Non-HIV antivirals Flashcards

1
Q

what explains the antigenic DRIFT?

A

minor changes; why people need to have annual flu vaccines

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2
Q

what is an antigenic SHIFT?

A

MAJOR shift in the influenza strains

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3
Q

what is the most readily used influenza vaccine?

A

inactivated influenza vaccine (IFV)

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4
Q

the IFV vaccine can be _____ or _____ (strains)

A

trivalent or quadrivalent

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5
Q

what population are we concerned about getting the live, attenuated influenza vaccine?

A

immunocompromised, kids <2 yrs, pregnant people or people they live with (can pass on)

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6
Q

starting at what age is the influenza vaccine recommended?

A

6 months and older

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7
Q

SE of influenza vaccine

A

injection site soreness, malaise, fever, muscle aches - DOES NOT GIVE YOU THE FLU… this is your body mounting an immune response!

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8
Q

if someone has an egg allergy, which flu vaccine should they use?

A

recombinant hemagglutinin vaccine (RIV)

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9
Q

3 types of influenza vaccines

A
  1. inactivated influenza vaccine
    2 recombinant hemagglutinin vaccine
  2. live, attenuated influenza vaccine
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10
Q

what is oseltamivir?

A

influenza antiviral (Tamiflu)

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11
Q

what timing is imperative with oseltamivir tx?

A

treat EARLY! no later than 2 days after symptoms - within 12 hours is best!

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12
Q

mechanism of action for oseltamivir

A

prevents budding of viral particles = prevents spread

often used prophylaxis in congregate settings

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13
Q

which hepatitis is most likely to go into carrier state - cx, cirrhosis, bleeding, liver transplants?

A

hep C

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14
Q

which hepatitis infection does NOT have a vaccine?

A

hep C

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15
Q

how does the hepatitis virus spread?

A

blood + body fluids

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16
Q

what is the best option for Hep B tx?

A

PREVENTION w/vaccine

17
Q

tx for which Hep is not needed unless there is active liver disease?

A

Hep B

18
Q

which Hep treatment is based on patient’s genotype?

A

Hep C

19
Q

AE of Hep C treatment

A

nausea, fatigue, weakness, liver fxn changes (watch ALT, AST)

20
Q

Hep C tx has drug-drug interactions with which drugs?

A

antacids, lipid-lowering, anti-seizure, antiretroviral

21
Q

HSV1 is manifested as what?

A

cold sores

22
Q

HSV2 is manifested as what?

A

genital sores/STIs

23
Q

what is the drug of choice for HSV 1+2 and Varicella Zoster Virus?

A

acyclovir

24
Q

mechanism of action of acyclovir

A

suppresses synthesis of viral DNA

25
Q

AE of IV acyclovir

A

phlebitis, nephrotoxicity

26
Q

re: AE of IV acyclovir, what are nursing considerations for these patients?

A

HDYRATE WELL - to prevent nephrotoxicity

27
Q

what is the prodrug form of acyclovir?

A

valacyclovir

28
Q

comparing acyclovir and valacyclovir and dosing, what drug is better for compliance? why?

A

valacyclovir, because dosing is 1-2 x day vs 4!!

29
Q

what are the 3 topical therapy drugs for herpes labialis?

A
  1. acyclovir
  2. penciclovir
  3. docosanol (Abreva)
30
Q

cytomegaly virus is HSV ___?

A

HSV 5

31
Q

re: cytomegaly virus, which populations are at high risk for reactivation?

A

immunocompromised

32
Q

what infection is the leading cause of birth defects r/t infectious diseasese?

A

cytomegaly virus (CMV)

33
Q

what test can we give during pregnancy to test for CMV? (to prevent birth defects)

A

TORCH test

34
Q

AE of CMV infection

A
  1. CMV retinitis = vision loss

2. collitis = GI tract disturbance

35
Q

what is drug of choice for CMV?

A

ganciclovir /valganciclovir

36
Q

what are the serious AE of ganciclovir? (3)

A

bone marrow suppression
teratogenic
mutagenesis/carcinogenesis

37
Q

administration time for valganciclovir (IV)

A

over 1 hour … sloooooow

38
Q

what drug should you avoid direct contact with as an RN; it should arrive from pharmacy in hazardous drug packaging

A

ganciclovir/valganciclovir