts of Lieberkuhn?

A

intestinal glands that secrete about 2L of fluid every day into the lumen of the intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are goblet cells?

A

secrete large amounts of mucus to protect the SI from damage of acidic gastric juices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the ileocecal sphincter?

A

area where food passes from the SI to the LI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Upper GI problems:
Which are caused by esophageal disorders and which are caused by inflammatory disorders of the stomach?

A

Esophageal Disorders - GERD and Hiatal Hernia
Inflammatory Stomach - Gastritis, Acute Gastroenteritis, PUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the causes of dysphagia? (Mechanical vs Neuromuscular Dysfunction)

A

Mechanical - stenosis/stricture, diverticula, tumors
Neuromuscular - CVA, achalasia (LES can’t open properly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

GERD definition, etiology, CM, and complications

A

def - backflow of gastric acid from the stomach into the esophagus
etiology - anything that alters the closing strength of the LES or increases abdominal pressure (ex - fatty foods, spicy foods, obesity, pregnancy)
CM - heartburn*, dyspepsia, regurgitation, chest pain, dysphagia, and pulmonary symptoms
Complications - ulceration, scarring, strictures, Barret’s esophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Barret’s Esophagus

A

development of abnormal metaplastic tissue (premalignant), 3x increase in developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus, only a 17% survival rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hiatal Hernia: definition and types

A

definition - defect of the diaphragm that allows the stomach to pass into the thorax
types -
sliding hernia - less severe, small, often does not need treatment
paraesophageal hernia - part of the stomach pushes through the diaphragm and stays there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hiatal Hernia: patho, CM, RF, and treatment

A

patho - unknown, but could be due to age, an injury or another type of damage could weaken the diaphragm muscle, and putting too much pressure on those muscles could cause (straining, vomiting)
CM - asymptomatic*, belching, dysphagia, chest or epigastric pain
RF - age, obesity, and smoking
Treatment - avoid things that increase pressure, have small and frequent meals, avoid laying down after eating, weight control, and antacids
* Gerd and HH commonly coexist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Acute Gastritis: def, etiology

A

def - temporary inflammation of the STOMACH LINING only
generally lasts from 2-10 days
etiology - irritating substances, drugs, and infectious agents (H pylori)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Chronic Gastritis: def, etiology, and complications

A

def - progressive disorder with chronic inflammation of the stomach
can last weeks to years
Etiology - autoimmune (attacks parietal cells) and H pylori
complications - PUD, bleeding ulcers, anemia, and gastric cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

H pylori

A

gram - bacteria that thrives in acidic environments
destructive pattern with PERSISTENT INFLAMMATION
transmitted by saliva, fecal matter, or vomit and by contaminated food or water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CM of Acute and Chronic Gastritis

A

maybe none, anorexia, n/v, postprandial discomfort (after eating), intestinal gas, hematemesis, tarry stools, and anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acute GastroENTERITIS: def, etiology, CM, and complications

A

inflammation of the stomach AND SI
caused by stomach viruses (norovirus, rotavirus, E coli, salmonella, and campylobacter)
usually lasts 1-3 days (could be up to 10)
CM - watery diarrhea, abd pain, n/v, fever, malaise
complications - FVD, risk for dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

PUD: def, etiology, RF, and patho

A

def - ulcerative disorder of the upper GI tract (esophagus, stomach, or duodenum)
etiology - develops when the GI tract is exposed to acid and H pylori, injury causing substances, NSAIDS*, ASA, alcohol, excess secretion of acid, smoking, family history, and stress
RF - age, higher dose of NSAIDS, PUD, use of corticosteroids and anticoagulants, serious systemic disorders, and H pylori
Patho - mucosa is damaged and histamine is secreted which results in increased acid and pepsin secretion which causes further tissue damage (if blood vessels are destroyed, it causes bleeding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

PUD: classifications

A

duodenal ulcer - most common type, happens the most in early adulthood
gastric/peptic ulcer - happens the most between 50-70 due to increased use of NSAIDs, corticosteroids, anticoagulants, and other serious illnesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

PUD: CM and Complications

A

CM - sometimes none, n/v, anorexia, weight loss, bleeding, burning pain (middle abdomen)
gastric - pain 1-2 hours after eating
duodenal - pain 2-4 hours after eating
Complications - Hemorrhage, Obstruction, Perforation and Peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Appendicitis

A

inflammation of the appendix, caused when the appendix is obstructed which causes inflammation
can cause gangrene, abscess formation, and peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Key CM of Appendicitis

A

RLQ pain
rebound pain
sudden pain relief - could indicate burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

peritonitis: def, causes, and CM

A

def - inflammation of the peritoneum, can cause third spacing (could lead to hypovolemic shock), decreased peristalsis, and paralytic ileus
causes - perforated ulcer, ruptured gallbladder, pancreatitis, ruptured spleen, ruptured bladder, and ruptured appendix
CM - sudden and severe, severe abd pain, tenderness, board-like abdomen*, n/v, fever, increased WBC, increased HR, and decreased BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

IBS: def, symptoms, and relationship with stress

A

def - chronic condition characterized by alterations in bowel pattern due to changes in intestinal motility (chronic constipation and/or diarrhea)
symptoms - vary for everyone, distention, fullness, flatus, bloating, pain relieved by defecation, urgency, intolerance to certain foods, non-bloody stool (may contain mucous)
stress - never the result of psycho. causes but can be exacerbated by stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

IBD: def, RF, conditions, and etiology

A

def - chronic inflammation of the intestines with exacerbations and remissions
RF - women, Caucasians, Jewish descent, and smokers
conditions - Chron’s and Ulcerative Colitis
Etiology - autoimmune activated by an infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Chron’s: def, complications

A

def - lymph structures of the GI tract are blocked causing tissue to become engorged and inflamed, causes deep liner fissures and ulcers (skip lesions and cobblestone appearance)
complications - malnutrition*, scar tissue and obstructions, fistulas, cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ulcerative Colitis: def, RF, patho, CM, complications

A

Def - inflammation of the mucosa in the RECTUM and COLON
Usually develops in the third decade of life
RF - white people of European descent, Jewish descent
Patho - inflammation begins in the rectum and continues in a CONTINUOUS segment that may involve the entire colon (crypt abscess - necrosis of epithelial tissue resulting in abscess) then, the colon and rectum try to repair the damage with new granulation tissue (tissue is fragile and bleeds easily)
CM - abdominal pain, BLOODY DIARRHEA, weight loss, no appetite, fever, hemorrhage, perforation, colon cancer
Complications - malnutrition, anemia, strictures, FISSURES, ABSCESSES, toxic megacolon, liver disease, fluid/electrolyte imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Diverticulosis: patho, CM

A

Patho - development of diverticula (small couching in lining of colon that bulge outward through weak spots), can be congenital or acquired, could be caused by a low fiber diet with chronic constipation
Usually located in the descending colon
CM - usually asymptomatic, could be discovered accidentally over with flare up of acute diverticulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Diverticulitis: def, CM, complications

A

Def - inflammation of one or more diverticula pouches, usually from retained fecal material
CM - abdominal pain, fever, increased WBC, constipation or diarrhea, large quantity of frank blood (acute), could resolve spontaneously
Complications - perforation, peritonitis, and obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the two ways that GI disorders can be treated with pharmacotherapy?

A

increasing protective factors - antacids, sucralfate
Decrease aggressive factors - treat H pylori, H2 blockers, and PPIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do we treat H pylori?

A

Several antibiotics with gastric acid inhibitor (minimizes resistance - H pylori likes acidic environment)
Very low adherence due to high cost and many pills to take

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the two ways that drugs can target gastric acid production?

A

Block H2 receptors
Inhibit the proton pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cimetidine: class, MOA, indications, AE, interactions, and safety alert

A

Class - H2 receptor agonists
MOA - block H2 receptors in the stomach, reduce gastric acid secretion by 60-70%
*Give at least 1 hour apart from antacids
Indications - GERD, PUD, ulcer prophylaxis, heartburn, and dyspepsia
AE - well tolerated, CNS effects in the elderly, slight risk for pneumonia in the elderly
Interactions - inhibits CYP450 (newer generations do not)
Safety alert - can increase the levels of warfarin, phenytoin, and theophylline
*Give slow IV to avoid bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

-prazole: class, MOA, indications, AE, interactions, nursing implications

A

Class - PPI
MOA - binds to proton pump, inhibits hydrogen potassium ATPase enzyme system, inversely inhibits the secretion of HCl
More effective than H2RA
Indications - short term treatment of GERD and PUD
AE - safe (short term), increase risk for pneumonia, bone loss, and stomach CA (long term)
Interactions - few
Nursing implications - short terms use only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Sulcrafate:class, MOA, indication, AE, Interactions

A

Class - Mucosal protectant
MOA - alters when exposed to gastric acid, creates a sticky and thick gel (protective barrier)
Indication - duodenal ulcers and gastric ulcers
AE - no major
Interactions - *decreased drug absorption (do not take before you take other drugs - take 2 hours apart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Antacids: MOA, Indication, AE, Interactions

A

MOA - neutralizes acid by approximately 50%
Indication - PUD, GERD, stress ulcers, possibly heartburn and indigestion
AE - diarrhea or constipation, acid rebound
Interactions - chelation (alter the absorption of other drugs), altered gastric absorption, separate from other drugs by 1-2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Ondansetron: MOA, use, AE

A

Zofran
MOA - blocks serotonin receptors in the trigger zone in the brain and the afferent vagal nerves in the stomach and SI
AE - common, usually mild headache, diarrhea, and dizziness (serious - serotonin syndrome*)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Dimenhydrinate, meclizine, hydroxyzine : class, MOA, indication, AR

A

Antihistamines
MOA - block the release of histamine 1 receptors in the inner ear
Indication - treatment of dizziness and nausea, antiemetic and anti vertigo associated with motion sickness
AE - sedation, drowsiness, dizziness, and anticholinergic effect
FALL RISK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Metoclopramide: MOA, indications, SE

A

Dopamine antagonist
MOA - blocks dopamine receptors increasing the tone of the LES (GERD) and increases peristalsis in both the stomach and intestine (diabetic gastroparesis)
Indications - n/v associated with chemo/radiation, GI motility issues, and paralytic ileus SE- sedation, severe = extra pyramidal symptoms, restlessness, neuroleptic malignant syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Extra pyramidal symptoms

A

Akathisia - may feel restless, tense, constant desire to move, acute dyskinesia - involuntary muscle contractions, Parkinsonism, tardive dyskinesia, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Diphenoxylate with atropine
Loperamide

A

Drug therapy for diarrhea
MOA - decrease intestinal peristalsis and reduce intestinal effluent
AE - drowsiness and constipation, fall and driving precautions, anticholinergic effects, serious (cardiac arrest/arrhythmias)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Sulfasalazine

A

5-amino salicylates (IBD)
MOA - converts intestine into 5-amino salicylic acid and sulphapyridine
SE - nausea, fever, rash, headache, hematologic disorders
Precaution - do not give to patients allergic to sulfa or have certain types of anemias, caution for use with comorbidities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Infliximab

A

DMARDs (IBS)
MOA - monoclonal antibody which neutralizes TNF alpha
SE - immune suppression*, infection *, cancer, HF, infusion reactions, neutropenia
Often require therapeutic drug monitoring and bio marker monitoring for inflammation
Must be screened and vaccinated before administering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Pituitary Gland Hormone Secretion

A

Anterior - TSH, ACTH
Posterior - ADH, oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

ADH

A

Released in response to high serum osmolality and or hypotension
Causes water retention in kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Adrenal glands

A

Secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine
In response to ACTH, it secretes cortisol, aldosterone, and androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Adrenal Cortex steroid hormones

A

Regulate body’s response to normal and abnormal levels of stress
Sugar, Salt, Sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Glucocorticoid/Cortisol Function

A

Raise blood sugar, protect against physiologic effects of stress, suppress inflammatory and immune processes, release muscle stores of proteins, and increase blood cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Mineralcorticoids

A

Aldosterone
Regulated by RAAS
Maintain salt and water balance
Promotes secretion of K
When triggered by angiotensin II, aldosterone promotes sodium retention and thus water retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

T3 and T4

A

T3 - active form, converted from T4
T4 - two forms: one attaches to proteins when they’re not needed and free T4 enters the tissues when they are needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Parathyroid gland

A

Glands produce and secrete parathyroid hormone in response to hypocalcemia and break down bone to reestablish normal calcium in the blood
Promotes vitamin D production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Adrenal Hormone Disorders

A

Low - addison’s disease
High - Cushing syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cushing’s Syndrome - def and CM

A

Collection of S/S associated with hypercortisolism
Caused by: disease of the adrenal cortex (syndrome), disease of the anterior pituitary (disease), and exogenous steroids (syndrome)
CM - glucose intolerance, hyperglycemia, hypertension, capillary friability, muscle wasting, muscle weakness, thinning of skin, osteoporosis, bone pain, redistribution of fat to abdomen, shoulders and face, impaired would healing and risk for infections, mood swings, and insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Aminoglutethimide

A

MOA - blocks synthesis of all adrenal steroids
Indication - temporary therapy to decrease cortisol production, reduces cortisol levels by 50%
AE - drowsiness, nausea, anorexia, rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Ketoconazole

A

MOA - anti fungal drug that also inhibits glucocorticoid synthesis
Indication - adjunct therapy to surgery or radiation with Cushing’s
Safety Issues - do not take with alcohol or other drugs that harm the liver, do not give during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Addison’s Disease

A

Disease of the adrenal cortex that causes hypo-secretion of all 3 hormones (cortisol, aldosterone, and androgen)
Most severe effects come from a lack of cortisol
Etiology - idiopathic, autoimmune, or other
Patho - adrenal gland destroyed, symptoms arise when it is 90% nonfunctional, and ACTH is secreted in large amounts
CM - anorexia, weight loss, weakness, malaise, apathy, electrolyte imbalances (hyperkalemia), and skin hyperpigmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Addisonian (Adrenal Crisis)

A

Acute adrenal insufficiency, body doesn’t have cortisol to combat stress
Medical emergency
Cause - sudden insufficiency of serum corticosteroids, results from sudden loss of adrenal gland or sudden increase in chronic stress or sudden cessation of corticosteroid drug therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How to treat Addison’s

A

All patients require a glucocorticoid
Some patients require a mineralcorticoid
Dosing mimics the release of natural hormones - timing is important and doses are small
NEVER abruptly stop therapy (3x3 rule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

Rare tumor of the adrenal medulla that produces excessive catecholamines (epi and norepinephrine)
Benign
Rare, could happen from young to middle age
Tumor cells secrete catecholamines due to SNS activation
CM - HTN*, headache, diaphoresis, tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Pheochromocytoma Treatment

A

Preferred - surgery to remove the tumor
Alpha adrenergic blockers may be used on inoperable tumors and preoperatively to reduce the risk of HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

A

Alpha blockers in Pheochromocytoma
MOA - long acting, irreversible, blockage of alpha adrenergic receptors
Drug effects - lowers blood pressure due to blood vessel widening
AE - orthostatic hypotension, reflex tachycardia, nasal congestion, sexual side effects in men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Antidiuretic Hormone Disorders

A

Low - diabetes insipidus
High - SIADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

SIADH

A

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
Abnormal production or sustained secretion of ADH
Characterized by fluid retention, serum hypoosmolality and hyponatremia and concentrated urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

SIADH Etiology

A

Malignant tumors
Central nervous System Disorders - trauma
Drug Therapy - morphine, SSRI, chemo
Misc - hypothyroidism and infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

SIADH Patho

A

Increased ADH
Increased water reabsorption in the renal tubules
Increased intravascular fluid volume
Dilutional hyponatremia and decreased serum osmolality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

SIADH Osmolality

A

Serum Osmolality - low
Urine osmolality and specific gravity - high
Serum sodium - low
Urine output - low
Weight - gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

SIADH CM

A

Depend on severity and rate of onset
Dyspnea, fatigue, dulled sensorium, confusion, lethargy, muscle twitching, convulsions, impaired taste, anorexia, vomiting, and cramps
Severe - possible irreversible neurological damage
Can die of water intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Demeclocycline

A

Tetracycline broad spectrum antibiotic
MOA - interferes with renal response to ADH
AE - photosensitivity, teeth staining, and nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Diabetes insipidus - def and etiology

A

A deficiency of ADH or decreased renal response to ADH
Characterized by excessive water loss in urine
Neurogenic and nephrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Neurogenic DI

A

Neuroleptic origin
Caused by hypothalamus or pituitary gland damage
Associated disorders - stroke, TBI, brain surgery, and cerebral infections
Sudden onset and usually permanent **

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Nephrogenic DI

A

Renal origin
Cause - loss of kidney function, often drug related
Associated with CKD
Slow onset and progressive **

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

DI Patho

A

Decreased ADH, decreased water reabsorption in renal tubules, decreased intravascular fluid volume, and increased serum osmolality and excess urine output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

DI osmolality

A

Serum osmolality - high
Urine osmolality and specific gravity - low
Serum sodium - high
Urine output - high
Weight - loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

DI CM

A

Polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration
Based on severity - hypovolemic shock to electrolyte imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Treatment of DI

A

Neurogenic - synthetic ADH replacement
Nephrogenic - thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Desmopressin

A

Neurogenic DI treatment
MOA - synthetic ADH replacement therapy, anti diuretic effects
AE - irritation from nasal spray, and large doses can cause hyponatremia and water intoxication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

thyroid negative feedback loop

A

hypothalamus releases TRH
causes the anterior pituitary to release TSH
causes the thyroid gland to raise the level of thyroxine (T4)
(feeds back to anterior pituitary and hypothalamus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

goiter

A

enlargement of the thyroid gland with or without symptoms of thyroid dysfunction
excess pituitary TSH
low iodine levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

hypothyroidism

A

insufficient levels of T3 and T4
primary - increase release of TSH from pituitary
hashimotos - autoimmune disorder, most common cause of hypothyroidism (creates thyroid receptor antibodies, antithyroglobulin antibody, and antithyroperoxidase antibody*)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

hypothyroidism RF

A

female, older than 40, caucasian, pregnancy, history of autoimmune disorders, family hx, medications, treatment for hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

early vs late CM of hypothyroid

A

early - cold intolerance, weight gain, lethargy, fatigue, memory deficits, poor attention span, increased cholesterol, muscle cramps, raises carotene levels, constipation, decreased fertility, puffy face, hair loss, and brittle nails
late - below normal temp, bradycardia, weight gain, decreased LOC, thickened skin, and cardiac complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What does hypothyroidism do to the rest of the body?

A

raises cholesterol
raises carotene levels
causes anemia
decreases filtration by the kidneys
can cause hoarse voice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

myxedema

A

severe hypothyroidism (coma), describes the dermatological change that occurs with hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

how to diagnose hypothyroidism

A

high TSH level
low free T3
low free T4
antithyroglobilin
antithyroperoxidase antibodies
low hormone secretion by the thyroid gland

90
Q

treatment of hypothyroidism

A

replace hormone with levothyroxine (converts to T3 in the body) or surgical intervention if necessary

91
Q

hyperthyroidism

A

excess secretion of T3 and T4
primary - graves
secondary - pituitary
tertiary - hypothalamus

92
Q

hyperthyroidism RF

A

family history of graves, age above 40, women, caucasian, medications, excess iodine intake, pregnancy

93
Q

graves disease

A

autoimmune disorder with excess levels of T3 and T4
includes thyroid stimulating antibodies
CM - nervousness, insomnia, sensitivity to heat, weight loss, gland is usually enlarged, audible bruit, atrial fibrillation, myxedema, exophthalmos

94
Q

exopthalmos

A

wide eyed stare associated with increased sympathetic tone and infiltration of the extra ocular area with lymphocytes and mucopolysaccharides
preorbital edema and bulging of the eyes termed = graves ophthalmopathy
women are more effected than men

95
Q

diagnosis of grave’s disease

A

low TSH, high T3 and T4, antithyroglobulin, antithyrotropin receptor antibody, ultrasound with color doppler evaluation, radioactive iodine scanning and measuring of iodine uptake

96
Q

treating hyperthyroidism

A

antithyroid hormone medication
radioactive iodine
surgery

97
Q

thyrotoxic crisis

A

overwhelming release of thyroid hormones that exert an intense stimulus on the metabolism
life-threatening condition that is most commonly precipitated by surgery, trauma, or infection

98
Q

parathyroid gland function

A

controls calcium levels in the body
promotes vitamin D production by kidney

99
Q

hypoparathyroidism

A

result of insufficient PTH secretion and the resultant hypocalcemia
CM - muscle cramps, irritability, tetany, convulsion, hypocalcemia
treat - replace PTH, normalize serum Ca and vitamin D

100
Q

hyperparathyroidism

A

CM - muscle weakness, poor concentration, neuropathies, HTN, kidney stones, metabolic acidosis, osteopenia, pathological fractures, constipation, depression, confusion, or subtle cognitive deficits
caused by excessive secretion of PTH with resulting hypercalcemia, and bone breakdown
treat - reduce calcium, diuretics, calcitonin, bisphosphonates, vitamin D, and surgery

101
Q

end diastolic volume

A

blood volume at the end of relaxation

102
Q

end systolic volume

A

residual volume of blood remaining in the ventricle after ejection

103
Q

three factors that effect stroke volume

A

preload
afterload
contractility

104
Q

preload

A

stretch of cardiac muscle cells before contraction
chamber volume before contraction

105
Q

frank starling law

A

increase in resting muscle fiber strength results in greater muscle tension

106
Q

hydrostatic pressure

A

force that attempts to push fluid out of the capillary pores and into the interstitial and intracellular spaces

107
Q

oncotic pressure

A

force that attempts to pull fluid from the interstitial and intracellular spaces into the capillary

108
Q

starlings law on capillary forces

A

oncotic pressure forces and hydrostatic pressure forces oppose each other at every capillary membrane and attempt to balance each other out

109
Q

afterload

A

resistance that must be overcome in order to eject blood from the chamber
increase leads to a decrease in SV

110
Q

contractility

A

contractile force of the heart muscle cells
determined by the amount of free calcium within the myocardial cell

111
Q

LVF backward effect

A

creates buildup of hydrostatic pressure in the left atrium, pulmonary veins, and pulmonary capillaries

112
Q

LVF forward failure

A

decreased perfusion of the brain, kidneys, and other organs

113
Q

CAD

A

coronary arteries branch from the aorta
they become clogged due to atherosclerosis
LV determines perfusion to the body

114
Q

CAD nonmodifiable vs modifiable RF

A

non-modifiable - age, family history, gender, ethnicity, genetics
modifiable - HTN, smoking, DM, obesity, inactivity, diet, hyperlipidemia*

115
Q

endothelial dysfunction

A

vessels aren’t necessarily blocked but become narrowed when they are supposed to dilate
causes - DM, HTN, HPL, smoking

116
Q

angina

A

main symptom of CAD
includes anxiety, dizziness, chest pain, heartburn, irregular HR, weakness, anxiety, nausea, cold sweat, and burning sensation

117
Q

stable angina

A

coronary blood flow is diminished but not blocked
there is an imbalance between oxygen supply and demand
brought on by exertion and relieved with rest
lasts 2-5 minutes
caused by atherosclerosis

118
Q

atypical angina in women

A

discomfort - hot, tenderness
location - not always the chest
other - indigestion, heart burn, nausea, fatigue, weakness, lightheadedness, dyspnea

119
Q

Angina Pectoris with Myocardial Infarction

A

chest pain that is not brought on by exertion, could radiate to other areas, not relieved in 2-5 minutes
often accompanied by n/v, SOA, and diaphoresis
risk for MI increased
radiating pain areas: neck, jaw, upper abdomen, shoulders, and arm

120
Q

Stable angina treatment

A

educate! - remember the rest and relax, decrease bodily demand
nitrates
prevent and treat further atherosclerosis
teach about MIs

121
Q

cardiomyopathy

A

disease of the myocardium (heart muscle)
usually idiopathic but can be caused by ischemia, HTN, inherited disorders, infections, toxins, myocarditis, and autoimmune conditions
leads to HF

122
Q

heart failure

A

chronic and progressive condition in which the heart muscle is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs for blood and oxygen
the heart can’t keep up with the workload
can’t meet the body’s demands

123
Q

what does heart failure result in?

A

decreased CO
decreased myocardial contractility
increased preload
increased afterload

124
Q

pathological changes that can occur in developing HF

A

volume overload
impaired ventricular filling
weakened ventricular muscle
decreased ventricular contractile function

125
Q

major causes of HF

A

repeated ischemic episodes*
MI
chronic HTN
COPD
valve disorders
pulmonary embolus

126
Q

risk factors for HF

A

HTN*
DM
within 6 months of MI
men and postmenopausal women
black/african americans
genetics
age
ethnicity
ischemic heart disease
obesity
lifestyle factors
COPD, severe anemia
congenital heart defects
viruses (myocarditis)
alcohol/drug use
kidney conditions

127
Q

right vs left HF

A

right - blood backs up into PULMONARY circulation
left - blood backs up into SYSTemic circulation

128
Q

left sided HF

A

LV increases in size
backflow into pulmonary veins
congestion in LUNGS
findings - cough, crackles, wheezes, frothy sputum, may be blood tinged, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and orthopnea

129
Q

right sided HF

A

often due to COPD
RV increases in size
backflow into the vena cava, decreased to the lungs
congestion of jugular veins, liver, and lower extremities
findings - JVD, dependent edema, weight gain, hepatosplenomegaly

130
Q

reduced ejection fraction (systolic HF)

A

<40%
caused by impaired contractile function, increased afterload, cardiomyopathy, and mechanical problems
left ventricle loses the ability to generate pressure to eject blood
weakened muscle cannot generate stroke volume and then lowers CO
LV fails, blood backs up and causes fluid accumulation

131
Q

preserved ejection fraction (diastolic HF)

A

inability of ventricles to relax and fill during diastole
HTN is primary cause
RF - female, older age, DM, obesity
leads to high filling pressures and decreased SV and decreased CO
reduced CO leads to fluid congestion
EF is normal or only slightly decreased

132
Q

ventricular remodeling in HF

A

a weakened heart muscle
secretes molecular substances (angiotensin 2, endothelin, TNF alpha, catecholamines, insulin-like growth factor, growth hormone)
promotes genetic changes, apoptosis, and hypertrophy of cardiac myocytes as well as collagen deposits and myocardial fibrosis
**lead to enlargement and dilation of the LV

133
Q

S3

A

low pitched sound heart after S2
during rapid filling of the ventricle in the early part of diastole
fluid is left in the ventricle after each contraction
increased pressure within the ventricles
indicative of HF in those over 40

134
Q

automacity

A

ability to generate an electrical impulse

135
Q

excitability

A

ability to respond to an outside impulse (chemical, mechanical, electrical)

136
Q

conductivity

A

ability to receive an electrical impulse and conduct it

137
Q

contractility

A

ability of myocardial cells to shorten in response to an impulse

138
Q

depolarization

A

light switch turns on, contractions that occur in atrium and ventricles during systole, when atrial cells polarize they squeeze

139
Q

repolarization

A

heart ramps back up

140
Q

in what part of the heart rhythm is atrial depolarization?

A

p wave

141
Q

in what part of the heart rhythm is ventricular depolarization?

A

between r and s

142
Q

in what part of the heart rhythm is ventricular repolarization?

A

t wave

143
Q

normal electrical conductivity of the heart

A

60-100 bpm
regular rhythm
pr interval - 0.12-0.20
QRS - <0.12sec

144
Q

sinus arrhythmia

A

a degree of variability in the heart rate
common in young people
HR fluctuates with respiration or autonomic nervous system

145
Q

dysrhythmia

A

abnormality of the heart rhythm
problem with impulse generation or conduction
when we alter rhythms, CO is impacted

146
Q

what are the causes of dysrhythmias?

A

inappropriate automaticity - a cell initiates AP’s when it isn’t supposed to
triggered activity - extra impulse generated during or just after repolarization
re-entry - cardiac impulse in one part of the heart continues to depolarize after the main impulse has finished

147
Q

sinus bradycardia

A

originates in the SA node
<60bpm
normal rhythm
normal PR and QRS intervals

148
Q

causes of sinus bradycardia

A

hyperkalemia
vagal response
dogoxin toxicity
late hypoxia
medications (beta blockers)
myocardial infarction

149
Q

S/S of sinus bradycardia

A

lightheadedness
easily fatigue
syncope
dyspnea
chest pain or discomfort
confusion

150
Q

treatment of symptomatic bradycardia

A

atropine (anticholinergic)
pacemaker if not effective

151
Q

sinus tachycardia

A

originates in SA node
100-150bpm
p waves may be partially hidden

152
Q

causes of sinus tach

A

catecholamines
fever
fluid volume deficit
meds (epi, albuterol)
substances (caffeine)
hypoxia (early)

153
Q

treatment for sinus tach

A

based on cause
hypovolemia - fluids
fever - antipyretics
pain - analgesics
beta blockers can lower HR and myocardial oxygen consumption

154
Q

paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)

A

HR 159-250bpm
originates in AV node
usually no P wave
normal QRS
usually caused by a re-entry phenomenon
typically begins and ends suddenly
“my heart is racing”
(intermittent above ventricle)

155
Q

causes of PSVT

A

over exertion
emotional stress
stimulants
digitalis toxicity
rheumatic heart disease
CAD
WPW
RHF

156
Q

PSVT S/S

A

palpitations
chest pain
fatigue
lightheadedness
dyspnea

157
Q

premature atrial contractions (PAC)

A

early P waves that look different
normal PR
QRS follows PAC
usually has no consequences (frequent can put them at risk for another dysrhythmia)
CHECK ELECTROLYTES
may need O2

158
Q

atrial flutter

A

originates in the AV node (overrides SA node)
reentry impulse that is repetitive and cyclic
atrial rate of >250 (faster than ventricles)
“sawtooth”
narrow QRS

159
Q

causes of a flutter

A

CAD, cardiomyopathy, heart valve disease, congenital heart disease
inflammation of the heart
high BP
lung disease or overactive thyroid, electrolytes

160
Q

a fib

A

multiple irritable spots on atria
IRREGULAR
100-175bpm
no identifiable P wave
fibrillation waves

161
Q

a fib CM

A

palpitations
racing heart
fatigue
dizziness
chest discomfort
SOA
or asymptomatic

162
Q

causes of a fib

A

electrolytes
hypoxia
CVD

163
Q

complications of a fib

A

decreased CO
HF
embolus / stroke

164
Q

treatment of a fib

A

rate control - beta blockers
stroke prevention
cardioversion, abalation

165
Q

premature ventricular contractions (PVC)

A

contractions come from an ectopic focus in the ventricles
comes earlier than the QRS should come
doesn’t follow normal rhythm or p wave
wide and distorted shape compared to normal

166
Q

causes of PVC

A

stimulants, ELECTROLYTES, hypoxia, fever, exercise, emotional stress, and CVD
TREAT CAUSE

167
Q

bigeminy

A

PVC every QRS

168
Q

trigeminy

A

PVC every third beat

169
Q

quadrigeminy

A

PVC every 4th beat

170
Q

v tach

A

3 or more PVCs together
ectopic focus in ventricles takes control and fires repeatedly (no atrial contractions)
seriously decreases CO
DEADLY RHYTHM
150-200bpm
no p wave, PR not measurable

171
Q

v tach treatment

A

anti-dysrhythmic medication (beta blocker or CCB)
electrolyte replacement
CHECK PULSE

172
Q

vfib

A

irregular wave forms of varying shapes and sizes
ventricles quivering
NO CARDIAC OUTPUT

173
Q

PVD

A

umbrella term describing several circulatory diseases

174
Q

PVD patho

A

related to atherosclerosis processes in the extremities
thrombus, inflammation, or vasospasm

175
Q

RF PVD

A

SMOKING
DM
high cholesterol
heart disease
stroke
increased age

176
Q

PAD CM

A

calf or butt pain
wounds that don’t heal
diminished sensation in extremities
trophic skin changes (skin, loss of leg hair, diminished pulses, elevation pallor, cyanosis, reactive hyperemia, erectile dysfunction)

177
Q

intermittent claudication

A

consistent pain precipitated by consistent level of exercise
CEASES WITH REST
pain depends on site of plaque buildup and collateral circulation

178
Q

intermittent claudication S/S

A

cramping of the lower extremity or buttocks caused by arterial flow obstruction
pain usually starts after walking a certain distance
“angina” of the lower extremities

179
Q

common site for PAD

A

femoral artery
lack of circulation
ischemia of muscle in lower leg, cellular hypoxia

180
Q

5 P’s of PAD

A

pain
pulselesness
palpable coolness
paresthesias
paresis

181
Q

diagnosing PVD

A

compare BP in the arm and leg
ankle pressure should be greater than arm pressure
*severe PAD - ABI =0.5

182
Q

PVD arterial vs venous

A

*arterial - intermittent claudication pain
no edema
no pulse or weak pulse
round and smooth sores
black eschar
sores on toes and feet
*venous - dull and achy pain
lower leg edema
pulse present
sores with irregular borders
yellow slough or ruddy skin
sores on ankles

183
Q

chronic venous insufficiency

A

occurs when the venous walls or valves in the leg veins are not working effectively
blood pools in veins
chronic

184
Q

S/S of venous insufficiency

A

lower extremity edema
achiness or tiredness in legs
leathery looking skin
stasis ulcers
flaking or itching skin
new varicose veins

185
Q

non pharm treatment of PVD

A

reduce contribution factors
smoking cessation
increased PA
weight reduction
stress reduction
DM management
HTN control

186
Q

pharm treatment of PVD

A

antiplatelet agents
anticoagulants
thrombolytics
lipid lowering agents

187
Q

cilostazol

A

intermittent claudication treatment
MOA - platelet inhibitor, vasodilation
AE - headache, dizziness, diarrhea, abnormal stools, palpitations, peripheral edema
*metabolized by cytochrome P450

188
Q

pentoxifylline

A

vasoactive agent, treat intermittent claudication caused by PVD
MOA - relieves leg pain by increasing blood flow and oxygen through blood vessels, helps increase walking distance and duration
AE - n/v, dizziness

189
Q

what is the big deal with valve abnormalities?

A

very tight and hard for blood to get through
lose and the blood flows backward with increased pressures

190
Q

aortic stenosis triad

A

chest pain
lightheadedness
SOA

191
Q

mitral regurgitation

A

causes fatigue and SOA
may require valve replacement surgery

192
Q

infective endocarditis

A

infection of valve
vegetation - ineffective mass on the valve
pieces can break off and enter the blood stream which can cause an occlusion

193
Q

ineffective endocarditis RF

A

prosthetic valve
pacemaker associated bacteria
IV drug use
Caused by - strep or staph

194
Q

symptoms of ineffective endocarditis

A

fever, chills, anorexia, weight loss, pain in muscles, joint pain, heart murmur, signs of ischemia of extremities

195
Q

septic emboli in ineffective endocarditis

A

microorganisms travel to the heart and adhere to damaged endothelial tissue, stimulate coag cascade which eventually develops vegetation
vegetations are carried into the bloodstream which can initiate infection and ischemia

196
Q

classic CM of IE

A

petechiae
splinter hemorrhages
janeway lesions - nontender lesions of palms and soles
osler’s nodes - subq nodules in pulp of fingertips
roth spots - oval retinal hemorrhages with pale centers

197
Q

duke criteria for IE

A

requires 2 major criteria, one major and three minor, or five minor

198
Q

major criteria of IE

A

positive cultures from at least two separate cultures
echocardiogram showing vegetation, abscesses or valve perforation
new murmor

199
Q

minor criteria of IE

A

predisposing heart condition such as mitral valve prolapse, rheumatic or congenital heart disease or IV drug abuse
temp greater than 100.4
presence of embolic disease or hemorrhage
presence of immunological phenomena
positive culture
positive ECG

200
Q

pharm for IE

A

antibiotics
prolonged therapy
lengthy hospital stay

201
Q

goals of therapy for stable angina

A

relieve chest pain
reduce HL
improve morbidity and mortality

202
Q

antifungals for stable angina

A

nitrates - dilates veins, decreases preload
beta blockers - decreased HR and contractility
CCB - dilate arteroles which decreases afterload, decreases HR and contractility
ranolazine - helps the myocardium generate more efficiently

203
Q

pharm for stable angina

A

antifungals
beta blockers
CCB
statins
aspirin

204
Q

nitroglycerin

A

organic nitrate
MOA - dilates veins, decreases preload
AE - related to vasodilation, tolerance
rapid acting, short acting, and long acting
monitor for headache, take only as many tablets as needed, rotate patch sites, taper long acting forms

205
Q

ranolazine

A

antifungal
MOA - unknown, possibly helps the myocardium use energy more effectively
prolongs QT interval *
AE - headache, dizziness, nausea, constipation
CYP340 inhibitor - avoid grapefruit and other inhibitors

206
Q

pharm treatment for HF

A

ACE inhibitors
beta blockers
MRAs
SLGT inhibitors

207
Q

angiotensin recetor neprilysin inhibitor

A

MOA - decreases preload and afterload, suppresses aldosterone, favorably impact, cardiac remodeling
use highest dose possible
AE - hypotension, hyperkalemia, cough

208
Q

carvedilol

A

beta blockers
MOA - protect against SNS activation and dysrhythmias, reverses cardiac remodeling
AE - fluid retention or worsening HF, fatigue, hypotension, bradycardia

209
Q

spironolactone

A

PSD
suppress sodium and water retention to help with offloading in the LV
associated with decreased hospitalizations and cardiac death
must watch carefully for hyperkalemia

210
Q

dapaflifozin

A

SLG2 inhibitor for HF
decreases readmissions, mortality, and morbidity

211
Q

diuretics in HF

A

loop diuretics
for volume overload
AE - hypokalemia, hypotension, dogoxin toxicity
mainly for symptom relief*

212
Q

inotropic drugs (digitalis)

A

cardiac glycosides
second line due to increased risk for dysrhythmias
MOA - inhibits sodium potassium ATP pump causing calcium to collect within the cells of the heart helping to increase myocardial contractility (increases flow to kidney, decreases SNS action and increases parasympathetic action, decreases HR)
AE - cardiac dyshythmias, digitalis toxicity

213
Q

digitalis toxicity

A

highest risk - age, women, combination drugs
prevent toxicity - reduce dose, serum digitalis levels (periodic monitoring levels), supplemental potassium

214
Q

nursing implications when giving digoxin

A

monitor serum K
take apical pulse for a full minute before giving
monitor cardiac rhythm

215
Q

antidote for digoxin

A

digoxin immune fab (digibind) IV

216
Q

medicines for rate and rhythm control

A

beta blockers
CCB
amiodarone
andenosine
atropine
dofetilide

217
Q

amioderone

A

MOA - prolongs the activation potential duration and effective refractory period in all cardiac tissues
many AE - thyroid alterations, corneal microdeposits, pulmonary toxicity*, BBW - pulmonary toxicity, hepatotoxicity, and pro arrhythmic effects
contraindicated with severe bradycardia

218
Q

amioderone drug interactiosn

A

digoxin and warfarin
extremely long half life

219
Q

atropine

A

sinus brady treatment
MOA - poisons the vagus nerve
given IV push only for bradycardia
AE - xerostomia, blurry vision, photophobia, tachy, flushing, hot skin
*need to be on cardiac monitoring

220
Q

adenosine

A

MOA - slows down the conduction time through the AV node
very short half life*
only given IV*
always follow with rapid normal saline flush

221
Q

dofetilide

A

antidysrhythmic
converts afib or flutter to NSR
MOA - selectively blocks the rapid cardiac ion channel carrying potassium currents
SE - torsades, SVT, headache, dizziness, chest pain
ECG monitoring
don’t give to someone with long QT intervals or other drugs that can lengthen QT

nsg (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions