newborns and infants Flashcards

1
Q

Faillure to Thrive

definition

causes

A

Defined as weight for age that falls below 3rd to 5th percentile for gestation-corrected age

Also, infants whose rate of weight change decreases over two or more major percentile lines:

–(90th, 75th, 50th, 25th, and 5th)–

exhibit failure to thrive

(FTT; e.g., a child at the 50th percentile goes down to 5th percentile over a few months).

causes are usually
-inadequate dietary intake
-diarrhea
-malabsorption (celiac disease, cystic fibrosis, food allergy)
-poor maternal bonding
-frequent infections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

A

Classic fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) :

-small head (microcephaly)
-shortened palpebral fissures (narrow eyes)
-epicanthal folds
-flat nasal bridge
-thin upper lip
-no vertical groove -above the upper lip (smooth philtrum).
-Ears are underdeveloped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cryptorchidism

what is it?

most common in who?

tx?

risk factor for

A

what is it?
Undescended Testicle

most common in who?
premature infants

tx?
most resolve by 6mo. If not, refer to urology

risk factor for:
testicular cancer and infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Gonococcal Ophtalmia Neonatorum

what is it?

s/s?

tx?

risk factor for

A

what is it?
congenital gonorrhea infection usually acquired during delivery

s/s?
-injected (red) conjunctiva
-PROFUSE PURULENT DISCHARGE
-swollen eyelids.

risk factor for: Infection can rapidly spread, causing blindness

tx?

Order
-Gram stain, gonococcal culture (Thayer–Martin media) or
-polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test for Neisseria gonorrhoeae
-herpes simplex culture, and PCR for Chlamydia trachomatis of eye exudate.

Hospitalize and treat with high-dose intravenous or intramuscular cefotaxime. Preferred prophylaxis is with topical 0.5% erythromycin ointment (1-cm ribbon per eye) immediately after birth. Test (and treat) mother and sexual partner for STDs/sexually transmitted infections (STIs).

“COCka! gross purulent discharge”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chlamydial Ophthalmia Neonatorum (Trachoma)

A

Symptoms will show 4 to 10 days after birth.

-Eyelids become edematous and red with profuse WATERY DISCHARGE INITIALLY THAT LATER BECOMES PURULENT.

-When obtaining a sample, collect not only the exudate but also conjunctival cells.

-Rule out concomitant chlamydial pneumonia.

-Treated with systemic antibiotics such as oral erythromycin base or erythromycin ethylsuccinate QID × 14 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Chlamydial Pneumonia

A

In infants with ophthalmia neonatorum, also rule out concomitant chlamydial pneumonia. Obtain nasopharyngeal culture for chlamydia.

-Infant will have frequent cough with BIBasilar rales, tachypnea, hyperinflation, and diffused infiltrates on chest x-ray.

Treated with erythromycin QID × 2 weeks. Daily follow-up. Reportable disease.

“BIB rales for the clammy baby”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Signs of severe dehydration

A

(>10% weight loss)
-weak and rapid pulse,
-tachypnea or deep breathing
-parched mucous membranes
-anterior fontanelle that is markedly sunken
-skin turgor showing tenting
-cool skin
-acrocyanosis
-anuria
-change in LOC (lethargy to coma).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Congenital Dermal Melanocytosis

AKA:

Look like?
usually occur?

TX?

keep in mind

A

AKA: (Mongolian Spots)

Look like?
-Blue/Grey birthmark

usually occur?
-Lumosacral area
-Asian decent

TX?
fades by 2-3 years

keep in mind:
-not bruises/ not abuse

(sitting on a grey/ blue slate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Milia, Miliaria, or “Prickly Heat”

A

Most common in neonates.

Multiple white 1- to 2-mm papules located mainly on the forehead, cheeks, and nose. Due to retention of sebaceous material and keratin. Resolves spontaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum

A

Small pustules (whitish-yellow color) that are 1- to 3-mm in size and surrounded by a red base.

Erupt during the second to the third day of life.

Located on the face, chest, back, and extremities.

Last from 1 to 2 weeks and resolve spontaneously.

“sounds like an evil spell… relax its just baby acne’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Seborrheic Dermatitis

A

(“Cradle Cap”)

Excessive thick scaling on the scalp of younger infants.

-Treated by softening and removal of the thick scales on the scalp after soaking scalp a few hours (to overnight) with vegetable oil or mineral oil.

Shampoo scalp and gently scrub scales with soft comb.

-Self resolving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Faun Tail Nevus

A

Tufts of hair overlying spinal column usually at lumbosacral area.

May be a sign of neural tube defects (spina bifida, spina bifida occulta).

Perform neurologic exam focusing on lumbosacral nerves (fecal/urinary incontinence, problems with gait).

Order ultrasound of lesion to rule out occult spina bifida.

“the Faun said… im NErVUS if I have spina bifida”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Café Au Lait Spots

A

-Flat light-brown to dark-brown spots >5 mm (0.5 cm).

-** If six or more spots larger than 5 mm (0.5 cm) in diameter are seen, rule out neurofibromatosis or von Recklinghausen’s disease
(e.g., neurologic disorder marked by seizures, learning disorders).

-Refer to pediatric neurologist if the spots meet the same criteria to rule out neurofibromatosis.

“meet me at 6, order the Cafe O’Lay from von reckinghousanz… um ok… is that a real thing?
did I mention my BF is a neuro major…
thats a FIB BRO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vascular Lesions

Salmon Patches (Nevus Simplex)

A

“stork bites” or “angel kisses.” Flat pink patches found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of neck

-Blanchable
-Typically fade by 18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Port Wine Stain (Nevus Flammeus)

A

pink-to-red, flat, stain-like skin lesions located on the upper and lower eyelids

(or on the V1 and V2 branches of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) should be referred to a pediatric ophthalmologist to rule out congenital glaucoma.)

  • Blanches to pressure.
    -Irregular in size and shape.
    -Usually unilateral.

**The lesions do not regress and grow with the child. These lesions can be treated with pulse-dye laser (PDL) therapy.

-Large lesions located on half the facial area may be a sign of trigeminal nerve involvement and Sturge–Weber syndrome (rare neurologic disorder).
(STURDLY! find that soundbite or ill slap half your face)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hemangioma (Strawberry Hemangioma)

A

bright red in color and feel soft to palpation.

-Usually located on the head or the neck.
-The lesions often grow rapidly during the first 12 months of life
-majority will involute gradually over the next 1 to 5 years.

-Watchful waiting is the usual strategy. Can be treated with PDL therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

During the first 2 months, the infant’s eyes may appear _________ at times (normal finding).

If one eye is consistently turned in or turned out,_____

Newborns do not shed tears, because _____

A

crossed (or wander)

refer to pediatric ophthalmologist.

the lacrimal ducts are not fully mature at birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Uncorrected strabismus can result in

common cause of

A

permanent visual loss and abnormal vision such as diplopia (double vision).

amblyopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Esotropia

A

Misalignment of one or both eyes (“cross-eyed”).

Infants (<20 weeks) may have intermittent esotropia, which usually resolves spontaneously.

“Ey SO….. are ju lookin ah mee or…”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

(HEARS) for High-Risk Factors for Hearing Loss

A

H (hyperbilirubinemia)

E (ear infections that are frequent)

A (Apgar scores low at birth)

R (rubella, cytomegalovirus [CMV], toxoplasmosis infections)

S (seizures)

Premature infants and infants admitted to NICUs have a higher incidence of hearing loss compared with full-term infants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Breastfeeding

A

Give vitamin D drops (400 IU of vitamin D) starting in the first few days of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cow’s Milk

A

Avoid cow’s milk the first year of life (causes gastrointestinal [GI] bleeding)
Common cause of iron-deficiency anemia in babies and young children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Meconium

A

Thick dark-green to black-colored stool that is odorless.

Most full-term neonates pass meconium stool within a few hours of birth.

**Failure to pass meconium within 24 hours of birth is worrisome and may be a sign of
-intestinal obstruction,
-Hirschsprung’s disease, or
-cystic fibrosis.

Meconium happens… if it. doesnt the nurse will SPRuNG into action- without obstruction to see if the cys is FIBbing

24
Q

Cephalohematoma

A

Traumatic subperiosteal hemorrhage.

Rule out skull fracture (order radiographs of the skull). Swelling does not cross the midline or suture lines.

25
Q

First Teeth (______ Teeth)

A

(Primary Teeth)

-6 to 10 months of age: Lower central incisors (lower front teeth)

-2½ years of age: Has complete set of primary teeth (20 teeth)

-Typically lose teeth in same order that they erupted

Both the left and right teeth erupt bilaterally at the same time (symmetrical).

Symptoms are drooling, chewing on objects, irritability, crying, and low-grade fever.

26
Q

First Permanent Teeth (______ Teeth)

A

(Deciduous Teeth)

6 years of age: Shed central incisors; first permanent teeth to erupt are upper and lower first molars

27
Q

Newborn female vagina swollen with small amount of blood-tinged discharge:

A

Caused by withdrawal of maternal hormones and will disappear within a few days.

normal finding

28
Q

Cryptorchidism:

A

Retention of one or both testicles in the abdominal cavity or the inguinal canal.

AKA Undescended testicles

-Markedly increases risk of testicular cancer and infertility.

-Order inguinal and abdominal ultrasound.

-Corrected surgically before 12 months of age.

Refer to pediatric urologist for evaluation between 6 and 12 months of age.

29
Q

Weight loss of_____-______starts after birth, but neonates should regain birth weight in _____ weeks.

A

Weight loss of 7% to 10% starts after birth, but neonates should regain birth weight in 2 weeks.

30
Q

Birth weight doubles at _____and triples at _____

A

Birth weight doubles at 6 months and triples at 12 months.

31
Q

Head circumference growth in first 12 months

A

Head circumference grows by up to 12 cm (first 12 months).

32
Q

Caput succedaneum ____, and cephalohematoma does not. Why?

A

Caput succedaneum crosses midline, and cephalohematoma does not (blood blocked by scalp sutures).

33
Q

Colostrum (IgG antibodies) looks like

A

thick, yellowish fluid and is secreted the first few days of breastfeeding before milk release.

34
Q

Epstein’s pearls:

A

White papules found on gum line resembles an erupting tooth.

35
Q

Do not confuse questions asking for the “first tooth” with the “first permanent tooth.”

A

6 months vs. 6 years

36
Q

Hypospadias: Urethral opening ____

Epispadias: Urethral opening ____

A

under glans/shaft (refer to pediatric urologist).

on top of glans/shaft (refer to pediatric urologist).

37
Q

Hydrocele is

A

fluid collection inside the scrotum (tunica vaginalis/processus vaginalis)

38
Q

Transillumination is used to assess for

A

hydrocele, empty scrotal sac, and scrotal masses.

39
Q

Infant with hydrocele and transillumination:

A

Scrotal sac with hydrocele will appear “brighter” or will have more light glow compared with scrotum with a testicle (solid objects block light, so less glow of light).

40
Q

Anal Wink

A

Gently stroke the anal region. Look for contraction of the perianal muscle.

-Absence is abnormal and suggestive of a lesion on the spinal cord (e.g., spina bifida).

41
Q

Plantar Reflex (Babinski Reflex)

A

Upward extension of the big toe with fanning of the other toes.

Starting on the heel, stroke firmly the outer side of the sole toward the front of the foot

42
Q

Moro Reflex (Startle Reflex)

A

Sudden loud noise will cause symmetric abduction and extension of the arms followed by adduction and flexion of the arms over the body.

Disappears by 3 to 4 months.

***A strong Moro reflex in an older infant (age ≥6 months) is abnormal and indicative of brain damage.

43
Q

Step Reflex

A

Hold baby upright and allow the dorsal surface of one foot to touch the edge of a table.

Baby will flex the hip and knee and place the stimulated foot on the tabletop (stepping motion).

Absent with paresis and breech births. Disappears by 6 weeks

44
Q

of wet diapers a day

A

6-8

45
Q

when can we give live vaccines?

what vaccine is given at birth?

Youngest age for influenza vaccine is

A

12 months (MMR and Varicella)

Hep. B

6 months.

46
Q

at what age does a child get DTAP?

at what age does a child get TDAP?

what component causes the fever?

A

DTAP <7

TDAP >7

pertussis

47
Q

f hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)-positive mother, give the neonate

A

hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG) and the hepatitis B vaccine.

48
Q

Do not use DTaP if age____ years or older. instead use ____

A

7

instead use Td or Tdap form of vaccine.

49
Q

Give Tdap vaccine at age of 11 to 12 years as a booster. If older, then replace

A

one dose of Td with a Tdap (once in a lifetime).

50
Q

Jaundice caused by:

when do we initiate phototherapy?

A

Bilirubin buildup

when bilirubin > 15

51
Q

Chicken Pox (Varicella)

s/s

tx

when is it no longer contagious?

A

s/s
-pruritic vesicles in VARIOUS STAGES of healing

tx
-calamine lotion
-oatmeal baths
-avoid scratching
-antipyretic’s as needed

when is it no longer contagious?

-when all lesions are crusted over

**can start on the patients FACE

52
Q

Infant Colic (Rule of 3s)

A

The goal when evaluating an infant with colic is to r
-ule out conditions causing pain and/or discomfort, infections, environment, and formula “allergy.”

-Crying for no apparent reason that lasts ≥3 hours a day

-in an infant younger than 3 months. Crying usually occurs at the same time each day.

-Crying occurs >3 days in a week.

(The excessive crying usually resolves by 3 to 4 months.)

53
Q

Coarctation of the Aorta

define:

how to recognize it?

how to Dx it?

at what age do we start BP checks?

tx plan?

more likely in:

A

define:
-Congenital narrowing of a portion of the aorta

how to recognize it?
-Absence or delay of the femoral pulse.

-Neonate is pale, irritable, dyspneic, and diaphoretic.
-If abnormal, order cardiac echocardiogram, EKG, and chest x-ray.

how to Dx it?
-increased BP in upper extremities, lower BP in lower extremities.

at what age do we start BP checks?
-birth

tx plan?
-refer

more likely in:
-Up to 30% of infants with this condition have Turner’s syndrome. Female infants noted to have a coarctation should get a karyotype analysis.

54
Q

Barlow and Ortolani are screening tests for ____

positive sign:

tx plan?

who is at risk for DDH?

A

developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH).

Positive sign is if “click” or “clunk” sound is heard, and/or if examiner palpates the trochanter becoming displaced (temporarily) from the hip socket.
-asymmetric
—->gluteal folds
—-> leg length
—-> movement

TX?
Pavlik Harness
Refer to pediatric orthopedic specialist.

@ risk =
-breech births, females, family hx, oligohydraminos

55
Q

Asymmetry of thigh/gluteal folds:

A

Rule out congenital hip dysplasia or hip fracture.

56
Q

Rolls from front to back and back to front at______;

plays pat-a-cake and peek-a-boo at ______

A

6 months

9 months.