Non-HIV antivirals Flashcards

1
Q

what explains the antigenic DRIFT?

A

minor changes; why people need to have annual flu vaccines

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2
Q

what is an antigenic SHIFT?

A

MAJOR shift in the influenza strains

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3
Q

what is the most readily used influenza vaccine?

A

inactivated influenza vaccine (IFV)

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4
Q

the IFV vaccine can be _____ or _____ (strains)

A

trivalent or quadrivalent

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5
Q

what population are we concerned about getting the live, attenuated influenza vaccine?

A

immunocompromised, kids <2 yrs, pregnant people or people they live with (can pass on)

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6
Q

starting at what age is the influenza vaccine recommended?

A

6 months and older

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7
Q

SE of influenza vaccine

A

injection site soreness, malaise, fever, muscle aches - DOES NOT GIVE YOU THE FLU… this is your body mounting an immune response!

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8
Q

if someone has an egg allergy, which flu vaccine should they use?

A

recombinant hemagglutinin vaccine (RIV)

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9
Q

3 types of influenza vaccines

A
  1. inactivated influenza vaccine
    2 recombinant hemagglutinin vaccine
  2. live, attenuated influenza vaccine
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10
Q

what is oseltamivir?

A

influenza antiviral (Tamiflu)

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11
Q

what timing is imperative with oseltamivir tx?

A

treat EARLY! no later than 2 days after symptoms - within 12 hours is best!

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12
Q

mechanism of action for oseltamivir

A

prevents budding of viral particles = prevents spread

often used prophylaxis in congregate settings

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13
Q

which hepatitis is most likely to go into carrier state - cx, cirrhosis, bleeding, liver transplants?

A

hep C

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14
Q

which hepatitis infection does NOT have a vaccine?

A

hep C

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15
Q

how does the hepatitis virus spread?

A

blood + body fluids

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16
Q

what is the best option for Hep B tx?

A

PREVENTION w/vaccine

17
Q

tx for which Hep is not needed unless there is active liver disease?

18
Q

which Hep treatment is based on patient’s genotype?

19
Q

AE of Hep C treatment

A

nausea, fatigue, weakness, liver fxn changes (watch ALT, AST)

20
Q

Hep C tx has drug-drug interactions with which drugs?

A

antacids, lipid-lowering, anti-seizure, antiretroviral

21
Q

HSV1 is manifested as what?

A

cold sores

22
Q

HSV2 is manifested as what?

A

genital sores/STIs

23
Q

what is the drug of choice for HSV 1+2 and Varicella Zoster Virus?

24
Q

mechanism of action of acyclovir

A

suppresses synthesis of viral DNA

25
AE of IV acyclovir
phlebitis, nephrotoxicity
26
re: AE of IV acyclovir, what are nursing considerations for these patients?
HDYRATE WELL - to prevent nephrotoxicity
27
what is the prodrug form of acyclovir?
valacyclovir
28
comparing acyclovir and valacyclovir and dosing, what drug is better for compliance? why?
valacyclovir, because dosing is 1-2 x day vs 4!!
29
what are the 3 topical therapy drugs for herpes labialis?
1. acyclovir 2. penciclovir 3. docosanol (Abreva)
30
cytomegaly virus is HSV ___?
HSV 5
31
re: cytomegaly virus, which populations are at high risk for reactivation?
immunocompromised
32
what infection is the leading cause of birth defects r/t infectious diseasese?
cytomegaly virus (CMV)
33
what test can we give during pregnancy to test for CMV? (to prevent birth defects)
TORCH test
34
AE of CMV infection
1. CMV retinitis = vision loss | 2. collitis = GI tract disturbance
35
what is drug of choice for CMV?
ganciclovir /valganciclovir
36
what are the serious AE of ganciclovir? (3)
bone marrow suppression teratogenic mutagenesis/carcinogenesis
37
administration time for valganciclovir (IV)
over 1 hour ... sloooooow
38
what drug should you avoid direct contact with as an RN; it should arrive from pharmacy in hazardous drug packaging
ganciclovir/valganciclovir