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year 1 > Neuroscience > Flashcards

Neuroscience Flashcards

1
Q

What are the SNARE proteins ?

A

• v SNARE on vesicle
- synaptobrevin (VAMP)

• t SNARE on presynaptic membrane
- syntaxin and SNAP-25

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2
Q

What is synaptotagmin

A

A protein associated with a synaptic vesicle where Ca2+ ions bind to it allowing the vesicle to move closer to the presynaptic membrane

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3
Q

What does phospholipase C do?

A

Once stimulated from a receptor protein by g -protein activation, the enzyme breaks down phospholipids in the membrane to DAG and iP3

DAG activates protein kinase C
iP3 stimulates release of Ca2+ from ER

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4
Q

Name the regions of the brain not enclosed by the blood brain barrier

A
  • area postrema
  • median eminence
  • posterior pituitary
  • pineal gland
  • subfornical organ
  • Lamina terminalis
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5
Q

Name the functions of cerebral spinal fluid

A
  • cushions and protects CNS from trauma
  • mechanical buoyancy and support for the brain
  • reservoir for nutrients
  • removes metabolic waste
  • protects against changes blood pressure
  • involved in intracerebral transport (eg hypothalamic releasing factors +pineal secretions to reach pituitary gland)
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6
Q

True or false

Glyceryl trinitrate is completely metabolised by 1st pass metabolism

A

True

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7
Q

True or false

Tubocurare is a lipid soluble drug

A

False

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8
Q

True or false

Metabolism of drugs consists of phase 1 ‘functionalisation’ and phase 2 ‘conjugation’

A

True

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9
Q

True or false

Lipid solubility is a product of physiochemical properties of the drug and pH of the environment

A

True

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10
Q

What are sensory nerves also termed as?

A

Sensory afferent nerves

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11
Q

what are the functions of phospholipid cell membranes?

A
  • cell-cell recognition
  • sites for recognition of chemical messengers
  • control exchange of solutes
  • defines shape
  • structural integrity
  • facilitate cellular locomotion
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12
Q

what is the role of cholesterol in plasma membranes?

A

increase flexibility,
reduce fluidity
lower permeability to water soluble molecules

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13
Q

what is a lipid raft?

A

found on plasma membranes, they contain a lot of cholesterol and sphingolipid molecules .
involved in transportation of proteins in small vesicles

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14
Q

which membrane protein is attached to the plasma membrane only by non- covalent bonding to other membrane proteins?

a) integral
b) transmembrane
c) peripheral

A

peripheral

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15
Q

what are integral membrane proteins?

A

a protein exposed to only one side of the plasma membrane and interact with the plasma membrane (either with an alpha helix chain, lipid groups or tight binding to other proteins)

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16
Q

Which molecule is impermeable to plasma membranes?

a) water
b) urea
c) bicarbonate ions
d) ethanol
e) oxygen

A

c) bicarbonate ions because they are charged ions

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17
Q

what are uniport, symport and antiport transport protein?

A

uniport: one way transport of a single molecule
symport: two molecules transported simultaneously
antiport: two molecules transported in opposite directions

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18
Q

what type of transport protein is the glucose transport protein? (symport or antiport) and which molecule is it coupled with?

A

symport coupled with sodium ions
the glucose facilitated diffusion is dependent on sodium ion concentration gradient which is maintained by sodium ion pumps

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19
Q

give an example of an antiport transporter protein

A

sodium-potassium ATPase pump

3 sodium ions pumped out of cell, 2 potassium ions pumped into cell

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20
Q

what are types of cell junctions?

A

tight junctions

adherens junctions

hemidesmosomes

desmosomes

gap junctions

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21
Q

give an example of location of tight junctions and their function

A

epithelial cells in small intestines

seal cells together creating a barrier

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22
Q

what is the difference between phagocytosis and pinocytosis?

A

phagocytosis : “cellular eating” ingestion of large particles
pinocytosis: “cellular drinking” ingestion of fluid and solutes

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23
Q

what is receptor mediated endocytosis and where does it occur?

A

uptake of molecule once bound to receptors on plasma membrane - triggers endocytosis - example of cholesterol,LDLs uptake

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24
Q

what is osmotic pressure?

A

force applied to stop osmosis

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25
Q

why are potassium ions high in concentration within a cell?

A

the acidic intracellular pH = negatively charged proteins within the cell that attract the positive potassium ions

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26
Q

which equation is used to measure the equilibrium resting potential of a cell?

A

nerst equation

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27
Q

what prevents sodium ions from entering the potassium ion channel?

A

the selectivity filter has four carbonyl groups that can only accommodate the larger potassium ion.
the sodium ion is too small to interact with the carbonyl groups

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28
Q

what is the difference between ligand gated ion channel structure and voltage gated ion channel protein structure?

A

ligand gated: - have 5 subunits each one with 4 membrane spanning components (M1-M4)

voltage gated: have 4 subunits each one with 6 membrane spanning components (S1-S6)

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29
Q

how does the voltage gated ion channel open?

A

following depolarisation, the S4 transmembrane protein (positively charged) moves towards the extracellular side = opening the pore

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30
Q

on ligand gated channel proteins, where do the ligands bind?

A

two ligands bind on the receptor sites on the TWO alpha units

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31
Q

which neurotransmitter is slow acting?

a) GABA
b) glutamate
c) 5-HT
d) glycine

A

5-HT is slow acting

other slow acting include dopamine, noradrenaline

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32
Q

what is the difference between fast acting and slow acting neurotransmitters and their receptor proteins?

A

fast acting: associated with ION channels
eg GABA, glutamate, glycine

slow acting : associated with G-PROTEIN coupled receptors
eg 5-HT, NA, dopamine

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33
Q

what are the four types of intercellular signalling?

A
  • neuronal
  • contact-dependent (eg immune response)
  • paracrine (between local cells, short acting)(eg mast cells)
  • endocrine (hormones, between distant cells, long lasting)
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34
Q

how are steroid and thyroid hormones transported?

A

attached to plasma globulins

they increase plasma concentration and half life of the hormones

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35
Q

what are metabotropic receptors?

A

G protein linked

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36
Q

what is the difference between phosphatases and kinases?

A

phosphatase: chemically remove a phosphate group
kinase: chemically add a phosphate group

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37
Q

which receptor is found on sarcoplasmic reticulum that mediates calcium ion release?

A

ryanodine receptors

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38
Q

describe the action of guanylate cyclase

A

guanylate cyclase is found either bound to a membrane receptor or as soluble form in cytosplasm

guanylate cyclase converts GTP into cGMP = causes smooth muscle relaxation

the soluble guanylate cyclase is stimulated by NO

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39
Q

what are the two types of axonal transport and what do they transport?

A

ANTEROGRADE: by kinesins

  • fast : neurotransmitters
  • slow: proteins to make microtubules

RETROGRADE: dyneins
- transport excess plasma membrane to be recycled

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40
Q

what does the epineurium extend from?

A

dura and arachnoid mater

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41
Q

describe the structure of the nerve bundles found in the PNS in terms of their protective coverings

A

endoneurium: wrapped around myelinated neurones
perineurium: wrapped around bundles of neurones forming a fascicle
epineurium: holds together nerve fascicles and blood vessels - wrapped around a nerve

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42
Q

what is the difference between the myelinating cells found in the CNS and PNS?

A

CNS; - oligodentrocytes
- can wrap around many axons

PNS: - Schwann cells

     - wrap around one axon
     - assist in regeneration
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43
Q

why cannot nerve cells in the CNS regenerate?

A

astrocytes, a type of glial cell, prevent regeneration as damage causes them to scar (gliosis)

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44
Q

action potentials are initiated by voltage gated sodium channels in the axon hillock. which statement is incorrect about the axon hillock?

a) small diameter
b) higher threshold potential for action potential initiation
c) higher density of voltage gated Na+ channels

A

b) at the axon hillock, it has a lower threshold for AP initiation.

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45
Q

what is the difference between relative and absolute refractory period?

A

absolute: axon cannot be stimulated another time (2 ms)
relative: axon can be stimulated again but needs a more intense depolarisation (5 ms)

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46
Q

what causes hyperpolarisation?

A

voltage gated potassium channels are slow to close again

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47
Q

what is the significance of voltage gated potassium channels in returning to the resting potential?

A

they quicken the time taken for the axon to reach resting potential = shorter refractory period

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48
Q

what is the “self-limiting safety mechanism” of sodium pumps?

A

action potentials are blocked if intracellular sodium levels are too high - prevents cell from swelling up

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49
Q

rate of conductance action potentials depend on?

A
  • passive and active flow of current
  • size of cell (larger cells conduct faster)
  • myelination
  • size of NA+ influx
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50
Q

what is a ‘graded potential’?

A

occurs in sensory nerve axons, it is not an ‘all-or-nothing’ type but depends on the intensity of the stimulus (eg pressure)

a more intense stimulus causes a higher frequency of action potentials

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51
Q

during an action potential, why is the sodium ion equilibrium not fully reached?

A

potassium leak channels lower the intracellular mV

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52
Q

at the resting potential, where does the equilibrium within the cell lie?
a) potassium equilibrium
OR
b) sodium equilibrium

A

potassium equilibrium because remember NA+/K+ pumps move sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell but K+ can diffuse back out by potassium leak channels

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53
Q

what does calcium bind to?

a) synaptobrevin
b) synaptotagmin
c) SNAP-25
d) syntaxin
e) synaptophysin

A

b) synaptotagmin

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54
Q

what does botulinum toxin cleave?

a) SNAP-25
b) synaptobrevin
c) synaptotagmin
d) syntaxin

A

b) synaptobrevin

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55
Q

the amount of neurotransmitter in one vesicle is called the…?

A

quantum

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56
Q

what is the miniature end-plate potential ?

A

the change in membrane potential of the muscle cell produced by a single quantum (single neurotransmitter vesicle)

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57
Q

when is the reserve pool of neurotransmitter vesicles mobilised and used?

A

upon strong stimulation

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58
Q

which pool of neurotransmitters in CNS is the largest in number?

a) reserve pool
b) recycling pool
c) readily-releasable pool

A

a) reserve pool (80-95%)

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59
Q

describe the vesicle fusion in terms of SNAREs

A

Calcium ions bind to synaptotagmin = vesicle draws closer to membrane

synaptobrevin on vesicle (vSNARE) interacts with tSNAREs (SNAP-25 and syntaxin)

vesicle membrane fuses with plasma membrane

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60
Q

what are the methods of inactivation and termination of neurotransmitter action in synaptic clefts?

A
  • reuptake (Uptake1)
  • enzymatic degradation
  • uptake by glial cells or passive diffusion (uptake 2)
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61
Q

what is the criteria for a neurotransmitter?

A
  • synthesised in the neurone
  • stored in vesicles
  • calcium dependent release
  • removal mechanism from synaptic cleft
  • metabolism of neurotransmitter
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62
Q

which cells make up the blood brain barrier?

A

endothelial cells- tight junctions
- adherens junctions

pericytes

astrocyte end feet

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63
Q

in the BBB endothelial cells, what three proteins are found in tight junctions ?

A

-claudin and occludin

> form channels allowing selective diffusion of ions and hydrophilic molecules

-junction adhesin molecules (JAM)

> heterotypic (JAM interactions between endothelial and leukocytes = transmigration of leukocytes)

> homotypic (JAM interactions between adjacent endothelial cells = barrier)

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64
Q

which GLUT transporter is found in the BBB?

A

GLUT 1

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65
Q

how is cerebral spinal fluid formed?

A

formed from specialised epithelial cells in the choroid plexus that is in the third, fourth and lateral ventricles

formed by the transport of NA+, CL-, HCO3- ions into the CSF = osmotic gradient = water movement (mediated by aquaporin 1)

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66
Q

describe the circulation of CSF

A

starts from: choroid plexus cell secretions

                              ↓
                  lateral ventricles

                              ↓  (intraventricular foramina)

                    third ventricle

                              ↓ (mesencephalic aqueduct)

                    fourth ventricle

                               ↓  (median aperture, lateral foramina)

                 subarachnoid space
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67
Q

what is the function of pericytes in the BBB?

A
  • mechanical support
  • makes endothelium more resistant to apoptosis
  • barrier to macromolecules
  • formation of tight junctions in endothelial cells
  • regulation of endothelial proliferation + differentiation
  • phagocytic activity
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68
Q

what is the function of astrocyte end feet in BBB?

A
  • provide nutrients to endothelium
  • secretion of cytokines
  • influence organisation of vessel wall
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69
Q

for sensory/ascending neurones, which order decussates ?

a) first
b) second
c) third

A

b) second

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70
Q

what are the two divisions of the dorsal column medial lemniscal (DCML) pathway

A

Fasciculus Gracilis : touch sensation from upper limbs

Fasciculus Cuneatus : touch sensation from lower limbs

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71
Q

what information does the dorsal column medial lemniscal (DCML) pathway carry?

A

sensory information of discriminative tough

proprioception

vibration

72
Q

what information does the spinocerebellar tract carry?

A

carries unconscious proprioceptive sensory information

posture, coordination

73
Q

what are the two types of senses?

A

SPECIAL: vision, taste, hearing, balance, smell

GENERAL:
>somatic : touch, thermal, pain, prorprioception

> visceral : internal organs

74
Q

what are the three main ascending pathways in the spinal cord?

A

DCML (dorsal column medial lemniscus) (conscious)
> gracilis and cuneatus

spinothalamic (conscious)
> anterior
> lateral

spinocerebellar (subconscious)
> posterior
>anterior

75
Q

where do the first order neurones of the DCML pathway terminate and synapse with second order neurones?

A

nucleus gracilis

nucleus cuneatus

(ipsilateral side)

76
Q

where do the second order neurones of the DCML pathway decussate?

A

medulla

77
Q

when is the medial lemniscus formed from the ascending tracts of the DCML pathway?

A

after second order neurones decussate in the medulla, they ascend up the brain stem as the medial lemniscus

78
Q

where do the second order neurones of the DCML pathway terminate?

A

thalamus of the contralateral side

79
Q

what does damage to the LEFT dcml pathway in the spinal cord cause?

A

loss of sense of:

  • touch
  • proprioception
  • vibration

on LEFT side (ipsilateral)

(because second order neurones decussate in the MEDULLA OBLONGATA)

80
Q

which tracts carry pain and thermal sensations?

a) DCML pathway
b spinothalamic
c) spinocerebellar

A

b spinothalamic

81
Q

which tracts carry discriminative touch sensory information from the upper body?

a) fasciculis Gracilis
b) fasciculis Cuneatus
c) spinothalamic
d) spinocerebellar

A

b) fasciculis Cuneatus

82
Q

which tracts carry non-discriminative touch sensory information?

a) fasciculis Gracilis
b) fasciculis Cuneatus
c) lateral spinothalamic tract
d) anterior spinothalamic tract
e) spinocerebellar

A

d) anterior spinothalamic tract

83
Q

which tracts carry pain and thermal sensory information?

a) fasciculis Gracilis
b) fasciculis Cuneatus
c) lateral spinothalamic tract
d) anterior spinothalamic tract
e) spinocerebellar

A

c) lateral spinothalamic tract

84
Q

where do the axons of the first order neurones of the spinothalamic tracts terminate?

A

dorsal horn of spinal cord grey matter

85
Q

what will damage to the left spinal cord of the spinothalamic neurones cause?

A

loss of pain, thermal and non-discriminative touch on the RIGHT side of the body

(because the second order neurones decussate within the spinal cord)

86
Q

which tract only consists of two neurones?

a) DCML
b) spinothalamic
c) spinocerebellar

A

c) spinocerebellar

87
Q

which second order neurones do not decussate ?

a) fasciculis Gracilis
b) fasciculis Cuneatus
c) lateral spinothalamic tract
d) posterior spinocerebellar tract
e) ventral spinocerebellar tract

A

d) posterior spinocerebellar tract

88
Q

which second order neurones decussate twice?

a) fasciculis Gracilis
b) fasciculis Cuneatus
c) lateral spinothalamic tract
d) posterior spinocerebellar tract
e) ventral spinocerebellar tract

A

e) ventral spinocerebellar tract

89
Q

what will damage to the spinocerebellar side cause?

A 
incoordination of movement
ataxia
loss of motor coordination 
loss of balance 
(ipsilateral damage)
90
Q

which one is not an extrapyramidal descending pathway?

a) vestibulospinal
b) reticulospinal
c) rubrospinal
d) corticobulbar
e) tectospinal

A

d) corticobulbar

91
Q

what are the two divisions of the descending pathway in the spinal cord? and what is the major difference?

A

pyramidal : voluntary motor control

extra-pyramidal : involuntary motor control

92
Q

which tract supplies to the muscles of the head and neck?

a) corticospinal
b) corticobulbar
c) spinocerebellar
d) DCML

A

b) corticobulbar

93
Q

what is the difference between corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts?

A

corticospinal: - provide motor neurones to muscles of body
corticobulbar: muscles of the head and neck

94
Q

which one of the following functions is not supported by the DCML?

a) fine touch
b) vibrations
c) pain
d) proprioception

A

c) pain

95
Q

damage of the spinothalamic system will present with which symptoms?

a) ipsilateral loss of tactile sensation
b) contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation
c) ipsilateral hemiparesis
d) muscle weakness

A

b) contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

96
Q

corticospinal neurones descend through which structure?

a) external capsule
b) internal capsule
c) red nucleus
d) caudate nucleus
e) clark’s column

A

b) internal capsule

97
Q

which of these describes the functions of the vestibulospinal tract?

a) coordinate balance and posture
b) fine control of hand movements
c) inhibit voluntary movement
d) movement of head and neck
e) control of alpha and gamma motor neurones

A

a) coordinate balance and posture

98
Q

which of these describes the functions of the reticulospinal tract?

a) coordinate balance and posture
b) fine control of hand movements
c) inhibit voluntary movement
d) movement of head and neck
e) control of alpha and gamma motor neurones

A

e) control of alpha and gamma motor neurones

99
Q

what is a dermatome?

A

the skin territory innervated by one dorsal root

100
Q

the larger the diameter of a neurone, the …

a) faster the conduction velocity
b) slower the conduction velocity

A

a) faster the conduction velocity

101
Q

which type of nerve fibre is not a sensory fibre? ( name another motor neurone)

a) A-1a
b) Aα
c) Aβ
d) Aδ
e) C fibres

A

b) Aα - alpha motor neurone to skeletal muscles

Aγ - motor neurone to muscle spindle

102
Q

what is a receptive field?

A

the area of skin where a stimulus can influence a sensory receptor

103
Q

how do nerves allow discrimination of a stimulus despite overlapping of receptive fields?

A

the neurone stimulated the most (directly under the receptive field) inhibits neighbouring neurones

104
Q

which type of sensory neurones are found in the tooth pulp?

A

Aδ and C fibres

105
Q

which fibres are associated with fast pain and temperature

a) A-1a
b) Aα
c) Aβ
d) Aδ
e) C fibres

A

d) Aδ

106
Q

which fibres are associated with slow pain and temperature sensations

a) A-1a
b) Aα
c) Aβ
d) Aδ
e) C fibres

A

e) C fibres

107
Q

which fibre type is the sensory fibre for muscle spindles?

a) A-1a
b) A-1b
c) Aα
d) Aβ
e) Aδ
f) C fibres

A

a) A-1a

108
Q

which fibre type is associated with sensory information from golgi tendon organs?

a) A-1a
b) A-1b
c) Aα
d) Aβ
e) Aδ
f) C fibres

A

b) A-1b

109
Q

which fibre type is associated with motor signals to the muscle spindle

a) A-1a
b) A-1b
c) Aα
d) Aβ
e) Aδ
f) Aγ

A

f) Aγ

110
Q

which fibre type is associated with general sensory information eg from skin, visceral organs etc

a) A-1a
b) A-1b
c) Aα
d) Aβ
e) Aδ
f) Aγ

A

d) Aβ

111
Q

name the types of encapsulated sensory nerve endings

A
  • meissner’s corpuscles
  • ruffini’s corpuscles
  • pacinian corpuscles
112
Q

name the types of proprioceptors

A
  • muscle spindle
  • golgi tendon organ
  • joint kinesthetic receptors
113
Q

name the types of free nerve ending sensory receptors

A
  • merkel discs

hair follicle receptor

114
Q

which one is NOT rapidly adapting?

a) pacinian corpuscle
b) meissner’s corpuscle
c) hair follicle receptor
d) merkel discs

A

d) merkel discs - slow adapting)

115
Q

list the fast adapting receptor endings

A
  • pacinian corpuscle
  • meissner’s corpuscle
  • hair follicle receptor
116
Q

name the slow adapting receptors

A
  • ruffini’s corpuscle
    merkel discs
    C fibres
    Aδ fibres
117
Q

lower motor neurones receive information from which three sources?

A
  • upper motor neurones
  • intermediate neurones
  • local sensory nerve fibres (via reflexes)
118
Q

what is ‘reciprocal inhibition’ in muscle contraction?

A

1a afferent from the muscle spindle of the effector muscle inhibits the contraction of its agonist muscle

119
Q

what is the role of the Golgi tendon organ?

A

Golgi tendon organs monitor tension

to inhibit stimulation of muscle contraction if it may damage the joint tissue - found in tendons (1b afferent)

120
Q

what test can you perform to indirectly determine the working of the corticospinal tract?

A

plantar test - normal reflex is inward flexion (curling) of toes

-abnormal function is outward curling of toes (normal in infants - due to incomplete myelination of NS)

tests spinal cord from L4-S2

121
Q

describe the different effects of upper and lower motor neurone damage

A

UPPER MOTOR NEURONE DAMAGE:

  • spastic paralysis (abnormally increased muscle tone)
  • hyperactive or exaggerated stretch reflexes
  • positive plantar test
  • slight atrophy of muscles

LOWER MOTOR NEURONE DAMAGE:

  • flaccid paralysis
  • decreased or absent reflexes
  • pronounced atrophy of muscle
122
Q

what causes upper and motor neurone damage?

A

UPPER:
-damage to CNS eg trauma, infection disease etc

-involves corticospinal tract

LOWER:
-damage to CNS or PNS

  • structures involved are brainstem α motor neurones, peripheral motor neurones, spinal α motor neurones
  • eg polio, trauma, alcoholism, diabetes
123
Q

what does a motor unit consist of?

A
  • group of muscle fibres innervated by an α neurone
124
Q

what is a monosynaptic reflex?

A

reflex where the 1a afferent has a direct connection with its α motor neurone

125
Q

what is the gate control theory?

A

inhibitory interneurones at the spinal level inhibit the pain stimulus via spinothalamic tract

Aδ or C fibres inhibit this inhibitory interneurone = allows pain to transmit to brain via spinothalamic tract

Aβ fibres activate this inhibitory interneurone = decreased pain transmission via spinothalamic tract

therefore stimulation of Aβ fibres by rubbing reduces pain

126
Q

which lingual papilla does not contain taste buds?

a) filiform
b) fungiform
c) circumvallate
d) foliate
e) none of the above

A

a) filiform

127
Q

what is a tastant?

A

soluble chemical that can diffuse into the taste pore

128
Q

which cell type in the olfactory bulb is the principle neurone?

a) granule
b) mitral
d) periglomerulus

A

b) mitral

129
Q

which cell creates lateral inhibition in glomerulus of the olfactory bulb?

a) granule
b) mitral
d) periglomerulus

A

d) periglomerulus

130
Q

which cell is the inhibitory neurone in an olfactory bulb?

a) granule
b) mitral
d) periglomerulus

A

a) granule

131
Q

what structures of the brain does the olfactory bulb innervate?

A

hippocampus - odour memory

frontal cortex - conscious perception

hypothalamus (amygdala) - motivational/emotional aspect of smell

132
Q

what is an odourant receptor protein?

A

a transmembrane protein found on plasma membrane of the cilia of the olfactory neurone.

it is Gs protein coupled. upon activation it causes sodium channels to open and a an action potential to be generated

133
Q

what are the olfactory serous glands (bowmans) ?

A

under the epithelium, secrete serous fluid containing odourant binding proteins

134
Q

what are odourant binding proteins?

A

bind to odours insoluble in mucus and carry them to receptors

increase odourant concentration and have high binding affinity to odourants

135
Q

what is found in an olfactory bulb?

A

glomerulus

mitral cells

periglomerular cells

granule cells

136
Q

which cranial nerves innervate the tongue papillae?

A

facial nerve

vagus

glossopharyngeal

137
Q

which taste type causes depolarisation in a taste bud by blocking K+ channels from intracellular H+ ions

a) salt
b) acidic
b) sweet/umami

A

b) acidic

138
Q

which taste activates causes depolarisation of sensory neurone by a taste bud by Gq-protein signalling?

a) salt
b) acidic
b) sweet/umami

A

b) sweet/umami

139
Q

breifly describe the tatse pathway

A

taste bud stimulated

neurone synapses with 2nd order at rostrolateral nucleus of solitary tract in medulla oblongata

goes to thalamus

projects to primary gustatory cortex (above lateral sulcus)

140
Q

what does the rostrolateral nucleus of solitary tract project to?

A
  • preganglionic autonomic fibres in medulla/spinal cord that are involved in visceral sensations eg salivation
  • RETICULAR SYSTEM network responsible for gastrointestinal reflexes (eg swallowing, vomiting) and respiratory reflexes (eg coughing and sneezing)
  • the PARABRACHIAL NUCLEUS : makes connections with hypothalamus and amygdala - important in learnt responses to taste
141
Q

what is the function of the hippocampus?

A

labels a new experience with time and place for memory retrieval

142
Q

which part of the brain is damaged to cause apperceptive agnosia ?

A

right posterior parietal lobe

143
Q

which part of the brain is damaged to show associative agnosia ?

A

left posterior parietal lobe

144
Q

what is apperceptive agnosia

A

inability to recognise an object in space/ ability to distinguish it from background

145
Q

what is associative agnosia

A

inability to name object

146
Q

what is the posterior parietal lobe function?

A

to recognise an object and name it

147
Q

what is the inferotemporal cortex function?

A

object recognition by memory recall

148
Q

what does damage to the inferotemporal cortex cause?

A

amnesia

149
Q

what is the difference between anterograde and retrograde amnesia?

A

anterograde: inability to form new memories
retrograde: inability to recall long term memories ( comes back in patches)

150
Q

information from the visual cortex travels to which part of the brain? right or left first?

A

from visual cortex, goes to right hemisphere to be recognised and then to the left to be named

151
Q

what is the pathway from short term memory to long term memory called?

A

consolidation

152
Q

what is the function of the dorsolateral cortex ?

A

planning and decision making

153
Q

what does damage to the dorsolateral cortex cause?

A

inability to plan, abnormal perseverance, inability to focus attention

154
Q

what is the function of the orbitofrontal cortex?

A

inhibitory function over emotional and motivational drives - adjusts to normal social standards

155
Q

what is the function of the limbic system?

A

emotional and motivational role

156
Q

what does damage to the hippocampus result in?

A

inability to retrieve newly formed memories

157
Q

what is the function of the amygdala in memory formation?

A

applies an emotional label onto a new experience

158
Q

what is the function of the cingulate gyrus?

A

emotional response to pain

159
Q

what are the specific signs of cerebellar damage?

A
  • ataxia (unbalanced gait)
  • flicking eye movements
  • slurred speech
  • intention tremor
  • lack of coordination in movement
  • inaccuracies in rapidly repeated movements (opening and closing mouth rapidly)
160
Q

what are the cerebellar divisions and their functions?

A
  • spinocerebellum : controls of limbs and trunk
  • cerebrocerebellum: planning of movement
  • vestibulocerebellum: balance + control of eye and head and movements
161
Q

what is the function of the primary motor cortex?

A

controls voluntary movement

receives information from premotor, supplementary motor cortex, prefrontal, basal ganglia via thalamus

162
Q

what is the difference in the corticobulbar and corticospinal tracts?

A

corticobulbar: voluntary control of head and neck muscles
corticospinal: voluntary control of upper limbs

163
Q

what tracts arise from the brainstem, extrapyramidal or pyramidal?

A

extrapyramidal eg vestibulospinal and reticulospinal

164
Q

name the origin of the vestibulospinal and reticulospinal tracts and their functions

A

vestibulospinal: from vestibule nuclei in brainstem - control of balance, locomotion and posture
reticulospinal: from reticular formation - modulates reflexes (autonomic control)

165
Q

what is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

initiate movement and modulates activity of motor cortex via motor thalamus

166
Q

which structure shows signs of alcohol intoxication following damage?

a) motor cortex
b) vestibulospinal tract
c) basal ganglia
d) cerebellum
e) prefrontal cortex

A

d) cerebellum

167
Q

which structure gives parkinsons disease following damage?

a) motor cortex
b) vestibulospinal tract
c) basal ganglia
d) cerebellum
e) prefrontal cortex

A

c) basal ganglia

168
Q

what is the function of the supplementary motor cortex?

A

planning of complex, rapid moevemtns

169
Q

which structure in the brain shows apraxia following lesions?

a) primary motor cortex
b) supplementary motor cortex
c) basal ganglia
d) premotor cortex
e) prefrontal cortex

A

b) supplementary motor cortex

170
Q

what is the function of the premotor cortex?

A

sensory guidance

171
Q

what is the role of the broca’s area?

A

language vocalisation

172
Q

what is the function of wernicke’s areas?

A

language perception

173
Q

what pathway connects broca and werickes area?

A

arcuate fasciculus

174
Q

what is expressive aphasia and what part of the brain must be damage to produce it?

A

damage to broca’s area

difficulty in saying words

175
Q

what is receptive aphasia and what part of the brain is damaged to cause it?

A

damage to wernickes area

meaningless words

176
Q

what is conduction aphasia and what part of the brain is damaged to cause it?

A

damage to the arcuate fasciculus

inability to repeat back spoken or written words

177
Q

which side of the brain is more dominant in speech specialisation ?

A

left hemisphere

year 1 (8 decks)

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