Hematological physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is MCV?

A

Mean corpuscular volume is a value that describes the average size of red blood cells in a blood sample.

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2
Q

What is MCH?

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin is the average mass of hemoglobin per red blood cell in a sample of blood.

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3
Q

What is MCHC?

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration tells you how much of a single cell is hemoglobin.

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4
Q

What is the molecule called when CO2 is bound to hemoglobin?

A

Carbaminohemoglobin

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5
Q

What is it called when the ferrous iron of heme is oxidized to its ferric state? (Fe2+ -> Fe3+)

A

this Hb is known as metHb or Methemoglobin

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6
Q

What is the stable complex of carbon monoxide and hemoglobin called?

A

Carboxyhemoglobin

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7
Q

How is MCH calculated?

A

MCH = (Hb/RBC) × 10

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8
Q

How is MCV calculated?

A

MCV = (Hct/RBC) × 10

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9
Q

How is MCHC calculated?

A

MCHC = (Hb/Hct) × 100

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10
Q

A protein present in blood serum which binds to and removes free hemoglobin from the bloodstream.

A

haptoglobin

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11
Q

what is haptoglobin

A

A protein present in blood serum which binds to and removes free hemoglobin from the bloodstream

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12
Q

define poikilocytosis

A

increase in abnormal red blood cells of any shape that makes up to 10% or more of the total population.

point-like projections or may include shapes that are flat, elongated, teardrop, or in the shape of a sickle or crescent.

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13
Q

define thalassemia

A

an inherited blood disorder that causes your body to have less hemoglobin than normal.

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14
Q

an excess of hemoglobin in the blood plasma is called what

A

hemoglobinemia

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15
Q

Fe3+

A

ferric state of iron

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16
Q

Fe2+

A

ferrous iron

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17
Q

define Heinz body hemolysis

A

Heinz body anemia is a type of hemolytic anemia, which happens when red blood cells break down faster than can be replaced.

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18
Q

What transports iron in the blood?

A

transferrin

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19
Q

storage form of iron

A

ferritin

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20
Q

define physiological polycythemia

A

the increase in hematocrit during physical activity and at high altitudes

also known as erythrocytosis

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21
Q

name some polymorphonuclear leukocytes

A

neutro-, baso- and eosinophils

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22
Q

Which leukocytes are produced only in the bone marrow?

A

granulocytes and monocytes

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23
Q

Which type of leukocyte is often a player in parasitic infections?

A

eosinophils

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24
Q

Kuppfer cells are?

A

the liver’s stationary macrophages

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25
Q

thrombocytes are produced where from what?

A

in the bone marrow from megakaryocytes

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26
Q

platelet production is regulated by?

A

thrombopoietin (TPO)

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27
Q

the extrinsic coagulation pathway is triggered by?

A

a tissue factor (TF)

more specifically tissue thromboplastin (factor III)

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28
Q

What converts fibrinogen to fibrin?

A

the enzyme, thrombin

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29
Q

Which coagulation factor stabilizes the fibrin mesh and what is it activated by?

A

factor XIII, and its activated by thrombin

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30
Q

inactive precursor of thrombin?

A

prothrombin

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31
Q

Which factor causes prothrombin to convert to active thrombin?

A

factor X which is normally present inactively but is triggered by endothelial injury

(can be activated by either intrinsic- or extrinsic pathways)

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32
Q

difference between intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways

A

The main difference is that intrinsic pathway is activated through exposed endothelial collagen,

and the extrinsic pathway is activated through tissue factor released by endothelial cells after external damage.

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33
Q

What factor is the intrinsic pathway triggered by?

A

factor XII (the Hageman factor)

so exposed collagen fibers or foreign substances (like test tube glass)

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34
Q

which plasma protein inactivates “escaped” thrombin?

A

antithrombin III

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35
Q

What dissolves blood clots?

A

fibrinolysis performed by the proteolytic enzyme plasmin

36
Q

proenzyme precursor of plasmin?

A

plasminogen

37
Q

Which coagulation factor do birds and aquatic mammals lack (thus rendering it an unessential factor) ?

A

factor XII

38
Q

Role of prostacyclin.

A

inhibits platelet activation and is an effective vasodilator.

39
Q

Role of nitric oxide in endothelial cells.

A

vasodilation, inhibition of platelet aggregation and adhesion

40
Q

What is primary hemostasis?

A

Platelet adhesion, activation and aggregation

thus primary platelet plug formation

41
Q

What is secondary hemostasis?

A

cascade of enzymatic reactions that ultimately results in the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin

produces a stabilized thrombus known as the secondary hemostatic plug

42
Q

state of increased red blood cell size distribution

A

anisocytosis

43
Q

Which plasma proteins are produced by the liver?

A

all of them, except the immunoglobulins, are produced by the liver.

44
Q

Most important ions in extracellular compartments are:

A

Na+, Ca2+, Cl-, HCO3-

45
Q

Most important ions in intracellular compartments are:

A

K+, Mg2+, PO4 2-, and negatively charged proteins.

46
Q

Whole blood viscosity depends on what

A

hematocrit and plasma protein content.

47
Q

Tonicity vs. osmolarity

A

Tonicity takes into account the total concentration of only non-penetrating solutes.

Osmolarity = the total concentration of all solutes, penetrating and non-penetrating.

48
Q

1 mole of an osmotically active substance can also be called?

A

1 osmole

49
Q

thrombocytopenia may indicate

A

the animal has either used up a large quantity of the available cells in clot formation

bone marrow/ clotting disorder

50
Q

neutrophilia is usually a sign of

A

a bacterial infection or some form of extreme stress.

51
Q

eosinophilia indicates that

A

an animal is suffering from an infection with parasites, or has allergies.

52
Q

eosinopenia can indicate?

A

extreme or prolonged stress to the animal.

53
Q

lymphopenia can be seen when?

A

are observed at the beginning of an infection or following the use of steroid (immunosuppressive) medications.

54
Q

lymphocytosis can indicate

A

prolonged illness or leukemia.

55
Q

GALT

A

gut-associated lymphoid tissue, Peyer’s patches

56
Q

spleenic white pulp function

A

The white pulp has the lymphatic function of filtering the blood for antigens.

57
Q

spleenic red pulp function

A

The red pulp is mostly used to store blood and break down old red blood cells.

58
Q

Why is the spleen a lymphoid organ?

A

traps antigens and is a site for initiation of the immune response. exchange of lymphocytes with the lymph.

59
Q

The lymphatic system performs three important tasks:

A

fluid homeostasis between blood vessels and tissues
plays a large role in immunity
absorbs digested fats from the small intestine

60
Q

EDTA, Na-citrate, Na-oxalate (in vitro) work as anticoagulants by?

A

Binding of Ca2+

61
Q

The final step of blood coagulation is

A

the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

62
Q

the final step of hemostasis.

A

Fibrinolysis - The degradation of fibrin

63
Q

Plasmin function

A

dissolves clots after the healing, and prevents spontaneous clot formation.

64
Q

Name two compounds that cleave plasminogen into plasmin.

A

Tissue plasminogen activator (tPa)

urokinase

65
Q

Five stages of hemostasis

A
Vasoconstriction (reflexory)
primary platelet plug formation
Secondary haemostatic plug 
Retraction of fibrin
Fibrinolysis
66
Q

define osmotic pressure

A

The quantitative measure of the tendency for water to diffuse

67
Q

what determines osmotic pressure.

A

concentration of solute (all particles)

68
Q

total body water is roughly how much of total body weight

A

60%

69
Q

TBW gross division?

A

extracellular (20%) and intracellular water (40%)

70
Q

extracellular fluids further divided?

A

interstitial (15%)
intravascular (5%)
transcellular (variable)

71
Q

ECF makes up what portion of total body weight

A

20%

72
Q

ICF makes up what portion of total body weight

A

40%

73
Q

In normal hematocrit, the plasma volume would be

A

roughly 60%.

74
Q

smaller then normal RBCs would be termed?

A

microcytic

75
Q

paler than normal RBCs would be termed?

A

hypochromatic

76
Q

red blood cells are too big, is called?

A

Megaloblasty

77
Q

increase in reticulocytes

A

reticulocytosis

78
Q

what is rdw

A

Red Cell Distribution Width

an index of the degree of anisocytosis (variability in RBC size)

79
Q

An increase in the number of WBC above normal range is termed

A

leukocytosis.

80
Q

Possible causes of leukocytosis include:

A
  • Presence of pathogenic organisms
  • Neoplasia
  • Haemorrhage
  • Steroid hormones (e.g estrogen, testosterone)
  • Degenerative non-inflammatory disease (e.g osteoarthritis)
81
Q

Possible causes of leukopenia are:

A
  • Bone marrow failure
  • Overwhelming infections
  • Viral diseases, e.g. feline viral panleucopenia
  • Cushing’s disease.
82
Q

What is a left shift?

A

The term indicates the presence of neutrophil precursors in blood, typically band neutrophils and rarely metamyelocytes.

occurs when Band neutrophils will prematurely leave the marrow. Although often occurring with
bacterial infections, left shifts also result from noninfectious causes of inflammation, such as
tissue necrosis and immune-mediated disease.

83
Q

What is a right shift?

A

The term right shift describes increased numbers of hypersegmented neutrophils, with five or
more nuclear lobes which usually occurs as an aging change, when circulate in blood for a longer time.

84
Q

What does WBC dot plot fluorescence tell you?

A

indicates density based on nucleic acid content of a cell

85
Q

What does WBC dot plot granularity tell you?

A

indicates side-scatter meaning variation in optical complexity (of the cytoplasm)

86
Q

Which “version” of hemoglobin is incapable of binding O2?

A

Methemoglobin (metHb)