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Normal Procedures and FOM Flashcards

0
Q

@What must the Captain’s pre-departure briefing to FAs cover?

A

Aircraft assignment, projected passenger loads, originating or through flight, forecast turbulence, related weather conditions, pertinent MEL items, Flight Plan estimated time enroute, and any additional items the Captain deems necessary.

FOM 7.2.1

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1
Q

When receiving an aircraft directly from another crew, must an originating checklist be completed?

A

Yes, but can do an Abbreviated Exterior Inspection.

FSM 3.2.1

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2
Q

What are the minimum hydraulic quantities for dispatch?

A

40% for all three systems.

FSM 3.3.10

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3
Q

If the hydraulic quantity appears to be below minimums, how would you determine quantity?

A

Use MFD reversion selector to determine if quantity is below 40%.

FSM 3.3.10

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4
Q

When is an engine start abort required?

A

~ Engine ITT approaches or exceeds 920*C,
~ NH is not in the green arc (64%) within 70 seconds of selecting
Condition Lever to Start & Feather; or
~ Engine Oil Pressure fails to reach 44 psi by Start SELECT switch
reset.

FSM 3.5.3

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5
Q

When can the FO select STBY HYD PRESS on during After Start flow?

A

After both AC GEN caution lights have extinguished.

FSM 3.6.5

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6
Q

What is the minimum two-engine climb speed with flaps up?

A

VMIN climb speed, flaps 0*:
~ Solid bug VSE (Ice), Icing Conditions or REF Speeds - INCR
~ Open bug VSE, Non-Icing Conditions and REF Speeds - OFF

FSM 3.12.1

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7
Q

What is the Type I climb profile?

A

240 KIAS to 10,000’ MSL, then 5* - 6* pitch.

FSM 3.12.1

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8
Q

What is the Type II climb profile?

A

185 KIAS to FL250, or until no longer required.

FSM 3.12.1

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9
Q

What is the normal holding speed in all conditions?

A

200 KIAS, clean configuration.

FSM 3.14.2

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10
Q

By what speed on takeoff do the power levers need to be set in the Rating Power detent?

A

50 KIAS.

FSM 3.10.1

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11
Q

When is a crew required to accomplish the Preflight Checklist?

A

~ IAFD (Initial Aircraft Flight of the Day)
~ Captain receives a new aircraft
~ MTX has been performed and not observed by the flight crew.

FSM 3.2.1

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12
Q

When do the emergency systems and equipment on the flight deck have to be visually checked?

A

Whenever the aircraft has been left unattended by a flight crew for any period of time (a visual check of the flightdeck emergency equipment and systems shall be accomplished to ensure they have not been tampered with).
FSM 3.2.1

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13
Q

What is required to be checked during a review of the MTX log?
(use this as a discussion item FOM 11.3.5)

A
  1. Verify the correct Log is onboard (tail # matches)
  2. Verify number of pink pages in Log meets requirement (five)
  3. General review to understand recent mechanical history
  4. Determine whether the Daily System Check has been completed
  5. If there is an entry, verify 4 fields are completed in the Corrective
    Action section: Corr Action text; Signature; Emp or Cert#, Date
  6. Verify all fields (Log Entry & Corr Action) are complete
  7. Confirm MEL/CDL items on the Dispatch Release match
  8. Comply with any MELs/CDLs operational restrictions, conditions
    FOM 11.3.5
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14
Q

@If the aircraft starts to roll backwards, what should you do?

A

Advance the POWER levers, do not use brakes.

FSM 3.8.3

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15
Q

What is the maximum pitch on takeoff until all wheels lift off?

A

8 degrees.

FSM 3.10.2

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16
Q

After conducting a Bleeds Off Takeoff, when do you select Bleeds On?

A

Above 400’ AFE.

FSM 3.10.3

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17
Q

When do we fly solid bug on an approach below 1,000’ AGL?

A

~ The REF SPEEDS switch is selected to INCR, or
~ Maneuvering at bank angles greater than 15* is required, or
~ Wind gusts greater than ten knots or windshear are reported.

FSM 3.15.9

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18
Q

When are the flaps retracted on a two-engine Missed Approach?

A

At acceleration height. Acceleration height on a missed approach is 1,000’ AFE unless otherwise specified by a special procedure.

FSM 3.16.4

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19
Q

At what pitch attitude on landing may a tail strike occur?

A

With strut compression, tail strike can occur at pitch attitudes greater than 6*.

FSM 3.17.1

20
Q

If the pitch attitude reaches 6* nose up or if an excessive sink rate develops on short final, the PF shall correct how?

A

With an increase in power with no further increase in pitch attitude.

FSM 3.17.2

21
Q

When may you start the APU after landing?

A

After the Parking Brake is set at the gate, and the MAIN BUS TIE is selected.

FSM 3.19.5

22
Q

When must a Terminating Checklist be accomplished?

A

~ Flight crew leaving the aircraft:
- On a RON,
- Unattended for more than one hour, or
- When the next assigned flight crew has not arrived at the
aircraft.
~ Any other time deemed appropriate by the Captain.
FSM 3.20.1

23
Q

Can we operate the Q400 without nose wheel steering?

A

No. However, in the case of a nosewheel steering failure, the aircraft should be taxied clear of the runway (if able) and stopped.

FSM 3.6.3, 3.18.3

24
Q

@How long does it take for nose wheel steering to become available after selecting NWS on?

A

Approximately 8 seconds.

FSM 3.6.3

25
Q

What is the minimum parking brake pressure to start the #2 engine first?

A

500 psi

FSM 3.4.4

26
Q

What is the minimum parking brake pressure to start the #1 engine first?

A

1000 psi

FSM 3.4.4

27
Q

With the nose gear doors open, should you connect to the tug?

A

No.

FSM 3.2.13

28
Q

@Is is OK to complete a rudder check with nose wheel steering off, but with the tug still attached to the aircraft?

A

No.

FSM 3.6.3

29
Q

The aircraft must be configured for landing prior to what point?

A

~ Flaps 15:
- Prior to the FAF for all approaches requiring Flaps 15.
~ Flaps 35*:
- The FAF for instrument approaches without vertical guidance.
- 1000’ AFE for all other approaches (instrument or visual).
FSM 3.15.8

30
Q

The aircraft must be stabilized at final approach airspeed prior to what point?

A

500’ AFE.

FSM 3.15.9

31
Q

What is our definition of a stabilized approach?

A

~ The airplane in appr config for the applicable approach;
~ Course: 1 dot or less
~ Glidepath: 1 dot above, 1/2 dot below
~ At MDA, altitude within -0 to +50’
~ 1000’ AFE and below: rate of descent no more than 1000 fpm;
~ Below 500’ AFE, bank angle 15* or less;
~ On profile speed within -5 to +10 knots of target airspeed.
FOM 10.1.1

32
Q

When the EMER switch light illuminates in the cockpit, what does this mean?

A

Flight Attendant has depressed Emergency switchlight in Cabin.

FSM 3.1.6

33
Q

What course of action will you take if the OAT on the ground is below 0 when rain, freezing rain, or snow is falling, or if ice is adhering to the engine inlet, spinner, propeller, or wing leading edge?

A

A visual inspection of the engine intakes must be undertaken (flashlight and ladder, if necessary). If frozen contamination is found or suspected, contact MTX control.

FSM 3.2.14

34
Q

When is a Captain Monitored Approach required?

A

When the weather is within 300’ of the DA, or the visibility is less than twice that required for the approach, and the HGS is inoperative; this applies to CAT I ILS and non-precision approaches only.
FOM 17.1.4

35
Q

What callout is required of the PM when pitch attitude reaches 5 degrees during landing flare?
PF?

A

PM: “Five degrees.”
PF: (no response required).

FSM 3.17.1

36
Q

What callout is required of the PM when pitch attitude reaches 6 degrees during landing flare?
PF?

A

PM: “Six degrees.”
PF: “Correcting.”

FSM 3.17.1

37
Q

What NP setting is required for landing at solid bug?

A

1020.

FSM 3.15.11

38
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

If reported departure weather is below landing minimums, or if any other operational conditions exist at the departure airport that would preclude a return back to that airport, a takeoff alternate is required.
FOM 6.6.1

39
Q

Are First Officers with less than 100 hours in type in company aircraft prohibited from making takeoffs and landings at special airports?

A

Yes.

FOM 5.1.6

40
Q

What other conditions restrict FOs with less than 100 hrs in type in company aircraft from making takeoffs or landings?

A

~ Contaminated runways
~ Braking action reported less than “good”
~ Crosswind component greater than 15 knots
~ Windshear reported in vicinity of airport
~ Visibility less than 4000 RVR or 3/4 s.m.
~ Any other condition the Captain deems appropriate.
FOM 5.1.6

41
Q

What regular airports are designated as special?

A

MMLT (Loreto, Mexico), SAN, PSP, MMH (Mammoth), SFO, RNO (Reno), SUN (Sun Valley), MSO (Missoula).

FOM 2.5.16 Bulletin 12-28, QRH 7.3

42
Q

What alternate airports are designated as Special?

A

BTM (Butte, MT), LMT (Klamath Falls, OR), BUR and ONT.

FOM 2.5.16, Bulletin 12-28, QRH 7.2.5

43
Q

What does the term “lockdown” mean in association with the Threat Levels listed in the Ops Manual?

A

Closure of the flightdeck door and suspension of all entry and exit through it.

FOM 15.2.29

44
Q

If a liquid is found on board the aircraft that is considered suspicious, where is the threat level guidance found?

A

FOM 15.2.19, E/A 14.2

45
Q

If a FRA is not specified, at what altitude AFE should flaps be retracted?

A

1000’ AFE

FSM 4.2.2

46
Q

Under what weather conditions are Complex-Special turn procedures mandatory in the case of an engine failure on takeoff?

A

Both IMC and VMC.

FSM 4.2.6

47
Q

What is the definition of a wet runway?

A

A runway that has a shiny appearance due to a thin layer of water less than 1/8” covering 100% of the runway surface. If there are dry spots showing on a drying runway with no standing water the runway is not considered to be wet.

FSM 4.3.9, QRH 2.3.1

48
Q

Where can you find runway contamination levels defined?

A

FSM 4.3.9 and QRH 2.3.1

Systems (9 decks)

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