Newborn Flashcards

1
Q

Newborn Overview

  • M_____ Health History
  • F_____ History
  • G___ and D_____
  • S____ History
  • I_____/Newborn/H_____ Screening
  • F_____/St____/Sl____
  • Ph____ Exam
  • Newborn and Maternal S____
  • C____
  • Anticipatory _____
A
  • Maternal
  • Family
  • Growth, Development
  • Social
  • Immunizations/Hearing
  • Feeding/Stooling/Sleep
  • Physical
  • Safety
  • Colic
  • Guidance
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2
Q

Maternal Health History

  • P___natal, L and D
  • OB information such as -a__, gr_____ (# of preg), p____, full/pre-___, spontaneous/elective ____, l____ children, b___ type, R_, G____ age (weeks, days), Estimated date of ____ (EDC), medication use
  • Prenatal Care, Complications, Illness, Admit reasons, Health problems (DM, HTN, Depression), Covid exposure
  • Serology - Group B Beta ____ (abx tx), Chl____, ___ B surface antigen, H _ _, VDRL (____), R____
  • Birth History/Hospital Course, ROM, A_____ scores
  • Mother and baby’s ____ tpye, C____ +/-, Umbilical cord has __ arteries and _ veins
A
  • Prenatal
  • age, Gravida, parity, term, abortion, living, blood, Rh, Gestational age, confinement
  • Strep, Chlamydia, Hep B, HIV, Syphilis, Rubella
  • APGAR
  • blood, Coombs, 2 arteries, 1 vein
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3
Q

Additional History

  • Immunizations in hospital (1)
  • Passed h_____ and c____ screening
  • F____ history
  • S_____ history (including t____, vaping, marijuana use in home and g___ in home)
A
  • Hep B
  • hearing, cardiac
  • Family
  • Social (tobacco, guns)
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4
Q

Newborn Screening

  • > 40 ______ conditions
    • ​www.wadworth.org/programs/newborn/screening/screened-disorders
A
  • metabolic
  • State driven, state funded - on diff metabolic conditions babies are tested for*
  • Using blood blot testing*
  • MYS must be done on day 2*
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5
Q

Growth and Development (Bright Futures)

  • Developmental milestones: regards face, lifts head when ___, ____ movements of extremities
  • Social-emotional: smells breast ____, hears v____, see’s best __-__ inches away, responds to t____
  • Communicative: learns to anticipate and trust world through parent’s c____- and pre____ care (feeding, sleeping patterns)
  • Physical Development: 1st month-environmental changes, lears to s___, swallow, breath while e___, patterned sleep, control of movements
A
  • prone, equal
  • milk, voices, 6-8, touch
  • consistency, predictable
  • sucks, eating

In general, mostly reactive, bilateral movements expected - if not maybe fracture?

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6
Q

Erickson’s Psychosocial Development

  • Phase 1: Birth - 1.5 years
    • ____ vs _____
      • ​trust through ____ behavior in comfort, feeding, tactile stimulation
A

Trust vs. Mistrust

Consistent

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7
Q

Piaget’s

Cognitive/Sensorimotor Development: Birth-18/24m

  • Infant’s progress from ____ behaviors (sucking, rooting, grasping, crying) to simple r____ acts to im_____ activity
  • Stimuli to the five _____ are the tools through which the baby responds to the environment (ex. crying when hungry, mother places nipple in infants mouth)
  • After infants start crawling, standing, and walking, their increased physical mobility leads to increased _____ development
A
  • reflex, repetitive acts, imitation
  • senses
  • cognitive
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8
Q

Sigmund Freud:

Psychosoexual Theory

  • Freud believed that personality developed through a series of childhood stages in which the p____ seeking energies of the id* become focused on certain er____ areas
  • ____ stage: 0-1 yr. Mouth is vital for eating, infant derives pleasure from oral stimulation through tasting and sucking. Bc totally dependent on caretakers for feeding, infant develops sense of trust and comfort through oral stim.
  • *Unconscious psychic energy that works to satisfy basic urges, needs, and desires
A
  • pleasure, erogenous
  • Oral Stage

Focused on the babie’s mouth

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9
Q

Parenting Skills

  • Need to feel s_____
  • Are much happier and more predictable when parents respond q____ and eff_____
  • There are c_____ differences in child rearing
  • No ____ way to do things, many ways work
  • R_____ parenting
A
  • secure
  • quickly, effectively
  • cultural
  • one
  • Responsive
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10
Q

Feeding/Stools/Sleep

  • Feeding t___, how m___, how o____
  • Breast milk from b____, ex____, or both?
  • F_____ type, how pr_____ (# of s____ to water; instruct parent to always add ____ first, then ____ powder)
  • E_____ - stools, color, consistency, amount, urination
  • S____ - how long (usually __-__ hrs of sleep), what p_____, f___ surface, anything in c___?
A
  • type, much, often
  • breast, expelled
  • Formula, prepared, scoops, water first then formula powder)
  • Elimination
  • Sleep, ~16-18, position, firm, crib
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11
Q

Diapers of the Breastfed Baby

  • The baby’s poop should change color from ____ to ____ during the first __ days after birth
    • ​Poop can look s___, w____
    • Illness, injury, or allergies can cause ____ in poop. Call doctor
  • By day 4, most breastfed babies make around __-__ poopy diapers every day
  • On day 1 or 2 some babies have ____ or __ pee
  • By day 3-4, breastfed babies should make __-__ wet diapers with pee that looks like ____ (3 tbs)
A
  • black to yellow, 5 days
    • seedy, watery
    • blood is bad
  • 3-4
  • red/orange pee at first
  • 3-4, water like pee
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12
Q

Classification of newborn by weight and gestational age

  • HBW > _____ gm
  • NBW (normal): ___- < ___ kg
  • LBW < ______ gm
  • VLBW < _____ mg
  • ELBW (extra low) < _____ gm <750 gm ILBW
  • Females ___-___kg, ave 3.5 kg (7lb 12oz)
  • Males ___-___kg ave 3.6 (8lb)
  • Term =
  • Premature =
  • Late Preterm =
A
  • >4000
  • 2.5-4 kg
  • <2500
  • <1500
  • <1000
  • 2.8-4.0
  • 2.9-4.2
  • 37 - 42 wks
  • < 36 wks
  • 36 - 38 wks
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13
Q

Baby Size

  • SGA < ___ percentile
  • LGA > ___ percentile
  • AGA __-__ percentile
  • IUGR (intrauterine growth restriction): describe less than optimal growth over period of time ______. It is possible to be IUGR and NOT ____
A
  • <10th
  • >90th
  • 10-90th
  • intrauterine and NOT SGA possible
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14
Q

Vital Signs

  • (2) weights
  • _____ visit weight
    • RR
    • HR
    • HC
    • Length
    • Temperature
      • Instability, overbundling, heater
  • TcB =
A
  • Birth and Discharge
  • Newborn
    • 40-60
    • 120-160
    • 33-37cm
    • 19-21”
    • 97-100F
  • Transcutaneous bilirubin-risk zones
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15
Q

Neonatal Hyperbilirubinemia

  • A yellow discoloration of skin and eyes caused by hyper bilirubinemia (^ serum bilirubin concentration) =
  • Usually becomes visible on the ____ at a level of 2-3 mg/dL and on the ____ about 4-5 mg/dL
  • With increasing bilirubin lvls, jaundice seems to advance in a ____-____ direction; peaks DOL 5, may take 3 weeks to ____
  • Occurs in greater than ___% of all newborns
A
  • Jaundice
  • sclera, face
  • head to toe, resolve 3 wks
  • 50% (common ish)

Too much RBC breakdown, Resolves foot to head direction

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16
Q

Unconjugated Hyperbilirubinemia

  • ______ hyperbilirubinemia = occurs in almost all neonates, shorter neonatal RBC life span increases bilirubin production, Upper GI tract decreases clearance, and low bacterial lvls in intestine combined with increased hydrolysis of conjugated bilirubin increase enterohepatic circulation
  • ______ jaundice = develops in 1/6 breastfed infants during first week of life, Breastfeeding increases enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin in some infants who have decreased milk intake and dehydration/low caloric intake
  • ____ ___ jaundice = diff from breastfeeding jaundice, develops after first 5-7 days and peaks at 2 wks. Thought to be increased concentration of B-glucuronidase in breast milk, causing increase in deconjugation and reabsorption of bilirubin.
A
  • Physiologic
  • Breastfeeding
  • Breast milk
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17
Q

Pathologic Hyperbilirubinemia

  • Pathologic hyper bilirubinemia in term infants diagnosied if
    • ​Jaundice appears in first ___ h, after the first week of life, or lasts > 2wk
    • Total serum bilirubin (TSB) rises by > ___ mg/dL/day
    • TSB is > ___ mg/dL
    • Infant shows __/__ of a serious _____
  • Some of the most common pathologic causes are
    • ​Immune and non-immune hemolytic ____
    • G____ deficiency
    • H_____ re-absorption
    • S____
    • ____thyroidism
A
  • Pathologic
    • 24h
    • 5
    • 18
    • S/S of serious illness
  • Causes
    • anemia
    • G6PD
    • Hematoma
    • Sepsis
    • Hypothyroidism
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18
Q

Serum Bilirubin Lvl Chart

  • Infants at lower risk > __ wk and well
  • Infants at medium risk > __ wk + risk factors or __-__ wks
  • Infants at higher risk __-__ wks + risk factors
A
  • 38
  • 38 + RF or 35-37wk
  • 35-37wk + RF
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19
Q

Physical Exam

  • Vital ___, w___, l___, Head ____
  • General app_____
  • Al___ness
  • E___
  • Eyes, ___ reflex
  • Nose, p____
  • M___/Th___/P___
  • Ton___, fren___
  • Jaw al____
  • To___
  • CV/R_____
  • Ab____, Gen___, Sk___
  • Extr____
  • MSK - h__, kn___, ank___
  • Neuro/ref_____
A
  • VS, weight, length, circumference
  • appearance
  • Alertness
  • Ears
  • Red reflex
  • patent
  • Mouth/Throat/Palate
  • Tongue/frenulum
  • Alignment
  • Respiratory
  • Abdomen, Genitalia, Skin
  • Extremities
  • hip, knee, ankle
  • reflexes

Delayed closing of fontanel could be due to hypothyroidism

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20
Q

Fontanel Anatomy

(2) Fontanels
(4) Sutures

A

Anterior, Posterior Fontanels

Metopic, Coronal, Sagittal, Lambdoid Sutures

Cephaly’s happen when sutures fuse too quickly

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21
Q

Acrocyanosis​

=

  • Where does it persist?
  • Common when?
  • When does it typically resolve?
A

Benign cyanosis of hands, feet, and maybe face

  • Peripheral
  • First few hours after delivery of full/preterm newborns
  • 24-48 hrs
22
Q

Erythema Toxicum Neonatum

=

  • Usually appears and resolves when?
  • Where are the lesions not typically found?
  • What is the treatment?
A

Benign, self limiting white-yellow papules or pustules (a few-hundreds)

  • 24-48hrs after birth, resolves 5-7 days
  • mucous membranes, palms, soles
  • None
23
Q

Transient Neonatal Pustular Melanosis

=

  • ​More common in what race of babies?
  • Describe the 3 stages of skin eruption?
A

Benign, self limiting skin condition without sequela

  • Black
  1. Non-erythematous pustules with milky fluid
  2. Ruptured vesicles with scaling
  3. Hyperpigmented macules

Compared to erythema toxicum, no erythematous base and not in clusters

24
Q

Transient Neonatal Pustular Melanosis cont.

  • When do the lesions disappear?
  • The pustules rupture when?
  • Resolves when?
  • If the pigmented macules present at birth then when was the pustular phase?
  • Any systemic signs?
  • Don’t forget to consider what differential?
A
  • 24-48 hrs
  • first few days of life then leave behind the pigmented areas resembling freckles
  • ~3 wks without treatment
  • in utero
  • no
  • neonatal herpes
25
Q

What is this a picture of?

A

Congenital Dermal Melanocytosis

Blueish patches that commonly occur on buttocks/back of mostly asian, latinx, black descent babies

26
Q

What is this Skin Condition?

A

Port Wine Stain

27
Q

What is this Skin Condition?

A

Ash Leaf Macule

28
Q

What is this Skin Condition?

A

Cafe Au-Lait Macules

29
Q

What is this Skin Condition?

A

Capillary/Strawberry Hemangioma

30
Q

What is this Skin Condition?

A

Congenital Melanocytic Nevi

31
Q

Seborrheic Dermatitis AKA Cradle Cap

=

  • Can attach to hair _____
  • When is it usually present?
  • When does it resolve?
  • Treatments?
A

Benign, self limiting condition of -Scaling, thick yellow/white, crusty or greasy patches on scalp, face, skin folds or skin rich in oil glands

  • follicles
  • first 3 months
  • within 1 month
  • Emollients like Vaseline or fragrant free oil (overnight or w shampoo in morning)
32
Q

Physical Exam

  • Neck =
  • Chest =
  • CV =
  • Some abnormal findings?
A
  • supple, FROM, no lymphadenopathy, intact clavicles
  • No retractions, clear BL, (pectus excavatum, carinatum, supernumeray nipple, breasy hypertrophy, prominent xiphoid)
  • Regular rate and rhythm, normals S1S2, no rubs, murmurs, gallops, pulses BL femoral and brachial*
  • Abnormal spine curvature, hair tufts, dimples, asymmetrical gluteal crease, color changes

Educate about irregular breathing pattern of babies

33
Q

Neuro

  • _____ of upper and lower extremities
  • ____ in fist (TIF): occurs relatively frequently, dissappears within 7 monts of life
  • What hand posture can be a manifestation of an upper motor neuron lesion (usually seen w other manifestations: increases muscle tone/tendon reflexes, decreased spontaneous movements of affected limb, fixed posture)
  • Moving all extremities, any ______ movement?
  • What reflex to test?
A
  • Flexion
  • Thumb
  • Cortical thumb
  • Asymmetric
  • Moro reflex (startle reflex)
34
Q

Neuro cont.

  • Head assessment =
  • Palsy’s (3)
  • S_____ of mouth and face
  • Vigorous cry is?
A
  • Ventral, vertical suspesion and head control for tone assessment, Minimal head lag
  • Brachial plexus palsy, Erb’s palsy (internally rotated arm “waiter’s tip” occurs when neck is stretched to one side during delivery), Facial nerve palsy (absence of depressor angulis oris muslce- muscle associated with frown)
  • Symmetry
  • assuring
35
Q

Reflexes ​​

  1. Babinski =
    • Duration
  2. ​Blinking =
    • Duration
  3. Grasping =
    • Duration
A
  1. Sole of foot stroked -> fans toes and twists foot in
    • 9m-1y
  2. Blowing air or flash of light makes them blink
    • Permanent
  • Grasps tightly when palms are touched
    • 3m weakens, 1y dissapears
36
Q

Reflexes

  1. Moro =
    • ​​Duration
  2. Rooting =
    • ​​Duration
  3. Stepping =
    • ​​Duration
A
  1. Startle reflex from sudden move or loud noise
    • 3-4m
  2. Turns toward and opens mouth and sucks on side cheek is stroked
    • 3-4m
  3. Moves feet as if to walk when feet touches ground
    • 3-4m
37
Q

Reflexes

  1. Sucking =
    • Duration
  2. Swimming =
    • ​Duration
  3. Tonic neck =
    • ​Duration
A
  1. Sucks on object when mouth touches object
    • ​3-4m
  2. Swimming movements when placed face down in water
    • 6-7m
  3. Makes fist and turns head to right when placed on back
    • 2m
38
Q

Physical Exam Abdomen, Hips, Extremities

  • Abdomen =
    • ​Male genitalia =
    • Female genitalia =
    • Anus =
  • Hips =
  • Extremities =
A
  • soft, nontender, nondistended, bowel sounds present, no masses, no hepatosplenomegaly, cord site clean/dry/intact, dry cord stump attached, diastasis recti abdmoninis
    • Urethral opening - hypospadias, epispadias, testes 3% full term, 30% preterm
    • prominent clitoris majora, minora, meatus, redudant hymenal tissue, any vaginal skin tags, labial fusion, milk/mucus/bloody discharge
  • normal Ortolani and Barlow, FROM
  • Any digital abnormalities, symmetrical, FROM, gluteal folds, lengths (syndactaly, brachdactaly, polydactaly)
39
Q

Chordee

=

A

Congenital condition where Penis curves downward

40
Q

Hypospadias

=

(4)

A

Birth defect in which urethra opening is not located at the tip of the penis

Glanular

Coronal

Penile shaft

Perineal

41
Q

Ortolani and Barlow’s

Barlow =

Ortalani =

A

dislocation test (straight down)

reduction test

42
Q

Newborn and Maternal Safety

  • Post Partum ______
  • Domestic ______
  • Non-accidental _____ injury/trauma

NEVER NEVER NEVER _____ a baby

A
  • Depression
  • Violence
  • Head injury

SHAKE

43
Q

4 Question Post-Partum Screening

  1. Maternal history of difficulty ______ when baby is asleep
  2. ______ for no reason
  3. Feeling of being _____ to do things
  4. Becoming _____ or easily bothered over small things

  • EPNQ - Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale
    • Acceptable score =
    • Score that warrants a mental health referral OR thought of harming self or infant =
A
  1. Sleeping
  2. Crying
  3. Unable
  4. Anxious
  • EPNQ
    • < 9 is okay
    • > 13 or thought of harming self or infant
44
Q

Domestic Violence Screening

  • Violence can affect ____ ethnic group, SES group, any religion
  • Do you feel ___ in your home environment? Are you in a _____ with a person who physically hurts or threatens you? Have you been ___, kicked, shoved, pushed, chocked, threatened?
  • Know your res_____
  • S____ workers, shelters, resources, h_____ NYC DV Hotline 1800 621 4673 (HOPE)
A
  • any
  • safe, relationship, hit
  • resources
  • Social, hotlines
45
Q

Non Accidental Head Trauma

  • ~1,200-1,400 children are injured or killed by _____ every year in the US
    • ​>300 babies/yr, ~25% die from being shaken, 200,000 US cases/yr
  • 80% suffer permanent ______ such as severe brain damage, cerebral palsy, mental retardation, behaviorhal disorders, and impaired motor and cognitive skills
  • P____/Ed_____
A
  • shaking
  • permanent disability
  • Prevention/Education
46
Q

Colic

=

  • starting at __-__ wks, worse between __-__ wks and improved within?
    • ​7-40% of full term infants
  • Diagnose =
  • Peaks when?
  • Etiology?
    • Consider organic and b_____ causes such as: GI issues, under/overfeeding, immaturity of motor regulation, maternal smokking, meningitis, UTI, rectal fissure, OM, hair tourniquet syndrome
A

Unconsolable crying in an otherwise healthy infant

  • 3-4 wks, worst 4-6 wks, improved 3-4m
  • Rule of 3: 3 hrs/day, 3 days/wk, >3 wks
  • late afternoon/evening “witching hour”
  • Unknown
    • biologic

Colic starts closer to one month - if baby crying alot in first 2 wks, generally just NEED FOOD

47
Q

Colic

  • Strategies to avoid complications of prenatal st____ of infant ab____
  • The period of _______ Crying Web site http://purplecrying.info
A
  • stress, abuse
  • PURPLE
48
Q

AAP Sleep Guidelines

  • What position?
  • Always use a ____ sleep surface. What is not recommended for routine sleep?
  • Where should the baby sleep?
  • Keep what types of objects out of the crib?
  • Are wedges and positions should be used?
A
  • Back
  • Firm
  • Same room as parents! (without bed sharing)
  • Soft objects, loose bedding (pillows, blankets, bumper pads
  • NO
49
Q

AAP Sleep Guidelines

  • What type of feeding is recommended?
  • Offer a _____ at nap time and bedtime (after 3-4 wks to allow BF to be established)
  • Do not use home monitors or commercial devices marketed to reduce the risk of ____.
  • Infants should receive all recommended v_______
  • Supervised, awake ____ time is recommended daily to facilitiate development and minimize occurance of positional plagiocephaly.
A
  • breastfeeding
  • pacifier
  • x monitors for SIDS
  • vaccinations
  • tummy
50
Q

Anticipatory Guidance

  • _____ to sleep
  • _____ time
  • U_____ care
  • Safety
  • C____ care
  • Estrogen withdrawal _____
  • S_ _ _/SUIDS..(cdc.gov/sids/about/index)
  • J______
  • Fever < 2 months = _____, Fever < 3 months =
  • VNS, SW support, concern for parenting
A
  • Back
  • Tummy
  • Umbilical
  • Safety
  • Circumcision
  • bleed
  • SIDS
  • Jaundice
  • ED, call provider
51
Q

Anticipatory Guidance

  • C___ safety seats, pets, alcohol/substance use, environmental health risks (smoking, l___, mold), guns, fire/burns (water heater setting, smoke detectors), c______ monoxide detectors/alarms
  • _____feeding/_____ feeding
  • Bottle/nipple st______
  • Water to mix formula; alternate between ____ tap water and _____ bottled water
A
  • Car, lead, carbon monoxide
  • Breast vs. Formula
  • sterilization
  • fluoridated, low fluoride
52
Q

Neonatal Hyperbilirubinemia

  • (2) complications**
    • Risk factors
  • Treatment (2)
  • Do not interupt _____ (unless borderline need for transfusion) - mom can pump (breastmilk is laxative!)
  • Supplement with ____ if indicated
A
  • Kernicterus, Acut bilirubin Encephalopathy
    • Cephalohematoma, bruising/trauma, early GA, dehydration, weight loss 10% or more, hemolytic anemia, ABO/Rh incompatibility, delayed meconium, Asian/Native American, TORCH infections, polycythemia
  • Phototherapy, rarely exchange Transfusion
  • breastfeeding
  • formula