Neuromuscular disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Genetic predispositions to MS

A

HLA-DRB1*15- increases risk

3-4% increased risk among first-degree relatives

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2
Q

Environmental predispositions to MS

A

Low vitamin D
Smoking
Infection: EBV, HHV
Early life obesity

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3
Q

Schilder disease

A

Affects children/ young adults

Large areas of demyelination

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4
Q

Pathological process in MS

A

Autoimmune, inflammatory destruction of myelin with partial preservation of axons
- T cells mediated
- Causes atrophy of oligodendrocytes and gliosis

B cell dysfunction
- synthesis of IgG bands
- Anti-CD20 agents effective in exacerbation

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5
Q

Marcus Gunn pupil

A

Unilateral relative afferent pupillary defect
- afferent pupil dilating when light swung between both eyes

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6
Q

Intranuclear opthalmoplegia is caused by a lesion to the __________

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

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7
Q

Intranuclear opthalmoplegia features

A
  • Medial rectus palsy on same side
  • Intact convergence reflex
  • Lateral nystagmus in contralateral eye
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8
Q

Mechanism of Intranuclear opthalmoplegia

A

CN6 nucleus in pons (lateral rectus)
- Communicates to medial longitudinal fasciculus —> CN 3 nucleus in midbrain

CN3 innervates medial rectus

Activation of lateral gaze (CN6) alllows conjugate eye movememnt

Lesion in MLS causes palsy on medial rectus on same side
- CN6 still functioning on contralateral side- causing nystagmus

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9
Q

Pronator drift test showing pronation and downward arm drift is typical of what lesion?

A

Upper motor neuron lesion

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10
Q

Pronator drift test showing pronation and upward arm drift is typical of what lesion?

A

Cerebellar lesion

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11
Q

Pathophysiology of neuromyelitis optica

A

Anti-aquaporon-4 antibody
- Destroys membrane of astrocytes involved in humoral immune response

Causes demyelination and axonal damage of optic nerve and spinal cord

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12
Q

Neuromyelitis optica acute treatment

A

Loading steroids with tapering over 2-8 weeks

Severe= plasmaphersis

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13
Q

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis is associated with…

A

Infection (i.e. measles)
Vaccination

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14
Q

Diagnostic features of Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

A

Clinical- rapid progression
- motor, sensory, CN, brainstem involvement
- optic neuritis
- reduced GCS

LP
- high lymphocyte
- raised protein

MRI spine/ brain
- B/L lesions

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15
Q

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis management

A

High-dose IV steroids
Acyclovir empirically

2nd line
- IV immune globulin

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16
Q

First line treatment for MS

A

High dose IV steroids

2nd line- plasmapheresis, ACTH gel

17
Q

Lifestyle modifications for MS

A

Exercise
Smoking cessation
Manage sleep disorders

18
Q

Most commonly used disease-modifying MS medication

A

Interferon- beta
Glatiramer acetate

19
Q

Ocrelizumab is used in what MS phenotype

A

Primary, progressive MS

20
Q

Adverse effects of interferon-beta

A

Injection site reaction
Flu-like symptoms
Liver dysfunction
Leukopenia
Depression

21
Q

Glatiramer acetate (copolymer-1)

A

Decoy for T cells instead of myelin
- reduced Th1 inflammation and increases anti-inflammatory Th2

22
Q

What disease-modifying MS medication is teratogenic?

A

Teriflunomide

23
Q

What medication used in MS can aid mobility by blocking K channels, allowing increased AP in demyelinated axons?

A

Dalfampridine

24
Q

Poor prognostic factors for disease progression in MS

A

Male
Onset >40
Multiple early motor and cerebellar involvement
Incomplete recovering after exacerbation

High relapse within first 2 years of MS onset

25
Q

Effect of pregnancy on MS

A

Decreased exacerbation during pregnancy

Increased exacerbation risk post-partum

26
Q

Effect of MS on pregnancy

A

Low fetal birth weight
Increased rate of C-section/ assisted deliver

27
Q

Medication cautions for MS during pregnancy

A

Stop most-disease modifying medications at least 4 months before conception
- glatiramere acetate is the safest

Avoid steroids in 1st trimester

Avoid breastfeeding for DM medications

28
Q

What are the two approved drugs for ALS?

A

Riluzole
Edaravone

29
Q

Life-expectancy prognosis for ALS

A

Most (70%)- 3-5 years from onset

30
Q

Common infection causes associated with GBS

A

Typically 2-4 weeks before:
C. jejuni
CMV
EBV

31
Q

Clinical presentation of GBS

A

Bilateral ascending flaccid paralysis over days
Glove-stocking paraesthesia
Hypo/areflexia
CN weakness- most commonly facial nerve
Respiratory distress
Autonomic dysfunction

32
Q

GBS prognosis

A

Most (80%) have spontaneous remission with near complete recovery in 6 months.

3-7% die from complications

33
Q

Indications for IV immunoglobulins/ plasmapheresis in GBS

A

Severe flaccid paralysis (unable to walk unsupported for >10m
Bulbar palsy
Progressive respiratory failure/ autonomic dysfunction
Mechanical ventilation

34
Q

Diagnostic features of GBS

A

Labs- exclude infection or electolyte disturbance

CSF- increased protein, normal WCC (<10/ mcL)

Nerve conduction studies
- Sural nerve typically intact

EMG
- Shows neuropathy instead of myopathy
- Pathological spontaneous activity= unfavourable prognosis

35
Q

Monitoring in GBS

A
  1. Monitor for respiration function with PFTs
  2. Autonomic function: cardiac monitoring, bladder/ bowel function
  3. Motor/sensory function, including swallowing
36
Q

What tool can be used to predict the need for mechanical ventilation in GBS?

A

Erasmus GBS respiratory insufficiency score

37
Q

Poor prognostic factor for long-term disability in GBS

A

Rapid progression of symptoms
Severe symptoms at peak of disease
Older age
Axonal damage