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Veterinary physiology > Neurophysiology > Flashcards

Neurophysiology Flashcards

1
Q

Define glycocalyx.

A

is a glycoprotein and glycolipid pericellular matrix that surrounds the neuron, constituting a protective barrier

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2
Q

How is spontaneous movement of molecules and ions across a membrane possible?

A

passive transport down a concentration gradient

both in regard to particulate concentration and voltage - > electrochemical

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3
Q

Lipid bilayer is permeable to?

A

small polar molecules that are not ionized,
gases O2, CO2
water molecules,
steroid hormones

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4
Q

Lipid bilayer is not permeable to?

A

ions,
hydrophilic molecules and
macromolecules

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5
Q

Simple diffusion happens through what or where?

A

lipid bilayer or protein channels

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6
Q

specific water channels for the rapid water movement

A

Aquaporins

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7
Q

Describe facilitated diffusion

A

facilitated by carrier proteins

usually when molecules are too big to diffuse through the usual channels

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8
Q

Name the gross division for protein channels.

A

leak channels and gated channels

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9
Q

Name the channel type that requires a signal molecule for activation.

A

ligand-gated channels

triggered by ligands like acetylcholine, GABA, cAMP, ATP

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10
Q

Name the channel type that requires a mechanical signal.

A

stretch-activated channels

e.g. stretch receptors in muscles, sound receptors

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11
Q

Name the channel type that requires a change in electric-potential to react.

A

voltage-gated channels

e.g. Na-/K-channels of nerve and muscle cells

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12
Q

The difference between primary and secondary active transport?

A

In primary- the energy is required directly.

In secondary- the energy is derived secondarily from energy stored in the concentration gradients of ions.

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13
Q

Name a primary active transporter.

A

Na+/K+ ATPase transporter, or „pump“

Ca 2+ pump in skeletal muscles: elimination of Ca after contraction

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14
Q

Name the 2 types of secondary active transport.

A

shared carrier proteins - counter-transport, in which the two substrates cross the membrane in opposite directions (antiport)

and cotransport, in which they cross in the same direction (symport)

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15
Q

Name a secondary active transporter.

A

sodium-glucose linked transporter, SGLT in enterocytes

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16
Q

What type of transport is vesicular transport?

A

active transport

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17
Q

Give 2 examples of direct intercellular communication.

A

gap-junctions (common in smooth- and cardiac mm.)

nanotubes

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18
Q

Give 6 examples of indirect intercellular communication.

A 
Cytokines 
Hormones 
Neurohormones
Neurotransmitters
Paracrines
Pheromones
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19
Q

What are paracrines?

A

a form of cell signaling in which a cell produces a signal to induce changes in nearby cells

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20
Q

What are cytokines?

A

regulatory peptides such as interferon, interleukin, and growth factors, which are secreted by certain cells of the immune system and have an effect on other cells.

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21
Q

Normal membrane resting potential?

A

-70- 90 mV

some sources say -50- 75 mV

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22
Q

Define membrane potential.

A

Unequal distribution of ions on the outer and inner surface of plasma membrane and the difference in electric potential caused by this

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23
Q

Define action potential.

A

the rapid and propagating change of the resting membrane potential associated with the passage of an impulse along the membrane of a muscle or nerve cell.

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24
Q

what, in excitatory cells, opens in response to action potential

A

sodium- and potassium- gated ion channels

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25
Q

Define depolarisation.

A

cell undergoes a shift in electric charge distribution, resulting in less negative charge inside the cell compared to the outside.

caused by the fast influx of sodium ions

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26
Q

Define repolarization.

A

the change in membrane potential that returns it to a negative value just after the depolarization phase of an action potential

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27
Q

Define refractory period.

A

state during which a new action potential cannot be initiated,
time when the membrane potential is not yet restored

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28
Q

What is absolute refractory period.

A

absolute- precedes relative-

in this phase, a second action potential cannot be initiated, no matter how large a stimulus is repeatedly applied.

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29
Q

What is relative refractory period.

A

relative- follows absolute-

a second action potential can be initiated, but initiation will require a greater stimulus than before

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30
Q

The difference between absolute and relative refractory periods?

A

absolute is not possible to change

refractive is possible to change conditionally

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31
Q

minimum threshold potential

A

typically -50 to -55 mV

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32
Q

the basis for local anaesthesia, treatment of

high blood pressure etc. lies in what concept?

A

blocking voltage-gated channels

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33
Q

Define saltatory propagation.

A

is the propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons from one node of Ranvier to the next node, increasing the conduction velocity

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34
Q

Difference between electrical and chemical synapses?

A

in a chemical syn-, the nerve impulse passes chemically by means of neurotransmitters whereas an electrical synapse is connected through channel proteins.

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35
Q

example of where electrical synapses are used

A

heart muscle, smooth muscle

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36
Q

example of where chemical synapses are used

A

nerve cells

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37
Q

In peripheral neurons, which neurotransmitters dominate

A

acethylcholine and norepinephrine

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38
Q

define Agonist

A

a compound that binds to the receptor and activates it similarly to the corresponding neurotransmitter

e.g. opium, morphine, heroin are agonists to enkephalins and endorphins

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39
Q

define antagonist

A

a compound that binds to the receptor but does not activate it, these molecules prevent the receptors from
binding agonists and thus block their action

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40
Q

Define neuropeptide.

A

any of a group of compounds which act as neurotransmitters and are short-chain polypeptides.

neuropeptides act more slowly and for longer than neurotransmitters of non-peptide species

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41
Q

What is the depolarization phase of action potential caused by?

A

Fast influx of Na+ ions

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42
Q

Name the three meninges from outside in

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

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43
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid between which meninges

A

arachnoid and pia mater

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44
Q

What is the function of the choroid plexuses?

A

the main function of which is to produce cerebrospinal fluid
The capillaries are highly selective and permeable to
limited compounds – blood brain barrier

45
Q

What is a choroid plexus

A

richly vascularized secretory pia mater tissue

46
Q

CSF composition?

A

is cell and protein free,
low content of glucose and
amino acids,
lower K+ concentration than in blood plasma

47
Q

Which part of the brain is not bound by the blood-brain-barrier?

A

Hypothalamus because of it’s regulatory function of homeostasis

48
Q

define neuroglia

A

also called glial cells

a diverse class of cells that provide developmental, physiological, and metabolic support for neurons.

49
Q

peripheral nervous system neuroglia

A

two kinds of neuroglia: schwann cells and satellite cells.

50
Q

Neuroglia in the CNS

A

astrocytes,
ependymal cells
microglial cells
oligodendrocytes

51
Q

What are microglia and their function?

A

glial cells of CNS

are the brain’s immune cells
play a role in the developing brain.

52
Q

What are Astrocytes and their function?

A

glial cells of CNS

control the levels of neurotransmitter around synapses, control the concentrations of important ions
provide metabolic support
modulate how neurons communicate.

53
Q

What are oligodendrocytes and their function?

A

glial cells of CNS

produce myelin

54
Q

What are ependymal cells and their function?

A

glial cells of CNS

line the spinal cord and ventricles of the brain.
They are involved in creating cerebrospinal fluid

55
Q

What are Schwann cells and their function?

A

glial cells of PNS

myelinate neurons in the peripheral nervous system.

56
Q

What are Satellite cells and their function?

A

glial cells of PNS

surround neurons in the sensory, sympathetic
and parasympathetic ganglia
and help regulate the chemical environment.

57
Q

define ganglion/ganglia

A

are ovoid structures containing cell bodies of neurons and glial cells supported by connective tissue in the peripheral nervous system.

Ganglia function like relay stations - one nerve enters and an other exits.

58
Q

What are Motor nerves

A

also known as efferent nerves

send impulses from the brain and spinal cord to all of the
muscles.

59
Q

What are Sensory nerves

A

also known as afferent nerves

Send impulses from muscles, skin and other areas of the body to the spinal cord and brain.

60
Q

What are autonomic nerves

A

also known as a type of efferent nerve
control involuntary or semi-voluntary functions

damage can cause dysfunction of different body organs

61
Q

Nerve fiber gross classification?

A

A, B and C groups

62
Q

A-nerve fibers divided into what further subgroups?

A
  • A-alpha fibers
  • A-beta fibers
  • A-delta fibers
  • A-gamma fibers
63
Q

Describe fibers of a-group.

A

have a large diameter, high conduction velocity, and are myelinated.

64
Q

Describe • A-alpha fibers

A

are the primary receptors of the muscle spindle and golgi

tendon organ.

65
Q

Describe • A-beta fibers

A

act as secondary receptors of the muscle spindle and

contribute to cutaneous mechanoreceptors.

66
Q

Describe • A-delta fibers

A

are free nerve endings that conduct painful stimuli related to pressure and temperature.

67
Q

Describe • A-gamma fibers

A

are typically motor neurons that control the intrinsic

activation of the muscle spindle.

68
Q

Describe Fibers of the B group

A

are myelinated with a small diameter and have a low conduction velocity.

The role of B fibers is to transmit autonomic information.

69
Q

Describe Fibers of the C group

A

are unmyelinated, have a small diameter, and low conduction velocity.

C fibers often respond to combinations of thermal, mechanical, and chemical stimuli.

70
Q

what is cauda equina

A

a thick bundle of long nerve roots in lumbar and sacral regions

71
Q

Grey matter of the spinal cord consists of?

A

neuron bodies,
dendrites and glial cells,

dorsal ventral and lateral horns in each half

72
Q

White matter of the spinal cord consists of?

A

consists of bundles of myelinated nerve fibers located peripherially

73
Q

A nerve is what exactly

A

a bundle of peripheral neuronal axons.

Bundles of nerves are called tracts.

74
Q

How many cervical nerves

A

Cervical nerves -8 pairs

75
Q

How many thoracic nerves

A

Thoracic nerves – 13-18 pairs

76
Q

How many lumbar nerves

A

Lumbar nerves – 5-7 pairs

77
Q

How many sacral nerves

A

Sacral nerves – 3-5 pairs

78
Q

How many coccygeal nerves

A

Coccygeal nerves - 4-9 pairs (1 in human)

79
Q

Cerebral motor cortex gives rise to what three descending motor tracts:

A

the corticonuclear,
corticopontine, and
corticospinal.

80
Q

The corticonuclear tract descends to its target nuclei in the brainstem, mediating what type of actions?

A

voluntary actions as eye movements,

mastication, facial expression, swallowing, neck movement, and tongue movement.

81
Q

The corticopontine tract terminates in the

A

pons and synapses with neurons that send their axons to the contralateral cerebellum.

82
Q

Two types of reflex arcs:

A

autonomic reflex arc (affecting inner organs) and

somatic reflex arc (affecting muscles)

83
Q

what is the Golgi tendon organ

A

is a proprioceptive sensory receptor organ that is located at the insertion of skeletal muscle fibers onto the tendons of skeletal muscle. It provides the sensory component of the Golgi tendon reflex.

84
Q

what are muscle spindles

A

are stretch receptors within the body of a skeletal muscle that primarily detect changes in the length of the muscle.
proprioception

85
Q

give 3 examples of polysynaptic reflexes

A

scratching reflex
postural
withdrawal

86
Q

when is the Sympathetic nervous system active

A

during stress and physical activity

87
Q

when is the Parasympathetic active

A

active during rest

88
Q

Feedback control principle

A

the variable being controlled is measured and compared with a reference

89
Q

which nervous system is always in tonus.

A

ANS

90
Q

where are the Sympathetic NS centers

A

in thoracic and lumbar regions

The first neuron body in CNS and the second – in
sympathetic trunk or three ganglia.

91
Q

where are the Parasympathetic NS centers

A

in midbrain, medulla and
sacral region of spinal cord.

The second neuron is located in the ganglion near the
effector.

92
Q

in which NS

Preganglionic fibers are short and postganglionic fibers are long

A

Sympathetic NS

93
Q

in which NS

Preganglionic fibers are long and postganglionic fibers are short

A

Parasympathetic NS

94
Q

sympathetic NS Neurotransmitter of preganglionic axons is

A

acetylcholine

(cholinergic axons, nicotinic or muscarinic cholinergic
receptors)

95
Q

sympathetic NS Postganglionic axons release

A

norepinephrine (binding to α- or β- adrenergic receptors)

96
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system both fiber types release?

A

acetylcholine

97
Q

What are nicotinic receptors?

A

are receptor polypeptides that respond to acetylcholine.

98
Q

What are muscarinic receptors?

A

are acetylcholine receptors that form G protein-coupled receptor complexes in the cell membranes of certain neurons and other cells.

Five subtypes

99
Q

Where can nicotinic receptors be found?

A

On postganglionic cell bodies in all autonomic

ganglia

100
Q

Where can muscarinic receptors be found?

A

On effector cells of parasympathetic system

101
Q

Receptor types in sympathetic system

A

Adrenergic receptors

α1 receptors
α2 receptors
β1 receptors
β2 receptors

102
Q

On what type of cells are adrenergic receptors found

A

On effector cells of sympathetic system

103
Q

bind to what and what type of response - α1 receptors

A

bind to norepinephrine, excitatory response

104
Q

bind to what and what type of response - α2

receptors

A

bind to norepinephrine, inhibitory response

105
Q

bind to what and what type of response • β1

receptors

A

bind equally to epinephrine and to

norepinephrine, excitatory response

106
Q

bind to what and what type of response • β2 receptors

A

bind to epinephrine, inhibitory response

107
Q

What do Muscarine and nicotine have in common

A

agonists of ACh receptors

108
Q

what type of receptor found primarily in heart

A

β1 –adrenergic receptors found primarily in the heart

109
Q

where are the Regulatory centers of the autonomic nervous system

A

in hypothalamus and medulla oblongata

Veterinary physiology (10 decks)

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